Famous Study Guide - General Flashcards

1
Q

How many CCs of contrast per Kilogram of pt weight in an adult?

A

1-2 cc/kg

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2
Q

What is the 1st drug administered for anaphylactic shock?

A

epinephrine

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3
Q

What is the first drug administered for a vasovagal reaction?

A

atropine. Heart and BP drop and atropine speeds up the heart rate

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4
Q

What anatomical region is imaged if a glioma is suspected?

Or … Astocytoma, Schwan Cellanoma, oligodendroglioma

A

Brain

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5
Q

What are the types of detectors commonly used in CT systems?

A

Scintillation (solid state) & Gas (Xenon)

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6
Q

What is the advantage of scintillation detectors over xenon gas?

A

More efficient

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7
Q

What determines pixel size?

A

DFOV (SFOV) divided by Matrix size

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8
Q

What is quantum noise related to?

A

Number of detected photons (could reduce quantum noise by upping the mAs)

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9
Q

How can a ring artifact be corrected?

A

recalibrate the detector or detector gain

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10
Q

What determines the Voxel volume?

A

Voxel volume = Pixel Area X Section Thickness
Pixel area = FOV/Matrix X FOV/matrix (answer in mm2)
(field of view divided by matrix times field of view divided by matrix)
Pixel area in mm2 times section thickness in mm (answer in mm3)

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11
Q

What information set must you have to change the DFOV (displayed field of view) after a
scan has been completed?

A

Raw Data aka Scan Data

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12
Q

What is the normal adult creatinine range?

A

0.6 - 1.2 mg/dl

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13
Q

What type of Contrast Media is utilized for a biopsy of the pancreas?

A

Oral Water Soluble Iodinated

NO barium for any biopsies

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14
Q

What type of archival system is NOT used to store LONG term data?

A

Hard Drive (Disk)

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15
Q

What type of artifact is caused by a metal prosthesis?

A

Streak (beam hardening artifact)

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16
Q

What does spatial resolution depend on?

A

Algorithm (Reconstruction), and voxel size
Voxel size is related to … Pixel Size and Slice Thickness,
Pixel size is related to … Matrix Size, Displayed or Scanned FOV
So… spatial resolution is related to algorithm, FOV. Matrix, thickness

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17
Q

The Seminal Vesicles are located?

A

posterior to the bladder, anterior to the rectum, superior

to the prostate gland

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18
Q

Why would a soft tissue algorithm be selected?

Or… What does a soft tissue algorithm do?

A

Increases contrast resolution,

But most of all decreases noise

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19
Q

What effect does a bone algorithm have on a CT image?

A

Increased image noise

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20
Q

What causes a streak artifact generally found between the fundus and
body of the stomach?

A

Air-Contrast interface or edge gradient

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21
Q

What artifact is commonly found between the petrous ridges and brain
tissue and is caused by x-ray penetrating bone and traveling over soft tissue?

A

Beam Hardening or cupping

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22
Q

What is partial volume averaging?

A

Two or more tissue types contained in one pixel can
give ROI reading of (average) pixel values (wrong CT numbers)
Answer: Several (generally) small anatomic structures, contained
within a voxel – averaged together and therefore become
indistinguishable from one another
Answer Results in lower spatial resolution

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23
Q

What scanning protocol best visualizes the seminal vesicles?

A

5mm section thickness, 5mm couch or bed index (5 X 5)

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24
Q

What angle is a needle reduced to for venipuncture for entering a vein?

A

Answer: 10 - 15 degrees also sterile technique should be used
for all injection procedures.
FYI Alcohol does not make it sterile. Betadine, start in the center,
work outward in a 3-5 inch circle, no retracing.

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25
Q

What type of (needle) do you use for injecting with a power injector?

A

18-20 gauge angiocatheter (most common). (even though we typically use 22g at CCIS for routine power injected cases)

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26
Q

Why is intravenous contrast utilized for Lumbar Spine CT?

