Extra - Limitations - 409MC

Question 1

400F, 400C, 400P
Maximum operating Altitude

-8
Maximum operating Altitude

LCF
Maximum operating Altitude

Answer 1

400F, 400C, 400P:
45,100’ PA

-8
43,100 PA

LCF

43,100 PA

L.10.2

Question 2

400F, 400C, 400P, -8
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

LCF
Maximum Altitude for Takeoff and Landing

Answer 2

400F, 400C, 400P, -8
10,000’ PA

LCF
7,300’ PA

L.10.2

Question 3

400F, 400C, 400P, -8
Maximum Field Elevation

LCF
Maximum Field Elevation

Answer 3

400F, 400C, 400P, -8
9,500’ MSL

LCF
7,300’ MSL

L.10.2

Question 4

Runway slope

Answer 4

+/- 2%

L.10.2

Question 5

-4
Turbulent Air penetration

-8
Turbulent Air penetration

Answer 5

-4
290 to 310 KIAS / 0.82 - 0.85 Mach, whichever is lower

-8
310/0.83

L.10.2

Question 6

-4
Maximum Tire speed (takeoff)

-8
Maximum Tire speed (landing)

Answer 6

-4
235 mph / 204 kts

-8
260 mph

L.10.2

Question 7

Minimum flight crew

Answer 7

Captain and First Officer

L.10.2

Question 8

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind component

Answer 8

15 Knots (LCF - 10 kts)

L.10.2

Question 9

Ground wind limits for all doors

LCF Swing Tail

Answer 9

40 knots when opening or closing

65 knots while open

LCF Swing tail: 30 Knots while opening and closing

L.10.2

Question 10

Takeoff and landing crosswind limits

refer to _____

Answer 10

FCOM L.10.3

Question 11

-8

Reserve tanks 1 and 4 must remain full above the maximum fuel transfer weight of ________

Answer 11

375,286KG

L10.5

Question 12

For Zero Fuel Weights greater than ___________(Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits

Answer 12

*For Zero Fuel Weights greater than (276, 691 Kgs) (Variable Zero Fuel Weight) comply with decrease maximum weight limits (see table in Weight and Balance Manual). WBM VOL 1 (1.1.6 / 1.1.7 / 1.1.8)

L.10.5

Question 13

The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by __________, _________, and _________ limits in FCOM limitations section.

Refer to the __________ manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.

Answer 13

The maximum weight limits may be less as limited by (Center of Gravity), (Fuel Density), and (Fuel Loading Limits) limits in FCOM limitations section.

Refer to the (Weight and Balance Manual) manual for additional specific airplane loading limitations.

L.10.5

Question 14

Maximum differential pressure (relief valves)

Answer 14

9.4 psi

L.10.6

Question 15

Maximum allowable cabin pressure differential for takeoff and landing

Answer 15

0.11 psi

L.10.6

Question 16

Do not operate the APU below __________

Answer 16

• 1,000’ PA

L.10.6

Question 17

The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number 2 for takeoff, provided __________ remain closed.

If an engine failure occurs do NOT change air conditioning bleed configuration until ____________ has been achieved to meet engine out performance.

Answer 17

The APU may be used to supply bleed air to air conditioning pack number (2) for takeoff, provided (isolation valves) remain closed.

If an engine failure occurs do (NOT) change air conditioning bleed configuration until (engine-out acceleration height)has been achieved to meet engine out performance.

L.10.6

Question 18

Do NOT use APU __________ in flight

Answer 18

Do NOT use APU (Generator power) in flight

L.10.6

Question 19

APU operations between ________ and _______ pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only

APU bleed air should not be used above _________

Answer 19

APU operations between (15,000 feet) and (20,000 feet) pressure altitude is limited to “no load” only

APU bleed air should not be used above (15,000 feet pressure altitude)

L.10.6

Question 20

APU start cycle restrictions are:

1 and 2 _____ _______
2 and 3 _____ _______
3 and 4 _____ _______

APU is normally started on ______. The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.

If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR starting power is transferred to the _____ and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are ________.

A failure of the TR, other than an overheat does ______ provide automatic switching)to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on ______ power

Answer 20

Between Battery TR
Starts Wait Wait

1 and 2 1 min 1 min
2 and 3 1 min 10 min
3 and 4 75 min 75 min

APU is normally started on (Battery). The TR wait column are not applicable to aircraft without a TR start source.

If the TR should overheat with the start source switch in TR, starting power is transferred to the (battery) and the start continued on battery power. Any further start attempts with an overheated TR are (inhibited).

A failure of the TR, other than an overheat, does (NOT) provide automatic switching to the APU Battery. Under these conditions, moving APU start source switch to BATTERY removes the TR from the Starting Circuit and allows APU starting on (battery) power.

L.10.6

Question 21

the use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is ________

Answer 21

prohibited

L.10.7

Question 22

the autopilot must not be engaged below ________ after takeoff

Answer 22

250 feet

L.10.7

Question 23

the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than _________ below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS _____________ or in the _________

Answer 23

the autopilot must be disengaged before the airplane descends more than (50 feet) below minimums unless it is coupled to an ILS (glideslope and localizer) or in the (go-around mode).

