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Facts Flashcards

1
Q

What fungal pathogens grow in pigeon feces and has the potential of being a serious zoonotic problem?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans grows exceptionally well in pigeon feces.

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2
Q

What is the growth medium of choice for Mycoplasma bovis?

A

Hayflick’s agar

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3
Q

This sound represents vibration of blood during ventricular contraction and closure of the atrioventricular valves.

A

S1

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4
Q

What is the causative agent of laryngotracheitis in chickens?

A

Herpesvirus

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5
Q

A 2-day old white foal presents for colic. The foal was normal at birth and is the progeny of 2 valuable Overo horses. What should you suspect?

A

Ileocolonic agangliosis

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6
Q

You suspect that the horse has strangles. What would you expect to see if you aspirated one of the enlarged lymph nodes?

A

Purulent inflammation and gram positive cocci with large capsules

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7
Q

What is the causative agent of transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE) in swine?

A

Coronavirus

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8
Q

Dive bomber sound on electromyographic examination is pathopnuemotic for?

A

myotonia

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9
Q

What is the principal mode of transmission of T.cati in cats?

A

Transplacental

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10
Q

Ivermectin is effective against which organisms?

A

Nematodes

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11
Q

Which of the following is a known adverse effect of itraconazole administration in a dog?

A

skin lesions

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12
Q

Once infected, for what period of time is canine parvovirus usually shed?

A

7-10 days

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13
Q

Which of the following is caused by Toxocara canis when ingested by humans?

A

Visceral larva migrans

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14
Q

What is the potential metabolic consequence of continuous saliva loss in cattle?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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15
Q

Sand flies and black flies are the vector of __________.

A

Vesicular stomatitis

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16
Q

A 4-year old doe presents after parturition with a firm udder and minimal milk flow. Mammary biopsies show an elevated number of lymphocytes and macrophages in the parenchyma and around ducts. What is your diagnosis?

A

The correct answer is CAEV. These clinical signs and biopsy findings are pathognomonic for CAEV. You need to cull this animal as there is no successful treatment. CAEV is a contagious retrovirus.

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17
Q

You suspect Coccidioidomycosis in your canine patient. Demonstration of which of these in a sample from a bronchoalveolar lavage would confirm your suspicions?

A

Sperule

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18
Q

What is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies?

A

Direct fluorescent antibody test

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19
Q

wolf tooth is which tooth?

A

premolar 1

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20
Q

What atrial arrhythmia is least concerning in the horse?

A

Atrial premature complexes

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21
Q

Staphylococcus hyicus is which disease?

A

greasy pig disease

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22
Q

Red maple toxicity causes which of the following?

A

anemia

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23
Q

Which virus can result in congenital microphthalmia in calves?

A

Bovine viral diarrhea

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24
Q

While on a trip to the river a Labrador Retriever got into a fight with a fox. What will be your course of action if the dog is up-to-date on vaccinations?

A

Vaccinate for rabies immediately and quarantine for 45 days

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25
Q

What is the most common cause of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in the cat? in the dog?

A

chronic pancreatitis in cats; in dogs, which develop EPI from pancreatic acinar atrophy.

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26
Q

how to medically manage ferret with an insulinoma?

A

Prednisone and diazoxide

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27
Q

What is the main vector for Babesia in cattle?

A

Rhipicephalus

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28
Q

Progesterone levels are highest in cattle during what period?

A

diestrus

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29
Q

What is the causative agent of vesicular stomatitis?

A

Rhabdovirus

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30
Q

What is the duration of a mare’s estrus?

A

6 days

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31
Q

What is the most common intranasal tumor in the dog and cat?

A

Dog: Adenocarcinoma, Cat: Lymphosarcoma

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32
Q

Drastic changes in the feed of chickens should be avoided to prevent which of the following conditions?

A

C. perfringens A and C can cause acute enterotoxemia with sudden onset explosive mortality due to necrosis of the mucosa of the small intestine

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33
Q

Which of the following is the most reliable radiographic sign that would be indicative of pleural effusion?

A

Pleural fissure lines on both lateral and ventrodorsal projections

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34
Q

Which of the following renal diseases is most common in hamsters?

A

Amyloidosis

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35
Q

Sympathetic innervation of the bladder is provided by the ________.

A

hypogastric nerve

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36
Q

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis ophthalmic lesions are caused by which virus?

A

Bovine Herpes virus 1

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37
Q

Ivermectin is ineffective against __________.

A

Trematodes

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38
Q

Closure of the eyes is mediated by cranial nerve ____ and opening the eyes is mediated by CN ____.

A

The answer is VII, III. Closure of the eyes is performed by the orbicularis oculi muscle innervated by the facial nerve. Opening of the eye is by the levator palpebrae superioris innervated by the oculomotor nerve. The trigeminal nerve supplies sensory innervation to the eye.

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39
Q

What is the most common testicular tumor in the horse?

A

Seminoma

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40
Q

What antibiotic is contraindicated for use in guinea pigs?

A

Streptomycin

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41
Q

At what period in production does displaced abomasum most commonly occur in dairy cows?

A

First four weeks postpartum

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42
Q

Persistent infection of a bovine fetus with Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD) virus is most likely to occur when the non-immune dam is viremic with a non-cytopathic biotype of BVD at what stage of gestation?

A

day 50-100

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43
Q

What is the main lesion associated with polioencephalomalacia in cattle?

A

Necrosis of cortical gray matter

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44
Q

Which of the following breeds is predisposed to acanthosis nigricans?

A

Dachshund. The primary inherited form of this condition almost exclusively occurs in Dachshunds. Other dogs may get a form of the condition secondary to other skin diseases. The condition is characterized by hyperpigmentation of the axillary and groin regions and can spread to other parts of the body. Secondary bacterial infections, yeast infections, and seborrhea commonly develop in the affected regions. The mode of inheritance has been proposed to be autosomal recessive or polygenic inheritance.

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45
Q

Which of these parameters tells you that an animal is hyperventilating?

A

PaCO2 < 30 mm Hg

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46
Q

What is the most common site of the bone for primary osteosarcoma to occur in dogs?

A

The correct answer is metaphysis. Osteosarcoma usually occurs at the metaphysis, probably because most cell division occurs there.

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47
Q

This is in contrast to metastatic bone tumors which occur in the _____________.

A

This is in contrast to metastatic bone tumors which occur in the diaphysis, likely because the blood supply comes in there.

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48
Q

what type of hernia is not from trauma?

A

Peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia

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49
Q

What is the most common cause of pyometra in dogs older than 8 years of age?

A

Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

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50
Q

Which of the following is the treatment of choice for pulmonic stenosis in the dog?

A

Balloon valvuloplasty

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51
Q

Which of the following is a cause of hypoxemia for a dog?

A

Low FIO2

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52
Q

Which of the following is true about doxycycline used in dogs?

A

It can cause esophageal stricture formation if the drug remains in the esophagus for an extended time period

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53
Q

Vincristine is associated with

A

Vincristine is associated with paralytic ileus.

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54
Q

Lomustine is associated with

A

Lomustine is associated with hepatotoxicity.

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55
Q

Doxorubicin is associated with

A

Doxorubicin is associated with cardiotoxicity

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56
Q

cyclophosphamide is associated with

A

cystitis is associated with cyclophosphamide.

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57
Q

L-asparaginase or doxorubicin is associated with….

A

Pancreatitis is associated with L-asparaginase or doxorubicin.

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58
Q

Which of these drugs is known to cause significant release of histamine?

A

Morphine

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59
Q

Adult intact male dogs (and cats) are at increased risk of

A

Adult intact male dogs (and cats) are at increased risk of perineal hernias.

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60
Q

Which of the following is the most common treatment for aortic stenosis in a dog?

A

Medical management with beta blockers

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61
Q

Administration of ____ affects ACTH stimulation results.

A

Administration of prednisone, cortisone, prednisolone, and flucortisone acetate would show false elevations in test results.

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62
Q

The best diagnostic test to differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs is which of the following?

A

The correct answer is high-dose dexamethasone suppression test. HDDST will suppress cortisol secretion in about 75% of PDH patients 3-6 hours post dexamethasone administration. C

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63
Q

Etiologic disease of salmon and the fluke

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca- etiological agent

Fluke-= Nanophyetus salmincola

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64
Q

First line for prostatitis

A

Enrofloxacin

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65
Q

What anesthetic drug lowers the seizure threshold?