A

Post operative … differentiate between scar tissue and
herniated nucleus pulposus material
Answer: Pre-operative… To enhance epidural veins – to evaluate
for displacement of the enhanced veins – hence bulge…

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27
Q

What is necessary for radiation therapy planning?

A

Flat table or pad, external markers, date and info on film.
Movable X, Y coordinates … NOT!
DO NOT WANT TO MOVE THE PLANE for therapy treatment
HENCE, NO MOVEMENT OF X-Y COORDINATES.

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28
Q

How does the couch and tube move during a spiral/helical examination?

A

Couch and tube move continuously, at the same time

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29
Q

What is an array processor responsible for?

A

Arithmetic computing for image reconstruction

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30
Q

What scanning plane best demonstrates the nasal turbinates?

A

Coronal

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31
Q

Why is it important to scan from the supraclavicular region through the
adrenal glands for CT of the chest?

A

Lung metastasis typically spread to adrenals vice-versa

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32
Q

What are the disadvantages of spiral scanning?

A

1 problem blooming of the effective slice thickness

i.e. Thicker slices than what the operator selected
for example: 10mm actually 12.5mm.
Increases partial volume averaging. Increased Tube heat,
Increased image noise do to addition of interpolation
Algorithm involved in the reconstruction process.

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33
Q

What does a Hounsfield unit represent?

A

Linear attenuation coefficient (scanned tissues),

CT number, absorption

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34
Q

What is necessary to be able to change an algorithm for image
reconstruction?

A

Raw or Scan Data

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35
Q

What is Window Width?

A

Total range of gray shades,

Total range of CONTRAST availability.

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36
Q

What is a Window Level?

A
Central Value (middle) of the gray scale,
DENSITY of the image
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37
Q

What is the best position to evaluate air-fluid level in the sinuses?

A

Patient positioned prone, neck hyper-extended – chin up

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38
Q

What is an average WW and WL for an abdomen?

A

Any number in the ranges: 300-400 WW, 20-60 WL

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39
Q

What is interpolation?

A

Mathematical method for taking SPIRAL data and

converting into and viewing it as AXIAL images

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40
Q

Why is a full scanned field of view utilized for CT scanning of a spine?

A

A reduced display FOV is utilized for spine scanning, A full circle is utilized to acquire the scan or raw data…
Primarily to AVOID ARTIFACTS

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41
Q

What units are used to measure spatial resolution?

A

Line pairs per centimeter lp/cm

Modular transfer function (graph)

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42
Q

What type of contrast media (CM) may be visible as long as one year after
a CT exam?

A

Any oil based iodine CM or trapped barium
Oil based: same as that used for myelograms (like pantopaque)
Barium trapped in diverticula

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43
Q

What may occur if contrast media if IV contrast is injected into a
dehydrated patient?

A

Elevated creatinine, eventually hypovolemic shock

Hypovolemic shock is due to loss of volume in the vascular system

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44
Q

What is the 1st physical action for venipuncture?

A

Apply a tourniquet

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45
Q

What is the function of a Data Acquisition System (DAS)

A

boosts the signal from the detector and converts analog
(electrical) to digital information the analog to digital converter
actually does this but it is part of the DAS

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46
Q

What anatomical region does phlebitis most commonly occur?

A

CALF

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47
Q

What are the physical signs that an infiltration has occurred during an
injection?

A

Redness and Swelling

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48
Q

What is considered to be a reaction to venipuncture?

A

infection

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49
Q

What is considered to be a potential reaction to venipuncture?

A

Extravasation potentially can lead to an infection

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50
Q

What is the primary difference between a 512 and 256 matrix?

A

Number of Pixels, utilizing a 256 matrix instead of a 512

matrix technically speaking allows FASTER RECON TIME.

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51
Q

What kind of contrast is utilized for a suspected uterine mass?

A

IV, ORAL, RECTAL

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52
Q

What is the normal range of respirations for an adult and for a child?

