Extras Sessions 9-12 Flashcards

1
Q

Primary cause for calcium-oxalate stones

A

Idiopathic hypercalciuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which site is the normal site of prostatic cancer development

A

Adenocarcinomas, peripheral zone, enlargement only later causes urethral compression

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Extrinsic causes of ureteric obstruction

A

BPH, enlarged lymph nodes, primary bladder or rectal tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Intrinsic causes of ureteric obstruction

A

Blood clots, Calculi, strictures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Radiopaque lesion found in bladder region

A

Calcium containing stone- hypercalciuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Radiolucent region

A

Pure uric acid stone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Urinary impact of AAA

A

Ureter entrapment

Ureter trapped by AAA causing unilateral hydronephrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

renal vein entrapment syndrome is associated with

A

Haematuria and proteinuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which structure corresponds to A

A

Allantois

Future umbilical cord. Initially drains bladder, obliterated and becomes median umbilical ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When is endoderm formed

A

Week 3 gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What parts of the urogenital system are lined with endoderm

A

Allantois, cloaca, urinary bladder, hindgut, yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The lower end of the mesonephric duct branches to form what

A

Ureteric bud

Single epithelial branch forms from each mesonephric duct

Part of early Metanephric formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which components of the kidney are derived from the ureteric bud

A

Collecting system = ureter, renal pelvis, major and minor calyces, collecting tubules, collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bladder is a derivative of the

A

Hind gut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common chief complaint related to UTIs in old men

A

Dysuria

Frequency and urgency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Nitrofurantoin is not suitable if

A

UTI with prostate involvement

17
Q

E. Coli description

A

Gram negative aerobic bacilli

18
Q

Old man with catheter has gram positive cocci which is coagulase negative

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

Common with catheters

19
Q

Most likely pathogen in sexually active woman with coagulase negative coccus

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Common after sex ‘honeymoon cystitis’, normal flora of female genital tract

20
Q

When a microbe is first introduced to the body a typical humoral primary response is characterised by release of which immunoglobulin

A

IgM

21
Q

urine with poly-morphonuclear leukocytes and WBC casts means

A

Infection probably in kidney, E. coli

22
Q

Which 2 places does PTH act to cause hypercalcaemia

A

Acts at the bone to increase bone mineralisation

Acts at kidneys to activate calcium channels in DCT, increase vit D formation, reduced phosphate, reabsorption in proximal tubule

23
Q

What happens to phosphate levels with PTH increases

A

Increased loss of phosphate in kidney

24
Q

Likely diagnosis in patient with parathyroid adenoma

A

Primary hyperparathyroidism

Low-normal phosphate, hyperparathyroidism

25
Q

What investigations confirm diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome

A

Hypoalbuminaemia and proteinuria

26
Q

What do GFR, electrolytes and urea show in nephrotic syndrome

A

Normal

Filtration can still occur and nephron still normal

27
Q

Why do you gain weight in nephrotic syndrome

A

Minimal change disease, albumin lost in urine, Hypoalbuminaemia, decreased oncotic pressure, less water in capillaries, more in insterstitium

28
Q

Explain hyperfiltration in diabetic nephropathy

A

Increased blood glucose, increased reabsorption of glucose in PCT coupled with Na reabsorption, reduction in delivery of Na to macula densa, RAAS = vasoconstrict efferent, increase hydrostatic pressure, increase GFR

29
Q

Which forces determine net filtration pressure in the glomerulus

A

Hydrostatic pressure of the tubule - (oncotic pressure of capillary + hydrostatic pressure of Bowman’s)

30
Q

Complications of stage 4 CKD

A

High blood pressure - ACEi, ARB, beta blocker, Ca2+ Channel blocker

Anaemia- IV if iron deficient, recombinant EPO

CKD bone and mineralisation disorder- vit D, lower phosphate in diet

Atherosclerosis- lifestyle, statins

31
Q

Signs and symptoms of uraemia

A

Cognitive dysfunction
Fatigue
Muscle cramps
Loss of appetite I

32
Q

Most likely cause of raised creatinine in old man

A

CKD

Increased creatinine, small kidneys, SOB, oedema

33
Q

Most appropriate diuretic for CKD

A

Loop diuretic - furosemide

Blocks NKCC co-transporter in thick ascending, decreased Na+ reabsorption, impairs corticopapillary gradient, less water reabsorbed from CD, more water lost in urine

34
Q

Most likely cause of raised creatinine in CKD

A

Pre renal AKI

35
Q

Management of pre renal AKI

A

Fluid resus, stop ACEi, treat volume depletion

36
Q

What is the typical prognosis with Polycystic kidney disease

A

Steadily progressive CKD

37
Q

Darker urine and atypical cells on cytology suggest

A

Urothelial carcinoma of renal pelvis

38
Q

3 peripherally located small cysts, a few oxalate crystals, likely diagnosis

A

Simple cortical cysts

(Not nephrolithiasis (kidney stone disease))