A

Ketamine

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66
Q

“tombstone” appearance derm dx

A

pemphigus vulgaris.

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67
Q

Signs of ongoing or acute chorioretinitis

A

Signs of ongoing or acute chorioretinitis in dogs are poorly defined gray spots throughout the fundus, retinal separation, and retinal hemorrhage.

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68
Q

Which of the following is true about doxycycline used in dogs?

A

It can cause esophageal stricture formation if the drug remains in the esophagus for an extended time period

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69
Q

mexiletine is for…..

A

ventricular premature complexes.

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70
Q

A type I Salter-Harris

A

A type I Salter-Harris fracture is physeal only

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71
Q

Type II involves the

A

Type II involves the physis and metaphysis,

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72
Q

type III involves

A

type III involves the physis and epiphysis

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73
Q

type IV involves

A

type IV involves physis, metaphysis, and epiphysis,

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74
Q

For what type of surgery would nitrous oxide be contraindicated for use as part of an anesthetic protocol in a dog?

A

The correct answer is gastrointestinal surgery. Nitrous oxide moves into closed gas spaces such as the intestines. As such, its use is contraindicated in bowel surgeries

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75
Q

The best diagnostic test to differentiate pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism from adrenal dependent hyperadrenocorticism in dogs is which of the following?

A

High-dose dexamethasone suppression test

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76
Q

The Cushing’s reflex describes what response to increased intracranial pressure in a dog?

A

Bradycardia and hypertension

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77
Q

What is canine thrombopathia?

A

The disease is an autosomal recessive trait seen in Basset Hounds where platelets fail to aggregate and secrete their granules in response to normal stimuli. These dogs are at an increased risk for bleeding spontaneously, and an injury or surgical procedure could cause excessive hemorrhage. Platelet numbers and coagulation parameters are normal in this condition. It isn’t an issue with platelet number, but of function.

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78
Q

You are examining a dog for lameness and on radiographs; you find hypertrophic osteopathy of the metacarpal bones. What is the likely cause of this lesion?

A

Pulmonary neoplasia

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79
Q

An old budgerigar recently had a cere color change from blue to brown. What is your most likely diagnosis?

A

Sertoli cell tumor

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80
Q

How soon after administration of a dose of dexamethasone for induction of parturition in a cow do you expect parturition?

A

48 hours

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81
Q

What is hypothyroidism usually caused by?

A

It is often caused by immune mediated lymphocytic thyroiditis

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82
Q

Claviceps purpura is the causative agent for which of the following?

A

ergotism

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83
Q

A group of 3-day old piglets are huddled together in the farrowing house shivering. What disease should you suspect?

A

Escherichia coli

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84
Q

Which of the following is most likely to be the vector for Ehrlichia canis?

A

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

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85
Q

Myotonia congenita is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation with incomplete penetrance in goats. What is the abnormality caused by this mutation?

A

Skeletal muscle chloride channel

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86
Q

Which dermatophyte is most commonly associated with ringworm in the domestic pig?

A

Microsporum nanum

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87
Q

What agent causes the formation of morulae in canine monocytes?

A

Ehrlichia canis

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88
Q

What is the causative agent of laryngotracheitis in chickens?

A

Herpes

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89
Q

Approximately 80% of all equine ulcers occur on the _______ region of the stomach.

A

squamous

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90
Q

Which of the following species is not known to have a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy?

A

dogs

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91
Q

Air bronchograms on a thoracic radiograph indicate what?

A

The correct answer is uniform lung consolidation. An air bronchogram is an area of uniform lung consolidation around an air filled bronchus. This is usually referred to as an alveolar pattern. This can occur with inflammatory diseases, severe edema, lung lobe torsions, hemorrhage, or some neoplasms.

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92
Q

Which hormone is responsible for milk letdown?

A

oxytocin

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93
Q

Which of the following breeds is predisposed to familial hyperlipidemia?

A

Miniature Schnauzer

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94
Q

Which test is most accurate in diagnosing hypothyroidism in dogs?

A

Free T4

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95
Q

What is the etiologic agent of proventricular dilatation disease (PDD) in birds as seen in the postmortem photo below?

A

The etiologic agent of PDD is now known to be caused by avian bornavirus, a unique neurotropic virus capable of infecting nerve cells of the intestine.

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96
Q

What is the physiologically active form of thyroid hormone in cats?

A

T3

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97
Q

Which of the following causes myelomalacia of the lower spinal cord, resulting in pelvic limb incoordination and urine dribbling when ingested by horses?

A

sorgum

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98
Q

rabbits carry…..

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

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99
Q

Which of the following is most supportive of a diagnosis of pericardial effusion in this dog?

A

Electrical alternans and pulsus paradoxus

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100
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of fowl cholera?

A

Pasteurella multocida

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101
Q

Which of these is considered a hepatic leakage enzyme in the dog?

A

The correct answer is aspartate aminotransferase (AST). The hepatic leakage enzymes are AST and ALT, meaning that damage to hepatocytes causes leakage of these enzymes and subsequent elevations of serum levels. ALP and GGT are hepatic enzymes induced by cholestasis. Bilirubin is a breakdown product of hemoglobin and is processed by the liver. Bile acids are products of the liver but are not enzymes.

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102
Q

palpating a loaf of bread means…..

A

Cecal displacement or torsion

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103
Q

What is the permanent dental formula for a dog?

A

2(I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3)

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104
Q

When do cows reach peak lactation?

A

4-8 weeks post parturition

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105
Q

How many 3-rooted permanent maxillary teeth are in the mouth of a cat?

A

2

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106
Q

A cow with a left displaced abomasum is likely to have ______ in her urine.

A

ketones

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107
Q

ocd is…..

A

The correct answer is OCD of the shoulder is commonly bilateral. OCD of the shoulder is bilateral 60-70% of the time and is considered the most common location. The lesions usually occur in young, large breed dogs and are painful.

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108
Q

What is the most common mode of transmission for thelazia?

A

The correct answer is face flies. The adult Thelazia live in tear ducts and in the conjunctival sac. Thelazia larvae are regurgitated from the crop of the face fly while feeding on ocular secretions. The worm larvae irritate the eyes and lacrimation, photophobia, conjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, keratitis and small eyelid abscesses.

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109
Q

When reading a bacterial culture and sensitivity report, which antibiotic is used to indicate methicillin resistance?

A

Oxacillin is the preferred antimicrobial used to test for methicillin resistance. Oxacillin resistance implies resistance to all penicillins, cephalosporins, imipenem, and beta lactam/beta lactamase inhibitors and combinations such as amoxicillin/clavulanic acid. Oxacillin is used instead of methicillin because it is more stable and widely available.

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110
Q

A number of young growing pigs on a commercial hog farm are experiencing head tilt, incoordination, reduced weight gains, and weak rear limbs. Most have normal vital signs, and you suspect a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following deficiencies might cause such clinical signs?

A

Vitamin A

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111
Q

What is the most common testicular tumor in the horse?

A

Seminoma

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112
Q

Which cranial nerve is most responsible for tear production?

A

CN VII

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113
Q

Chaotic electrical activity and mechanical activity during cardiac arrest is most consistent with _______.

A

Ventricular fibrillation

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114
Q

What is the most common intranasal tumor in the dog and cat?

A

Dog: Adenocarcinoma, Cat: Lymphosarcoma

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115
Q

When placing an intraosseous catheter in a bird, which of the following bones would be the most appropriate to use?

A

ulna

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116
Q

In cats, what do the parietal cells of the stomach produce?

A

HCL

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117
Q

What are the vitamin K factors?

A

2,7,9,10 and proteins C and S

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118
Q

What are the factors in the common pathway?

A

2,5,1, 10 (trick 2x5x1=10)

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119
Q

What are the factors in the intrinsic pathway?

A

12, 11, 9, 8 ( I shop at Walmart because everythings under $12- its $11.98)

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120
Q

Where do you hear the murmur for pulmonic stenisos?

A

over the left heart base

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121
Q

Where do you hear the murmur for tricupsid dysplasia?

A

Right mid thorax

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122
Q

L-asparaginase is used to treat which of the following diseases?