A

12-20 per minute adult, 20-30 Child

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53
Q

What is the reason for fewer reactions to non-ionic vs. Ionic CM?

A

non-ionic does not break down into charged particles

when it enters a solution - the osmolality value is less than ionic

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54
Q

If a hemorrhage of Gerota’s fascia is suspected what anatomical region
would you scan?

A

The kidneys, Gerota’s fascia is the term given to the

Connective Tissue that surrounds the kidneys

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55
Q

Which of the following is a severe reaction to IV contrast?

A

Anaphylactic shock

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56
Q

What type of artifact occurs when a reference detector is blocked?

A

Streak artifact

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57
Q

Which of the following are contraindications to IV contrast?

A

Renal failure, multiple myeloma, pheochromocytoma,
sickle cell anemia (active) are all major contraindications and it is
difficult to determine which is worse except if renal failure is among
the choices it is your best pick.

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58
Q

Syncope is an indication for CT of What?

A

Brain

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59
Q

Strict breathing instructions are indicated for what studies?

A

Chest and abdomen

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60
Q

What is an indication for HRCT of the chest?

A

Asbestosis

61
Q

What are the best cuts (parameters you choose) for reformations?

A

Thin and overlapping sections

62
Q

What is the normal BUN range?

A

7-22 or 7-25 mg/dl

63
Q

What does not affect contrast media flow?

A

The amount of contrast media injected (Viscosity, iodine concentration and temperature do!!!!)

64
Q

What would be an indication for water soluble contrast?

A

Bowel perforation

65
Q

What is the reason to know the PT lab value? PTT and Platelet count

A

Coagulation

66
Q

All could happen but this for a biopsy of the pelvis?

A

Pneumothorax

67
Q

How do you inject through a central venous line?

A

Piggyback

68
Q

What is one way you could miss a 1cm tumor in the lung?

A

Inconsistent patient breathing

69
Q

Why can’t you use x-ray barium?

A

Too dense, streak artifacts

70
Q

What is a good window width and level for Lung tissue?

A

WW 1500, WL 500

71
Q

What is a good window width and level for bone?

A

WW 3000, WL 300

72
Q

What is Modular Transfer Function?

A

Graphical representation of SPATIAL RESOLUTION

Measured in lp/cm, tells how small you can scan without blurring.

73
Q

Range for accuracy of water phantom test for CT number accuracy?

A

-3 to +3 CT or HU, should be done weekly,

74
Q

To decrease image noise?

A

Increase technical factors, increase photons,

Increase dose

75
Q

How do we represent image noise?

A

SD, standard deviation in the ROI measurement

76
Q

What is the dose measurement for CT contiguous sections

A

CTDI Computed Tomography Dose Index

77
Q

What is the worst IV injection method to image the liver?

A

NOT hand injection, NOT Power injection

Answer: Drip infusion

78
Q

How can we decrease partial volume averaging?

A

Reduce voxel sixe

Reduce slice thickness, reduce FOV, increase matrix

79
Q

What causes a straight black line artifact on a scout view?

A

Malfunctioning detector, detector is out

80
Q

Where do we see beam hardening artifacts?

A

Most common appearance straight, black, thick line
between the temporal bone. Occurs in regions where high density
structures (such as cortical bone – near air – near tissue – near
metal implants) meet low density structures. Sudden changes in
beam energy due to the anatomy acting as “filters”. Also known as a
CUPPING artifact.

81
Q

What must you do to maintain image quality when section thickness is
decreased. Example: changing from 10mm to 5mm.

A

Increase technical factors; produce more photons to the

smaller region. Increase mAs or kVp

82
Q

Where is the data acquisition system (DAS) located?

A

Between the detectors and array processor

83
Q

What is the function of the array processor?

A

Responsible for computations necessary for image

reconstruction

84
Q

Which portion of the pancreas is the most common site for tumors?

A

The head of the pancreas. Is located apprx T-12

85
Q

When should oral contrast be given for a scan of the pancreas?

A

Any “just abdomen CT scans” contrast should be given
½ hour prior to scanning. This allows filling of the small bowel
particularly the C-loop of the duodenum.

86
Q

What is the best scanning phase for imaging the liver?

A

Pre-equilibrium phase.

87
Q

What is the term given to the region where tracheal bifurcation occurs?

A

Carina

88
Q

Dynamic scanning is best for?

A

Any situation, enhancing vs. Non-enhancing lesions.
Generally, the table is set to specific point and is not moved “zero
increment”. Contrast is injected and the area is scanned to see if
enhancement occurs. Liver hemangiomas are a great example for
this type of scanning. Peripheral enhancement “ring like” may occur
rather quickly but the central portion does not enhance immediately.
Delayed enhancement does occur.

89
Q

When does the tube not move for a CT scan?

A

During reconstruction or for the “scout view” it remains

stationary.

90
Q

What is the best way to scan a c-spine or a c-spine for a Jefferson C1
fracture?

A

The scanning plane: parallel to the disk space.

91
Q

What is the purpose of scanning a patient prone following a myelogram?

A

Reduces CSF and contrast media layering.

92
Q

What is the purpose of a CT request for only a scout view of the lower
extremities?

A

Long bone measurement also known as

orthoroentgenography.

93
Q

What is represented by the standard deviation in an ROI measurement?

A

Image noise, IMPORTANT: Standard deviation
represents changes in CT numbers in an area. The difference
between each level of “noise” a pixel has and compares it to the
others.

94
Q

What is an appropriate window setting for a pneumothorax?

A

1600ww, -600wl 2000ww, -200wl. Any window level

that has a (-) minus window level

95
Q

What CT numbers represent acute blood?

A

40 - 100

96
Q

What does a CT number of 0 represent?

A

water

97
Q

What does a CT number of 1000 represent?

A

bone

98
Q

What does a CT number of -1000 represent?

A

air

99
Q

What does a CT number of -100 represent?

A

fat

100
Q

Where is the jugular foramina located?

A

Temporal bone

101
Q

What is the most common reason for a pelvic biopsy?

A

Endometrial CA

102
Q

What type of patient consent is obtained for an unconscious patient
resulting from trauma?

A

Implied

103
Q

What is the best way to demonstrate spondylolisthesis?

A

Spondylolisthesis occurs from a defect in the pars interarticulars
of a vertebrae allowing it to slip forward. A lateral
radiograph or a sagittal reformation best demonstrates the
pathology.

104
Q

What is not considered to be a parenteral route of contrast

administration?

A

Parenteral means any route of injection (CM
administration) that bypasses the GI tract. Oral route is not a
parenteral route of CM administration.

105
Q

Why are thin slices utilized for scanning the inner ear?

A

Increase detail or spatial resolution. Any time you use
smaller sections it increases spatial resolution. Especially, sinuses,
facial bones, any small pathology.

106
Q

What is considered to be a normal platelet count?

A

150,000 to 400,000mm3

107
Q

What are possible preps for a patient with a history of CM reaction?

A

Antihistamines, steroids, hydration

108
Q

CT scanners ability to differentiate anatomical areas with minimal
differences in tissue and CT numbers.

A

Contrast resolution

109
Q

What can cause hydrocephalus and where would the pathology be best
demonstrated?

A

A blocked foramen, foramen of Monroe. The ventricles.

110
Q

What can’t be changed with retrospective reconstruction?

A

Scanned field of view, section thickness.

111
Q

What is the best anatomical region for a bone density study (reading)?

A

Lumbar spine

112
Q

Loss of connective tissue may cause?

A

Rolling veins

113
Q

Metformin or glucophage precautions. When and how long do we hold?

A

OLD WAY: Withhold 48 hours before and after exam.
NEW WAY: take patient off right before exam, renal clearance BUN
and creatinine, 48 hours after exam is over provided renal is ok.