A

L-asparaginase (Elspar) is an enzyme that degrades the body’s asparagine. Normal cells in the body can make their own asparagine, so they can continue to make proteins and function normally. Lymphoma cells are unable to make their own asparagine and therefore cannot make many of the proteins they normally need to function, inducing cell death.

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123
Q

What would you see on an EKG for an Addison’s pt?

A

Hypoadrenocorticism patients are typically hyperkalemic. ECG abnormalities with hyperkalemia include wide, flat, or absent P waves, widened QRS complexes, tall spiking T waves, and bradycardia.

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124
Q

What is Fluoxetine.

A

Prozac

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125
Q

What are the mammary mass stats?

A

Generally, dogs with malignant mammary tumors greater than 3 cm are thought to have a worse prognosis than those with tumors smaller than 3 cm. The tumor size cut off in cats is 2 cm; cats with mammary tumors greater than 2 cm have a poorer prognosis than those with tumors smaller than 2 cm. Mammary tumors more frequently develop in the caudal glands (4th and 5th). Like in dogs, the risk for development of mammary tumors in cats is greatly reduced if they are spayed early in life; there is a strong hormonal influence associated with development of mammary tumors later in life.

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126
Q

A 6-year old Boxer dog presents to your clinic with the complaint of blepharospasm of 2 weeks duration. A Schirmer tear test and tonometry of the affected eye are normal, but on fluorescein dye stain, you see an intensely staining area surrounded by a “halo” of lighter stain. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Indolent corneal ulcer

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127
Q

What is a Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction? What is it mediated by? Examples

A

IgE on mast cells; reaction noted within 15-30 minutes; Examples- atopy, flea allergy dermatitis, anaphylaxis

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128
Q

What is a Type 2 hypersensitivity reaction? What is it mediated by? Examples

A

IgM and IgG; IMHA, transfusion reactions

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129
Q

What is a Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction? What is it mediated by? Examples

A

Mediated IgG; glomerulonephritis, systemic lupus erthematosis

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130
Q

What is a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction? What is it mediated by? Examples

A

t-cell, 48-72 hours before reaction occurs; allergic contact dermatitis,

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131
Q

What is Hypertrophic osteopathy?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy is a diffuse periosteal proliferative condition of long bones in dogs secondary to neoplastic or infectious masses in the thoracic or abdominal cavity. The exact pathogenic mechanism is unknown, but periosteal vascularity is reduced.

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132
Q

What is Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy?

A

Hypertrophic Osteodystrophy (HOD) is a bone disease that occurs in fast-growing large and giant breed dogs. The disorder is sometimes referred to as metaphyseal osteopathy, and typically first presents between the ages of 2 and 7 months.[1] HOD is characterized by decreased blood flow to the metaphysis

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133
Q

What are the major CS of rabies?

A

Behavior change and vocalization are the two major clinical signs;

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134
Q

How do you manage an unvaccinated pet exposed to rabies?

A

euthanasia/testing; or quarantine for 6 months and vaccinate 1 month prior to release

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135
Q

How do you manage a vaccinated pet exposed to rabies?

A

45 day observation and revaccination

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136
Q

How do you manage an unvaccinated human exposed to rabies?

A

post exposure prophylaxis with rabies immunoglobulin AND vaccinate 4-5 times over the course of two weeks

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137
Q

How do you manage a vaccinated human exposed to rabies?

A

vaccinate at 0 and 3 days. If it was a pet, it must be quarantined for 10 days or euthanized for rabies testing.

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138
Q

What is the formula to increase PCV by 1%?

A

2ml/kg of fresh whole blood to raise PCV by 1 %

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139
Q

Which of the following is the most important maintenance host of L. interrogans serovar Pomona?

A

Swine

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140
Q

host of Canicola

A

Canicola- dogs

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141
Q

hosts of Icterohemorrhagiae

A

Icterohemorrhagiae- rats

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142
Q

host of Hardjo

A

Hardjo- cattle

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143
Q

host of Grippotyphosa

A

Grippotyphosa-mice, muskrats and squirrels

144
Q

What is the potential udder fate of goats infected with caprine arthritis encephalomyelitis virus?

A

hardbag; CAEV is a retrovirus and when it affects the udder it will cause fibrosis and result in a firm udder with agalactia. Treatment is ineffective and the goat should be culled. The disease is usually subclinical but can cause arthritis in adults and encephalitis in kids.

145
Q

What is associated with central vestibular disease

A

Positional and vertical nystagmus only occur with central vestibular disease.

146
Q

Calcium homeostasis is extremely important in lactating animals and is controlled by two hormones,

A

Calcitonin is produced by the C cells of the thyroid gland in response to high calcium levels in blood. Calcitonin increases renal calcium excretion and decreases osteoclastic activity (bone resorption). PTH does the opposite and also stimulates renal production of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. This form of vitamin D stimulates intestinal cells to increase Ca absorption.

147
Q

What is the most common bacterial cause of infectious pneumonia in sheep and goats?

A

The correct answer is Mannheimia hemolytica, formerly called Pasteurella hemolytica. Mannheimia pneumonia is the most common infectious bacterial disease of sheep and goats. Most cases are caused by M. hemolytica type A. A variety of predisposing factors are suspected. Clinical signs include fever, depression, mucopurulent nasal discharge, coughing, pulmonary crackles and wheezes, and tachypnea. Necropsy lesions are fibrinopurulent pleuropneumonia.
Pasteurella multocida is also a cause of pneumonia in sheep and goats. P pneumoniae is a made up name.

148
Q

What is the most common cause of stillbirths in pigs?

A

Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome

149
Q

You have tentatively diagnosed Glasser`s Disease caused by Haemophilus parasuis. Which of the following treatments should you use?

A

Ceftiofur

150
Q

After a TPLO you will always have….

A

Cranial drawer

151
Q

What are the signs of distemper in ferrets?

A

papular chin dermatitis

152
Q

What is the test of choice for canine distemper

A

fluorescent antibody from conjuctival swabs

153
Q

How are the seizures of canine distemper described?

A

“chewing gum”

154
Q

What are the components of canine elbow dysplasia?

A

ununited anconeal process, osteochondrosis dissecans of the humeral condyle, fragmentation of the medial coronoid process and elbow incongruity

155
Q

Which breed is ununited anconeal process?

A

German shepherds, bassett hound, bloodhound, labs

156
Q

Which flea preventative can you use in ferrets?

A

Imidocloprid moxidectin( Advantage Multi)

157
Q

Which flea preventative can you use in rabbits?

A

Moxidectin (Advantage) or revolution (selamectin)

158
Q

What is the rotation of the stomach during a GDV?

A

counter-clockwise when viewing from cranial to caudal in dorsal recumbency

159
Q

What are the components of Horner’s syndrome?

A

Miosis, prolapse of 3rd eyelid, enophthalmos (sunken eye), ptosis

160
Q

Is pituitary dependent or adrenal dependent Cushings more common?

A

Pituitary dependent

161
Q

Labwork findings for cushings disease

A

stress leukogram(neutrophilia and lymphopenia), elevated ALP, and hyposthenuria

162
Q

What is the main diagnostic test for Cushing’s disease

A

Low-dose dexamethasone supression test is a screening test - may not tell difference between AT VS PT- so high dose may be needed

163
Q

what do you treat Cushing’s disease with?

A

Mitotane or Trilostane

164
Q

Addison’s disease is an inadequate production of what?

A

glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids

165
Q

What are the labwork findings consisitent with Addison’s disease

A

hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, pre-renal azotemia, no stress leukogram

166
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for Addison’s disease?

A

ACTH stimulation test

167
Q

What is the treatment for Addison’s disease?

A

Glucocorticoid- Pred; Mineralcorticoid- fludrocortisone or injected DOCP

168
Q

What are the CS for hypothyroidism?

A

Weight gain, obesity, lethargy, alopecia

169
Q

What is the preferred screening test for hypothyroidism?

A

Serum Total T4

170
Q

What is the treatment for hypothyrodism?

A

levothyroxine

171
Q

In health, lactate is primarily metabolized by what organ and should measure less than what value (mmol/L)?

A

Lactate is primarily metabolized by the liver and, in health, it should be low (< 2.5 mmol/L). The kidneys and skeletal muscle also metabolize lactate to a lesser extent. Lactate is typically associated with anaerobic metabolism and has been used to predict survival in gastric dilatation volvulus in dogs and colic and sepsis in horses.