114
Q

Name given to filter that absorbs low energy photons so they don’t cause
scatter?

A

Bow-tie filters

115
Q

What is another name for a recon algorithm?

A

Kernel

116
Q

What is the term used to describe the process of using a kernel or
algorithm during the recon process?

A

Convolution

117
Q

Coronal reformations are best for?

A

Anything that is demonstrated the best superior to
inferior sinus air-fluid levels = direct coronal scanning = prone, neck
hyper-extended pituitary gland, tentorium cerebelli, nasal conche,
turbinates.

118
Q

Delays for abd?

A

abd, liver up to 120 secs usually 60-80 secs

119
Q

What converts light to an electric signal in a scintillation detector?

A

Photodiode

120
Q

What effect on recon time will a change from 512 matrix to 256 matrix.produce?

A

A faster recon time

121
Q

Change 256 to 512 will do what to detail?

A

better detail (increased spatial resolution)

122
Q

Most common area for HNP?

A

L4 - L5

123
Q

What is Stereotaxis?

A

Method of tumor localization for surgery of the brain.

124
Q

When would you perform prone spine scanning?

A

Prevents layering of CM post myelogram CT

and CSF layering.

125
Q

What is the region scanned if patient has an abnormal level of Prolactin
“Growth Hormone” with Amenorrhea?

A

Pituitary gland

126
Q

What is the reason for using smaller sections (thin slice thickness) to scan
the inner ear?

A

Increase spatial resolution.

127
Q

Where is the Olfactory nerve?

A

The Olfactory nerve “smell” comes up through the
ethmoid bone with the majority of it in the region of the cribriform
plate. Cribriform plate and the crista galli are part of the ethmoid
bone and are best evaluated in the coronal plane.

128
Q

Chronic subdural hematoma would appear?

A

Isodense. CM would have to be injected to visualize it.

129
Q

Appearance of a non-filled loop of bowel?

A

Tumor, abscess, obstruction. In a patient with known

Crones disease it looks like an abscess.

130
Q

What is the best way to visualize aortic dissections?

A

Bolus injection (rate) (continuous)

131
Q

What is the connective tissue termed that anchors the kidneys in the
retroperitoneal space?

A

Gerota’s fascia (renal fat) Wow!

132
Q

X-ray photons that pass through a patient are called?

A

Attenuated

133
Q

CT systems ability to differentiate objects with minimal differences in
tissue?

A

Contrast resolution.

Low soft tissue contrast

134
Q

What should rectal contrast be diluted to?

A

2%

135
Q

How should a patient be prepped with a history of prior CM reaction?

A

Steroids & Antihistamines

136
Q

What is considered to be a severe adverse reaction to CM?

A

Anaphylactic Shock

137
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of a power injector?

A

Possibility (increased) risk of extravasation.

138
Q

What is the normal systolic BP range?

A

95-140 mm/Hg

139
Q

What is the normal diastolic BP range?

A

60-90 mm/Hg

140
Q

Child respiration rate?

A

20-30 breaths per minute

141
Q

Adult respiration rate?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

142
Q

Elements of Negligence MUST HAVE ALL FOUR!!!

A

Duty to Care, Breach of Duty, Proximate Cause, Injury.

Injury does not have to be physical.

143
Q

What term represents the average CT number in a Region of Interest “ROI”
measurement?

A

Mean

144
Q

What elements are in Solid State detectors?

A

Bismuth Germinate, Cadmium Tungstate, Rare Earths

145
Q

What element is not used in detectors because of afterglow problems?

A

Sodium Iodide

146
Q

What is perfusion CT used for?

A

Perfusion CT of the brain is the fastest modality for the early detection of acute cerebral ischemia (strokes)

147
Q

Can a CT Scout image be used to measure long bones?

A

Yes, it can.

148
Q

Where do we find Jefferson fxs?

A

C1 (ring fx)