172
Q

What is grass tetany?

A

Also known as grass tetany and lactation tetany, hypomagnesemia occurs most commonly in lactating ewes, cows, and goats that are lactating heavily and taking in an insufficient daily intake of magnesium. Cool weather also seems to play a role by reducing plant Mg uptake. Ewes are often also hypocalcemic.

173
Q

What is the most common source of Campylobacter infection in humans?

A

undercooked chicken

174
Q

Vitamin E deficiency in chicks results in which problem?

A

Chicks 15 to 30 days old on a Vitamin E deficient diet show ataxia or paresis, prostration and death. There is ischemic necrosis, demyelinization, and neuronal degeneration of many parts of the brain. Vitamin E deficiency can also cause exudative diathesis and nutritional myopathy in chicks.

175
Q

The largest U.S. broiler hatcheries now apply Marek’s disease vaccine by what method?

A

The Marek’s disease vaccine is recommended for in ovo vaccination of 18- to 19-day-old healthy embryonated chicken eggs. The vaccine may also be used for subcutaneous vaccination of healthy one-day-old chickens, but in large-volume chicken hatcheries, the in ovo method is used.

176
Q

Swine dysentery is caused by which of the following?

A

The correct answer is Brachyspira hyodysenteriae (formerly known as Serpulina hyodysenteriae). Swine dysentery causes mucohemorrhagic diarrhea. Fibrinonecrotic typhlitis and colitis occur, but the small intestine is unaffected. Those affected include 3 week olds to adults that were previously unexposed. Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies. Trichuris suis is a whip worm. Corona virus causes porcine epidemic diarrhea and transmissible gastroenteritis.

177
Q

Which of the following causes reproductive failure in pigs by an ascending infection of the reproductive tract?

A

The correct answer is E. coli. Other infectious agents that ascend the reproductive tract causing a metritis and reproductive failure in pigs include Streptococci, Staphylococci, Actinomyces spp., Pseudomonas spp., etc. The other answer choices listed cause reproductive failure via systemic infections. Other systemic agents causing reproductive failure include PRRS, pseudorabies, brucellosis, etc.

178
Q

What is spider lamb syndrome?

A

Spider lamb syndrome is a bone growth disorder of Suffolk and Hampshire breeds of sheep caused by an autosomal recessive mode of inheritance. A genetic test has been available since the year 2000.

179
Q

What is the causative agent of turkey coryza?

A

Bordetella avium

180
Q

Which of the following E. coli is associated with edema disease in swine?

A

F18

181
Q

What are the CS of laryngeal paralysis?

A

voice change, inspiratory stridor

182
Q

What is the most common cause of laryngeal paralysis?

A

idiopathic

183
Q

What is the most common treatment for larygneal paraylysis?

A

cricoarytenoid lateralization aka laryngeal tie-back

184
Q

What can you administer to help visualize arytenoid function?

A

doxapram

185
Q

What is the difference between Hansen Type I and II?

A

Type 1- extruded nucleus puplosis into spinal canal; Type 2- protruded annulus

186
Q

What is the primary vector for lyme disease?

A

Ixodes scapularis or pacificus

187
Q

What are the two main locations for OCD?

A

caudal humeral head and medial humeral condyle

188
Q

What is the difference between osteochondrosis and osteochrondritis dissecans (OCD)?

A

Osteochondrosis- disturbed endochondral ossification from excessive Ca, P, or vitamin D. OCD is inflammation of subchrondral bone and formation of cartilage flaps

189
Q

What chemistry finding is associated with a worse outcome of osteosarcoma?

A

ALP

190
Q

The major of shunts are…..

A

single, congential, and extrahepatic

191
Q

What is the treatment for a PSS?

A

metronidazole/neomycine(decrease urease-producing bacteria), lactulose, and low-protein diet

192
Q

What are the surgical treatments for PSS?

A

ameroid constrictor, cellophane band, partial or complete ligation

193
Q

What are the phases for ethyelene glycol toxicity?

A
  1. Neurologic phase- ataxia, Ca oxalate crystalluria; 2. cardiovascular phase; 3. Renal failure, elevated osmolar gap
194
Q

What is the treatment for etylene glycol toxcity?

A

Fomepizole (4-methylprazole)- most effective 8 hours after ingestion; also ethanol at 20%

195
Q

What is the recommedation for calcium oxalate uroliths?

A

alkalinzing diet

196
Q

FeLV ELISA tests for ______. Is it affected by maternal antibodies?

A

ANTIGEN; not affected by maternal antibodies

197
Q

If a healthy cat tests positive for FeLV what should you do?

A

If a healthy cat tests positive, you should retest in 1-3 months because 98% of cats infected with FELV will have a transitient, self limiting disease and then become antigen negative.

198
Q

FIV tests are both ______ When should you test for this?

A

both are antibody based. This can be effected by maternal antibodies so we should test after 6 months.

199
Q

What is diagnostic for FIP?

A

Non-septic , high protein, dark yellow, sticky/viscous,

200
Q

What is characterisitc lesion for dry form of FIP?

A

perivascular pyogranulomatous inflammation

201
Q

What is the 1,2,3 rule for feline injection site sarcoma?

A

-continues to grow 1 month post-vaccine, 2- larger than cm; still present after 3 months.

202
Q

What is triaditis?

A

pancreatitis, inflammatory bowel disease, and cholangitis; this is common in feline pancreatitis

203
Q

Treatment for hyperkalemia?

A

IV calcium gluconate(will not actually lower the K though); IV dextrose and insulin

204
Q

Treatment for hypocalcemia

A

calcium gluconate

205
Q

Core Vaccines for Cats

A

Panleukopenia, feline herpes virus-1(feline viral rhinotracheitis), and feline caliciviurs- Vaccine at 6 weeks and then every 3-4 weeks for 3 rounds; rabies give at 12 weeks and then 1 year later

206
Q

Does the FeLV vaccine cause a positive FeLV test?

A

NO!

207
Q

Does the FIV vaccine cause a positive FIV test?

A

YES!

208
Q

What is the most common viral cause of abortion in the horse?

A

Equine herpesvirus 1- vaccinations at 5, 7, and 9 months of gestation

209
Q

What is the most common cause of abortion in the horse?

A

twins

210
Q

What is the bacteria in placentitis in horses?

A

E. coli, Streptocoocal

211
Q

An aborted fetus with EHV-1 will have what lesions?

A
  1. small necrotic foci on the liver, necrotizing bronchiolitits and intranuclear inclusion bodies on histological examination
212
Q

Describe a horse with cervical vertebral malformatino

A

young horsse (<5 years) with symmetrical ataxia usually worse in the hindlimbs. Treatment=vertebral stabilization

213
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for Equine Infectious Anemia?

A

Coggins or ELISA

214
Q

How is equine infectious anemia spread?

A

biting insects- horseflies/deerflies

215
Q

What is the value to be over for passive transfer in horses?

A

> 800; <400=failure of passive transfer

216
Q

What is the treatment for FPT at <12 hours; what about 18-24 hours?

A

<12 hours- colostrum or plasma IV in really sick foals; 18-24 hours= plasma transfusion IV

217
Q

What is the DH and causal agent for EPM?

A

host- opossum; Agent= sarcocystis neurona; HORSE is an aberrant/dead end host

218
Q

What are the clinical signs of EPM?

A

asymmetrical, atrophy, ataxia

219
Q

What is the treatment for EPM?

A

Ponazuril(Marquis), Nitazonximade (Navigator), TMS

220
Q

Which of the following is performed as part of the repair of medial patellar luxation in a dog?

A

The correct answer is transposition of the tibial tuberosity. A wedge resection, which involves making a deeper trochlear groove for the patella to slide in, is another component. Lateral imbrication and transposition of the tibial tuberosity are also performed, which will help pull the patella a little more laterally, as they are usually predisposed to luxating medially.

There is no reason to remove the menisci, as these are not involved with patellar luxation. Leveling of the tibial plateau is performed in a cranial cruciate rupture surgery.

221
Q

What is the most common postpartum pathogen leading to endometritis in cattle?

A

The correct answer is Arcanobacterium pyogenes. The other choices are also causes of endometritis but are usually not a problem as compared to A. pyogenes.

222
Q

What are the temperature, pulse, and respiration of a cow with a left displaced abomasum most likely to be, assuming the cow has no other concurrent disease?

A

Can be normal to decreased

223
Q

Which infectious agent causes the clinical presentation of pigs most similar to Haemophilus parasuis (Glasser’s disease)?

A

The correct answer is Streptococcus suis. Streptococcus suis and H. parasuis both cause polyarthritis, polyserositis, fever, and pneumonia in young piglets up to several weeks of age. Both can cause fibrinopurulent inflammation as well as meningitis and convulsions.

224
Q

What characteristic of influenza viruses make them a concern in regard to antigenic shift?

A

They have a segmented genome

225
Q

Frontline is registered by which US governmental agency?

A

The correct answer is the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). This might not seem important, but insecticides that work topically are registered by the EPA and not the FDA, which means that off-label use is illegal and a violation of federal law. Off-label use would include using a different dose or frequency than the label recommendation.

226
Q

Which US governmental agency regulates ivermectin?

A

Products that are administered orally (milbemycin, Ivermectin) or applied topically with transdermal absorption (selemectin) are regulated by the FDA.

227
Q

Reticuloendotheliosis in chickens and turkeys cause which of the following?

A

Explanation
The correct answer is lymphoma. This virus affects turkeys, chickens, ducks, geese, and quail. The virus is a retrovirus that can cause runting of the birds, acute neoplasias, as well as chronic B and T cell lymphomas. The disease is often difficult to differentiate from Marek’s disease and lymphoid leukosis. The runting syndrome causes weight loss, paleness, abnormal feathering, and occasional paralysis. Clinical findings may also include thymic and bursal atrophy, enlarged nerves, and anemia. The neoplasias usually involve the liver, spleen, intestine, and heart. Definitive diagnosis is based on virus isolation or antibody detection. This disease is not a major economic concern at this time, so there are no control measures for the disease.

228
Q

What is the average lifespan of a rat?

A

The correct answer is 2.5 years. The 50% survival time of rats is 30 months.

229
Q

Respiratory signs may be associated with infection of this parasite in horses.

A

The correct answer is Parascaris equorum. This occurs because this parasite’s life cycle involves migration through the lungs. Other clinical signs include weight loss, diarrhea, and colic. Treatment involves a proper anthelmintic program. It is not desirable to kill all the worms at once if there is a massive infestation as this may cause an impaction.

230
Q

Which of these conditions is associated with excess dietary calcium and vitamin D in young horses?

A

The correct answer is osteochondrosis. Rickets and nutritional secondary hyperparathyroidism are caused by calcium deficiency or excess phosphorus. Goiter is caused by insufficient or excess iodine.

231
Q

What is the helminth parasite that carries Histomonas meleagridis, the protozoan that causes blackhead in turkeys?

A

Heterakis gallinarum.

232
Q

Which breeds are predisposed to aortic stenosis?

A

Golden retrievers, Newfoundlands, boxers, German shepherd dogs, English bulldogs, shar-peis, and bull terriers are all predisposed breeds. Clinical signs include exercise intolerance, syncope, and sudden death. There is no cure for the disease and dogs diagnosed with this disease should not be bred

233
Q

What causes greasy pig disease?

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

234
Q

What is the duration of estrus in a goat?

A

18 to 48 hours

235
Q

What are traits of a premature foal?

A

A premature foal is typically defined as a foal born before 320 days of gestation and demonstrating physical characteristics such as a short silky hair coat, soft pliant ears, laxity of the flexor tendons, a soft muzzle, and incomplete ossification of the carpal and tarsal bones. The hippomane is not part of the fetal anatomy but is the collection of cellular material and secretions found within the allantoic fluid.

236
Q

Which of the following Salmonella would you be concern of?

A

The correct answer is Salmonella Typhimurium. It is important to know serotypes as actual speciation of Salmonella usually requires submission to the national veterinary laboratory and takes several weeks to complete. Knowing serotypes allows you to start considering the possible significance of the isolate. The serotypes for the other Salmonella are as follows: Dublin and Enteritidis (D), Choleraesuis (C1), and Newport (C2). Salmonella Enteritidis is specific to poultry.

237
Q

What is the oldest tooth in the horse?

A

premolar 1

238
Q

You are visiting Egypt with a friend and go to a horse farm where you see several horses with swelling in the indentation above the eyes. You recall from your classes in veterinary school that swelling of the supraorbital fossa is a characteristic sign of which of the following exotic diseases?

A

african horse sickness

239
Q

What is the etiological agent of glanders and what CS does it cause.

A

Glanders is a bacterial disease caused by Burkholderia mallei (previously known as Pseudomonas mallei). Burkholderia mallei causes 3 different forms of disease; nasal glanders, pulmonary glanders, and cutaneous glanders. The nasal form presents with high fever, loss of appetite and labored breathing with cough. The pulmonary form often develops over several months, beginning as a fever with dyspnea and cough. The cutaneous form develops over several months as nodules develop in subcutaneous tissue along the course of the lymphatics of the legs, costal areas, and ventrum.

240
Q

Which value is usually increased in canine hyperadrenocorticism?

A

Cholesterol and ALT
The correct answer is serum cholesterol. Cholesterol is elevated in up to 90% of hyperadrenocorticism cases.

BUN is usually low in patients with hyperadrenocorticism secondary to the increased diuresis that occurs with elevated cortisol levels. ALT increases due to swelling and death of some hepatocytes. SAP increases due to a steroid-induced isoenzyme of SAP from the liver. Mild cholestasis due to swelling of hepatocytes also contributes to a minor part of the increase in SAP. T4 is often low in patients with Cushing’s because they are euthyroid sick. Potassium is usually elevated with hypoadrenocorticism (not hyperadrenocorticism).

241
Q

What is the mode of transmission of hyperkalemic periodic paralysis (HYPP) in Quarter Horses?

A

autosomonal dominant

242
Q

A guinea pig presents to your emergency clinic for oral petechia and loose teeth. You also note a rough hair coat on physical exam. What nutritional disorder is common in guinea pigs and can lead to the signs described?

A

The correct answer is hypovitaminosis C. Guinea pigs are frequently deficient in vitamin C and can develop scurvy. Vitamin C is necessary for collagen synthesis, and deficiency leads to a rough hair coat, loose teeth, petechia, and lameness. It is treated with vitamin C injections, as multivitamins can lead to vitamin A and D toxicosis. Leafy green vegetables are good dietary sources of vitamin C.

243
Q

Marek’s disease is caused by what type of agent?

A

The correct answer is herpesvirus. Marek’s disease is one of the most ubiquitous avian infections. It is highly contagious and can survive for months in the environment.

244
Q

You are called to examine a small hobby flock of sheep because several have red eyes (hyperemia) and tearing (epiphora), as seen in the image. One sheep also has corneal neovascularization. Two lambs are lame in multiple limbs and the owner has not previously noticed that fact. What is the major differential diagnosis?

A

C. pecorum can cause polyarthritis in lambs, abortions, and keratoconjunctivitis in any age sheep. It is usually self limiting, but when lambs have polyarthritis, all affected animals can be treated with systemic tetracycline. Those with conjunctivitis can also be treated with topical ophthalmic tetracycline.
Differentials for conjunctivitis alone also include several species of Mycoplasma, Branhamella (Neiserria), and several other infectious agents. Moraxella bovis infects cattle.

245
Q

Which of the following infections in a dog carries the GREATEST zoonotic risk?

A

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus

246
Q

What is the average life span of mice?

A

1.5 years

247
Q

How many pairs of ribs does the normal horse have?

A

18

248
Q

Which of the following is the most common mode of transmission for Strongyloides ransomi in pigs?

A

The correct answer is transcolostrally. Strongyloides ransomi are threadworms of pigs. They reside in the small intestine of suckling piglets. Pigs may not show any clinical signs with only light infections. Heavy infections can cause diarrhea, anemia, emaciation, and death. Diagnosis can be made by fecal flotation, by an intestinal mucosal scraping, or on necropsy. Benzimidazoles and ivermectin are effective in treating these worms. (Earthworms are the intermediate hosts of the kidney worm of pigs, Stephanurus dentatus, and the lungworm of pigs, Metastrongylus spp.)

249
Q

Acute serum hepatitis in horses, also known as Theiler’s Disease, results in acute clinical signs of lethargy, anorexia, icterus, and hepatoencephalopathy. The diagnosis can be established upon examination of a liver biopsy that would reveal which histopathologic finding(s)?

A

Severe widespread hepatic necrosis

250
Q

What are the pathologic hallmarks of pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity?

A

The other answer choices (peri-portal fibrosis, megalocytosis, and biliary hyperplasia) are pathologic hallmarks of pyrrolizidine alkaloid toxicity.

251
Q

Which of the following abnormal gaits would you expect to see with bone spavin?

A

Bone spavin is osteoarthritis of the distal intertarsal joint and/or the tarsometatarsal joint. Horses with bone spavin tend to have a shortened forward flight of the hoof with decreased hock action and they tend to drag the toe.

252
Q

You are suspicious of Porcine circovirus associated disease (PCVAD). What sample do you need to submit to a laboratory to confirm your diagnosis?

A

Lymphoid tissue for histology

253
Q

What is the correct post-exposure prophylaxis protocol after being exposed to rabies for a vaccinated human?

A

The correct answer is two injections of an approved rabies vaccine. If you are not vaccinated, then you will need an injection of human rabies immune globulin immediately after exposure followed by 4-5 injections of an approved rabies vaccine IM over the course of 2-4 weeks. PEP is not required for accidental injection of animal rabies vaccine into a human.

254
Q

Approximately, how long does pregnancy last in the dog (starting from the day of ovulation)?

A

63 days

255
Q

A 23 year old horse is most likely to have what type of valvular regurgitation?

A

The correct answer is aortic regurgitation. Degeneration of the aortic valve is the most common reason for aortic regurgitation and is present in a lot of older horses as an incidental finding. On auscultation you will hear a holodiastolic murmur with a point of maximum intensity over the aortic valve are

256
Q

A 5-year old horse presents to for a gait abnormality. You observe the horse walking and note that when the horse lifts the left hindlimb, it draws the foot up sharply until it touches its abdomen and then strikes it violently toward the ground. What condition should you suspect?

A

Stringhalt is a myoclonic disease affecting one or both pelvic limbs. It causes spasmodic hyperflexion of the leg. The etiology is unknown but sweet pea poisoning is thought to be associated with the condition. Diagnosis is based on clinical signs, but electromyography can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves tenectomy of the lateral digital extensor tendon; however, not all cases respond to the treatment.

257
Q

What is Sweeny?

A

Sweeney is supraspinatous contracture.

258
Q

Are horses lame with bog spavin?

A

Bog spavin, also known as tarsal hydrarthrosis, is often due to poor conformation and can result in increased synovial fluid formation. Both hindlimbs are usually affected. The horse is usually not lame from this condition. Distension may spontaneously appear and disappear in young horses.

259
Q

A dwarf rabbit presents for a right sided head tilt and history of circling to the right. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

A

The correct answer is Encephalitozoon cuniculi. There is a high prevalence of E. cuniculi although it only infrequently causes disease. Head tilt and torticollis are the common clinical signs. Treponema cuniculi is the causative agent for rabbit syphilis. Bordetella bronchiseptica is part of the normal flora of the rabbit respiratory tract and does not generally cause clinical signs. Myxomavirus can be a common cause of pneumonia.

260
Q

Which antibiotic must you not give reptiles in the caudal half of the body?

A

Gentamicin

261
Q

What disease often occurs secondary to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency in dogs?

A

Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

262
Q

Which of the following is true about hernias in swine?

A

The correct answer is inguinal hernias in pigs is heritable. Both inguinal and umbilical hernias occur commonly in pigs. Inguinal hernias occur more commonly in males than females, particularly after castration. They can be unilateral or bilateral and occur more commonly on the left side. Umbilical hernias occur in both sexes but are slightly more common in females.

263
Q

If you lyse a mature corpus luteum, when would you expect to see estrus in a cow?

A

3 days

264
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum commonly contributes to which of the following diseases in young pigs?

A

Necrotic rhinisits

265
Q

Which type of urolith (shown in the image below) occurs most commonly in sheep grazing lush clover pastures?

A

The clover or alfalfa pasture contains high levels of calcium and often high levels of oxalates. In the gut, oxalate avidly binds calcium and makes it unavailable for absorption. With gradual introduction of oxalate-rich diets, ruminal bacteria efficiently metabolize oxalate to bicarbonate. Thus, microbial metabolism of oxalate in the rumen may increase the availability of dietary calcium. These factors may combine to increase urinary calcium excretion and alkalinize the urine, thereby promoting calcium carbonate calculogenesis.

266
Q

Which immunoglobulin predominates in bovine colostrum?

A

IgG

267
Q

What enzyme do you test for to diagnose selenium deficiency?

A

Glutathione peroxidase

268
Q

What is the most common direction of a coxofemoral luxation in cattle?

A

Cranial and dorsal displacement

269
Q

A 3-year old Thoroughbred race horse presents for lameness evaluation. The trainer reports that the lameness has been slowly progressive over the past 6 weeks. You observe the horse walk and see a short, choppy gait in the front legs. There is swelling over the front of both fetlock joints and palpation and flexion of the fetlocks elicits pain. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Osselets are inflammation of the periosteum on the dorsal distal epiphyseal surface of the third metacarpal bone and fetlock joint. As in this case, they are often (but not always) bilateral. Osselets typically begin from chronic stress injury to the front fetlock(s) from repeated concussive forces during racing and hard training. Horses with long or upright pasterns may be predisposed. The major clinical signs are increasing lameness and a short choppy gait. Thickening and soreness of the fetlock are also frequently seen. Early diagnosis and intervention is important because once the condition progresses to osteoarthritis, the prognosis is much worse. If recognized early and treated with rest, anti-inflammatory medications, and intra-articular sodium hyaluronate injections, many horses can recover completely.

270
Q

A farm is having clinical disease due to coccidiosis in 3 month-old pen-raised calves when they are moved to group pens. You recommend as a preventive measure thorough cleaning and drying of all pens, decreased housing density, elevated feed bunks, and daily cleaning of water troughs. Which of the following should you also recommend?

A

Lasolocid, as well as monensin, amprolium, decoquinate, diclazuril and toltrazuril can be used daily to prevent coccidiosis in young ruminants; there is no vaccine.

271
Q

The drug of choice to treat babesiosis in the horse is _____________.

A

The correct answer is imidocarb.

272
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of fowl cholera?

A

The correct answer is Pasteurella multocida. The bacterium is a gram negative rod. It causes fever, mucoid discharge from the mouth, diarrhea, petechia, ecchymoses, increased pericardial and peritoneal fluid, and death. The chronic form of the disease usually causes localized disease. Diagnosis is based on identifying the organism from samples in conjunction with clinical signs. Vaccines are available for prevention of the disease. Sulfa antibiotics are used for treatment.

273
Q

What valve is most commonly affected with endocarditis in cattle?

A

The vast majority of endocarditis cases in cattle involve the tricuspid valve. This is in contrast to small animals and horses where the aortic valve is most commonly affected. Remember, with endocarditis, the animal may be septic as well and have swollen joints. Common causes of endocarditis in cattle are foot abscesses and other sites where pus and blood mix.

274
Q

Ionophore toxicity- MOA, CS and treatment for horses

A

used as growth promotors in cattle
MOA- disruption of mitochondria
CS-ataxia, tremors, long-term cardiac effects
Treatment- supportive care

275
Q

Organophosphate toxicity- MOA, CS, and treatment

A

MOA-inhibit acetylcholineterase
CS-SLUD(salivation,lacrimiation, urination, defecation)
Tx- atropine or pralidoxime choloride(antidote)

276
Q

Fescue toxicity- MOA, CS, and treatment-

A

MOA- fungus (neotyphodium coenophialum) produces toxins which are dopamine agonist
CS- prolonged gestation,placental thickening, agalactia
TX- domperidone

277
Q

Red Maple Leaf toxicity; MOA, CS, and treatment

A

MOA- unknown
CS- hemolytic anemia, dark colored urine, icterus
Tx-supportive

278
Q

Black Walnut Toxicity- MOA, CS, and treatment

A

MOA- unknown

CS- laminitis

279
Q

Blister Beetle Toxicity- MOA, CS, and treatment

A

MOA- canthearidin

CS- lethargy, anorexia, PU, colic, tachycardia, sweating

280
Q

Moldy corn toxicity- MOA, CS, and treatment

A

MOA- mycotoxin causes leukoencephalomalcia
CS- ataxia, anorexia, delirium
Treatment- supportive

281
Q

What lung fields are most commonly involved in EIPH?

A

caudodorsal

282
Q

What are the neural and vascular structures associated with the guttural pouch?

A

CN- 9,10,11,12

Vascular structures- internal and external carotid and maxillary arteries

283
Q

What is the dx of a foal with a soft, non-painful swelling in the throat latch area?

A

congenital guttural pouch tympan

284
Q

What is the most common cause of acute hepatitis/failure in the horse? CS?

A

Acute serum hepatitis aka theiler’s disease

CS-icterus, photosenitization

285
Q

What is the histological lesion of theiler’s disease?

A

widespread hepatic necrosis

286
Q

Varus is…

A

varus is deviation toward medial plane

287
Q

Valgus is…

A

valgus is deviation away from medial plane

288
Q

Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopathy is thought to be due to ________

A

Viatmine E/ Selium def.

289
Q

What is the most common bacterial isolate associated with equine sepsis?

A

E.coli

290
Q

What is the order of the equine nerve blocks from distal to proximal?

A

palmar, abaxial sesmoid, Low-four point, high-four point

291
Q

What is the common clinical presentation of a horse with RAO?

A

stalled in a barn during winter months with exaggerated end-expiratory effort

292
Q

What is a diagnostic finding in a BAL for RAO?

A

Curshamann’s spirals( inspissated mucus plugs

293
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Rhodococcus equi?

A

macrolide antibiotics (erthromycin, etc) combined with rifampin

294
Q

Complications of Rhodococcus equi infection are?

A

internal abscessation, septic arthritis,osteomyelitis, and joint effusion

295
Q

What is the gold standard test for West Nile Virus?

A

RT-PCR on CNS tissue

296
Q

Who is naturally infected with WNV?

A

chickens are infected naturally but do not show cs; used as sentinels for disease

297
Q

What is the cause of shaker foal syndrome?

A

Clostridium botulinum

298
Q

What is chronic wasting disease?

A

transmissible spongiform encephalopahty caused by a prion and seen in white-tailed deer, mule deer, elk; it is not destroyed by cooking

299
Q

What are the clinical signs of foot and mouth disease?

A

high fever, drooling, lameness that spreads quickly, vesicles, eroisons on mouth, teats, and coronary band

300
Q

What are the clinical signs of parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

cs- ataxic llamas, sheep, goats, and horses

301
Q

What is the issue with the treatment of parelaphostrongylus tenuis?

A

antihelminitic resistance has complicated treatment

302
Q

What cranial nerve can be affected with Listeria?

A

trigeminal nerve

303
Q

What is the typical cytology for Listeria?

A

mononuclear pleocytosis

304
Q

What is the treatment for listeria?

A

penicillin, sulfonamides, tetracyclines; fluid therapy and dietary maintenance

305
Q

What is pizzle rot CSand what is the etiological agent?

A

Corynebaceterium renale; ulcerative posthitis; prepuital swelling and ulceration

306
Q

What factors contribute to ulcerative posthitis? Treatment

A

high-protein diet, ulcerations present and excess hair; penicillin breed once ulcers have cleared

307
Q

What are the contributing factors to urethral obstruction in small ruminants?

A

diets high in grain, phosphorus, and magnesium and low in roughage

308
Q

Who is affected by vesicular stomatitis?

A

cattle, horses, swine, camelid

309
Q

What is white muscle disease?

A

White Muscle disease is a myodegenerative disease associated with Vitamin E and or selenium deficiency

310
Q

What muscles are affected by white muscle disease? Who is WMD more common in?

A

Cardiac and/or skeletal muscle; white muscle disease is more common in young, growing animals.

311
Q

What enzyme is selenium the co-factor for?

A

gluthathione peroxidase

312
Q

What are the clin path findings in an animal with WMD? What else?

A

Increased AST and CK, hyperkalemia, hyponatremia and hypochloremia; can also be myoglobinuria

313
Q

What are the gross and histological findings of WMD?

A

limbs, diaphragm, heart, and tongue may appear gray to white

314
Q

What is the classic presentation of abomasal displacement?

A

Dairy cow in early lactation who is off feed with a decreased milk supply, ADR

315
Q

Where do you hear the ping for a left vs right sided abomasal displacement?

A

L-sided- 9-13 ribs more caudal than RDA

R-sided- 10-13 ribs; RTA is palpable on rectal

316
Q

What is found on Clin path for abomasal displacement?

A

decreased K, Cl and Ca; Metabolic alkalosis; paradoxic aciduria

317
Q

How do you treat LDA vs RDA?

A

LDA- If you only roll the cow, reoccurence is common; abomasalpexy; L flank or R paramedian abomasopexy or laproscopy
RDA- ROLLING IS CONTRAINDICATED! Right flank ometopexy or R paramedian abomasopexy in cows unable to stand

318
Q

How do you treat a abomasal volvulus?

A

Untwist, then pexy- or decompress, untwist, and pexy

319
Q

What is the most important thing to consider with displaced abomasum?

A

correct metabolic alkalosis

320
Q

What type of virus is BVD?

A

Pestivirius in the family Flaviviridae

321
Q

What is the approximate gestation length of pigs?

A

115 days

322
Q

Which anatomic site of the chicken digestive tract has the lowest pH?

A

Proventriculus

323
Q

Name 3 inverting patterns.

A

Cushing pattern
Connell pattern
Lembert pattern

324
Q

Most bladder stones in rabbits are primarily composed of _________?

A

The correct answer is calcium carbonate, although there seem to be multiple causes of formation of cystic calculi. One major component is that rabbits will absorb calcium through their GI tract at a rate directly proportional to the amount of calcium in their diet regardless if they need it or not. Excess calcium is then excreted through the kidneys.

325
Q

The relationship among incidence (I), prevalence (P), and duration (D) of disease is best expressed as:

A

P=ID

326
Q

You arrive at a farm where the farmer has lost 2 pigs in the past 2 days. He has 450 pigs which are currently weighing 200 lbs. The pigs seemed to be doing quite well and all appear to be eating. They all look healthy (no respiratory or enteric signs noted) and there has not been a diet change for at least 2 weeks. On arrival to the farm you find the latest mortality. The pig just died over night and is in excellent body condition. It seems to be one of the biggest pigs from the group. The abdomen is quite distended. As you perform the necropsy you find the following gross lesions (photo). No intestinal torsion/volvulus is noted. What should you do next?

A

Your next step should be to check intestinal content for clotted blood. Your top two differentials at this time are acute ileitis or hemorrhagic bowel syndrome. Both present as sudden death and on necropsy both appear grossly as distended intestines with diffuse hemorrhagic tissue. In the case of acute ileitis, the intestinal content will be hemorrhagic and clotted. For hemorrhagic bowel syndrome (HBS) or intestinal volvulus, the intestinal content will be hemorrhagic and liquid; non-clotted. Making the correct diagnosis is critical as in the case of acute ileitis, immediate treatment of all pigs with tylosin would be warranted. For HBS, the etiology is unknown, and there are no effective treatments.

327
Q

You have arrived at a farm with a history of acute outbreak of sudden death. Pigs average 80 lbs and the producer has lost 25 pigs out of 1,150 in the last 2 days. Several of the dead pigs have blood tinged fluid coming out of their noses. Which of the following is your top differential?

A

The correct answer is Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (APP). The virulence of APP is due to exotoxin production by the bacteria which causes a vasculitis and hemolysis, especially in the lungs.

328
Q

About 600 of a flock of 10,000 4-week old broiler chickens have died without clinical signs, but others are depressed with brown diarrhea. At necropsy the small intestines are dilated and lined by a tan, roughened pseudomembrane. What is the probable disease in this case?

A

Clostridium perfringens is a normal inhabitant of the gastrointestinal tract in chickens. They develop clinical disease and enterotoxemia if the intestinal flora is disrupted, very commonly due to infection with coccidia. Therefore, this disease is often preceded by coccidiosis in chickens.

329
Q

Which vaccine in the horse is associated with serum hepatitis?

A

The correct answer is Tetanus antitoxin. In horses previously immunized with tetanus toxoid, the tetanus antitoxin is contraindicated because of possible serum hepatitis. Tetanus antitoxin has been associated with fatal serum hepatitis, so its use should be restricted to horses with no prior history of vaccination with tetanus toxoid. The other answer choices are not thought to be associated with serum hepatitis.

330
Q

A 6-year old mare that is 3 weeks post-partum develops abdominal pain and distension acutely. What is the most likely cause?

A

The correct answer is colon torsion. It is common in mares that are a few weeks post-partum to have a colonic torsion due to the extra space created in the abdomen after giving birth. When this occurs, it is usually a surgical emergency. Less commonly, colon torsion occurs pre-partum and typically requires surgery as well.

331
Q

A 10-month old Arabian presents for persistent superficial and deep digital flexor tendon contracture. What surgical option does this patient have?

A

The correct answer is distal check desmotomy and proximal check desmotomy. The distal check desmotomy relieves the deep digital flexor contracture while proximal check desmotomy relieves superficial digital flexor contracture. If the contracture is severe, it may recur 2-4 months after surgery. At such time, a suspensory desmotomy is an option but subluxation at the proximal interphalangeal joint is a common consequence.

332
Q

Equine infectious anemia is caused by what type of organism?

A

The correct answer is virus. Equine infectious anemia is caused by a retrovirus that establishes a lifelong infection and causes cyclic anemia and abortions.

333
Q

Rubiosis iridis as seen in this cat is a sign of what process in the eye?

A

The correct answer is anterior uveitis. Rubiosis iridis along with other signs such as aqueous flare, hyphema, hypopyon, keratic precipitates, and decreased intraocular pressure are all suggestive of anterior uveitis which can be caused by a number of infectious, immune-mediated, traumatic, and idiopathic caus

334
Q

What would you expect to find on the bloodwork of a dog that is vomiting due to a gastric outflow obstruction?

A

The correct answer is hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis. Gastric outflow obstruction leads to emesis of material with a high concentration of gastric hydrochloric acid. As a result, there is loss of chloride and acid from the body. This leaves the animal with hypochloremia and metabolic alkalosis. Vomiting from other causes can sometimes lead to loss of duodenal fluid, which is usually rich in bicarbonate and can lead to acidosis.

335
Q

Castrating a puppy significantly decreases the risk of which of these conditions in the future?

A

The correct answer is prostatitis. Castration does not significantly reduce the risk of prostatic neoplasia or bladder neoplasia.

Castration reduces the risk of benign prostatic hyperplasia and prostatitis.

336
Q

On a cat’s annual exam, the owner complains about a chronic cough. You perform a routine fecal flotation and see double operculated eggs with asymmetric terminal plugs. What are these?

A

The correct answer is Capillaria aerophila eggs. Capillaria ova look similar to Trichuris eggs but are smaller and have asymmetric terminal plugs. Most cases of Capillaria are asymptomatic but chronic cough may be seen. Paragonimus is found by fecal sedimentation or rarely by fecal floatation and have a single operculum. Aelurostrongylus larvae are recovered by Baermann.

337
Q

Which of the following compounds is used to treat acute copper toxicity in sheep?

A

D-penicillamine increases urinary copper excretion by 10 to 20 fold. Other useful drugs include sodium thiosulfate, ammonium tetramolybdate,and vitamin E.

338
Q

Which of the following drugs is not approved for use in food animals?

A

The correct answer is chloramphenicol. One of the potential side effects of chloramphenicol in people is a non-reversible aplastic anemia; therefore its use is not allowed in food animals. All others are acceptable classes of drugs (some with strict limited use) in food animals.

339
Q

If concerned about the liver function of a neonatal foal, which antibiotic does not undergo extensive hepatic metabolism?

A

The correct answer is ampicillin. Ampicillin is excreted by the kidneys and without hepatic metabolism. All other answer choices undergo extensive hepatic metabolism before being excreted.

340
Q

A 3-year-old spayed female Rhodesian Ridgeback presents for mild pruritus and skin lesions. Upon examination, you notice diffuse papules and occasional pustules along the dorsal trunk. You conclude that the patient has folliculitis. Which of the following most commonly causes pustule formation and folliculitis such as this?

A

Bacteria may be a cause of folliculitis. Pustules such as this are commonly associated with Staphylococcus. Dermatophytes, and most species of Demodex, can also infect the hair follicle.

341
Q

A large 5 year old iguana presents on emergency for an acute onset of not doing right. On physical exam, there is episcleral injection, swelling of the pharyngeal region, and pain on palpation of the abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

The correct answer is renal failure. The clinical signs described are typical of an iguana in renal failure. Typically, these iguanas are large and on a high protein diet. The episcleral injection and pharyngeal edema is thought to be as a result of hypertension due to the renal failure and is not a hypersensitivity reaction. The abdomen is usually painful with large soft palpable kidneys.

342
Q

Which of the following is a possible post-operative sequela of surgical excision of an insulinoma in dogs?

A

Diabetes Mellitus

343
Q

Describe the difference between Cytauxzoon felis and Mycoplasma haemofelis.

A

Cytauxzoon felis is a tick borne disease prevalent in the southern states. Cats typically present with a marked pyrexia, icterus or pallor, anemia associated heart murmur, and thrombocytopenia.

This disease should be differentiated from Mycoplasma haemofelis as treatment and prognosis vary greatly. Both organisms infect erythrocytes and it can sometimes be difficult to distinguish between the two.

Cytauxzoon is a protozoal organism that characteristically has a signet ring shape with a prominent nuclear area as seen in the image. Mycoplasma haemofelis is a bacterial parasite that can appear as cocci, rings, or rods. There is no effective treatment for Cytauxzoon infection, so prevention should be the goal. Cats should be kept indoors to limit exposure to ticks and tick preventative should be applied consistently.

344
Q

Which of these would you expect to see in a horse that has had significant blood loss?

A

hypoprotinemia

345
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the animals that can be affected by vesicular stomatitis virus (VSV)?

A

VSV is different from foot and mouth disease (FMD) in that horses are affected, as well as cloven-footed animals. FMD affects pigs and cattle but not horses; this fact can sometimes be used to distinguish the clinically similar conditions in certain outbreaks.

346
Q

What is a result of pulmonic stenosis in a dog?

A

The correct answer is increased right ventricular systolic pressure. Concentric hypertrophy occurs in the right ventricle as a result of the increase in pressure in the right heart caused by the increase in resistance to the ejection of blood through a stenotic pulmonary outflow tract. The post-stenotic dilation develops as a result of turbulent blood flow.

347
Q

Which cranial nerve is most responsible for tear production?

A

VII

348
Q

Which organization is responsible for regulating the food safety of salmon in the United States?

A

The correct answer is FDA

349
Q

What is the USDA responsible for?

A

The USDA is responsible for meat and poultry products including eggs

350
Q

What is the EPA responsible for?

A

The EPA is responsible for pesticides and water standards.

351
Q

What is the Farm Bill?

A

FYI, an exception to the rules above is from the 2008 Farm Bill which amends regulations such that catfish are subject to examination and inspection by USDA’s FSIS when processed for use as human food.

352
Q

Which tendon is usually affected with bowed tendon?

A

The correct answer is superficial digital flexor tendon. Bowed tendon is associated with a bulge or bowing of the shallowly located superficial digital flexor tendon.

353
Q

A concerned breeder wants to know the most common cause of dystocia in the bitch. What is your answer?

A

Explanation
The correct answer is uterine inertia. Studies show that this the most common cause of dystocia followed by malpresentations, fetal oversize, narrow canal, and malformations.

354
Q

What is the causative agent of ovine progressive pneumonia?

A

Retrovirus

355
Q

Which hormone causes the vaginal cells of the female dog to proliferate and form cornified epithelium?

A

The correct answer is estrogen. As estrogen rises during proestrus, the vaginal epithelium proliferates, cornifies, and keratinizes, presumably in preparation for mating.

356
Q

Which of the following is the causative agent of fowl cholera?

A

The correct answer is Pasteurella multocida. The bacterium is a gram negative rod. It causes fever, mucoid discharge from the mouth, diarrhea, petechia, ecchymoses, increased pericardial and peritoneal fluid, and death. The chronic form of the disease usually causes localized disease. Diagnosis is based on identifying the organism from samples in conjunction with clinical signs. Vaccines are available for prevention of the disease. Sulfa antibiotics are used for treatment.

NAVLE (10 decks)

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