L.10.7

Question 24

WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below _______

Answer 24

WITHOUT LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, the autopilot must not remain engaged below (100 feet RA)

L.10.7

Question 25

Do not use FLCH on final approach below ________ AFE

Answer 25

Do not use FLCH on final approach below 1,000 feet AFE L.10.7

Question 26

When using autobrakes during Autoland operations, touchdown is assumed to occur at 2,500 feet from the runway threshold. ________ feet must be added to the advisory landing distance in the PI chapter or to the TLR WITHOUT Autoland distance provided ______ if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance)

Answer 26

When using autobrakes during Autoland operations, touchdown is assumed to occur at 2,500 feet from the runway threshold. (1,000) feet must be added to the advisory landing distance in the PI chapter or to the TLR WITHOUT Autoland distance provided N/A if using (ACARS) or (TLR with Autoland distance) L.10.7

Question 27

Automatic landings may be made with flaps _______

Answer 27

Automatic landings may be made with flaps (25 or 30 only) L.10.7

Question 28

Maximum GS angle for autoland is ________ | minimum GS angle for autoland is _________

Answer 28

Maximum GS angle for autoland is (3.25) minimum GS angle for autoland is (2.5) L.10.7

Question 29

Automatic landings require ____ operating hydraulic systems

Answer 29

Automatic landings require (4) operating hydraulic systems L.10.7

Question 30

Max wind component for Autoland Headwind _____ Tailwind _______ Crosswind _______ Crosswind CAT II/III ______

Answer 30

Headwind Headwind (25kts) Tailwind (15kts)/(LCF 10kts) Crosswind (25kts) Crosswind CAT II/III (15kts) L.10.7

Question 31

The minimum threshold crossing height is ______

Answer 31

The minimum threshold crossing height is (44') L.10.7

Question 32

ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an ____________ if the message is improperly received

Answer 32

ACARS is limited to the transmissions and receipt of messages, which will not create an (unsafe condition) if the message is improperly received L.10.8

Question 33

PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are ____________ per approved operational procedures

Answer 33

PDC, D-ATIS, Oceanic Clearance, W/B, Performance Data messages can be transmitted and received over ACARS if they are (verified) per approved operational procedures L.10.8

Question 34

ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently ________ with the origination group station.

Answer 34

ATC clearance data received through the FMC which can only be viewed on the flight deck printer must be independently (verified) with the origination group station L.10.8

Question 35

Do NOT operate HF radios during ___________operations

Answer 35

Do NOT operate HF radios during (refueling) operations L.10.8

Question 36

N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC Do NOT use the center VHF radio on _______ or ______ unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational

Answer 36

N409MC, N480MC, N496MC - N499MC Do not use center VHF radio on (120.000 MHz) or (120.005 MHz) unless the left and right VHF radio communication systems are operational L.10.8

Question 37

LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational __________ system, except for FIR boundary reports

Answer 37

LCF, N419MC, N429MC, N464MC, N465MC, N471MC with an operational ACARS system, except for FIR boundary reports, Do NOT use the center VHF radio for voice communications with an operational (ACARS) system, except for FIR boundary reports L.10.8

Question 38

For Communication/Navigation/Surveillance(CNS) and RVSM required equipment refer to __________

Answer 38

L.10.9, L.10.10, QRM 3.1, QRM 3.2

Question 39

The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE _________. If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to ________.

Answer 39

The flight crew must use oxygen when cabin altitude is ABOVE (10,000 feet). If 100% or Emergency is not needed, set the regulator to (Normal). L.10.11

Question 40

WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system Supernumeraries are ______ from accessing the main deck cargo any time the aircraft is moving With operable main deck signaling/alert system Supernumeraries are prohibited from accessing the main deck cargo compartment during _________, ______, and _______

Answer 40

WITHOUT operable main deck signaling/alert system prohibited With operable main deck signaling/alert system (taxi), (takeoff), and (landing) L.10.12

Question 41

A maximum of _____ supernumeraries are allowed access to the main deck cargo compartment in-flight for cargo or liven animal operation

Answer 41

3 L.10.12

Question 42

Supernumeraries must be _______ to return to their seats at the onset of a smoke, fire, or pressurization event, turbulence and prior to landing.

Answer 42

(signaled) L.10.12

Question 43

There must be at least _____ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight

Answer 43

one L.10.12

Question 44

During the flight, the supernumerary must carry the ______________ unit whenever he or she is in the main deck cargo compartment

Answer 44

(portable oxygen) L.10.12

Question 45

There must be at least ______ portable oxygen unit with a full face mask attached to it provided for each supernumerary allowed to enter the main deck cargo compartment during flight.

Answer 45

one L.10.12

Question 46

For aircraft WITHOUT an automatic aural and visual system installed, supernumeraries must also _________ the full-face mask and initiatee the oxygen flow whenever the main deck cargo compartment is accessed during flight. see placard on the smoke barrier door to determine requirement status.

Answer 46

don L.10.12

Question 47

An adequate quantity of oxygen for sustenance must be provided for each occupant for flight at ________ feet cabin altitude to the nearest suitable airport. in the event of cabin depressurization for any emergency condition, oxygen flow to upper deck occupant's mask no longer in use must be turned ______. this will conserve oxygen and increase flow rates to mask remaining in use.

Answer 47

25,000 off L.10.12

Question 48

Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean Crew System _____ _____ Pass System _____ _____ Is based on what altitude?

Answer 48

Target Oxygen Pressures (psi) Land Ocean Crew System 950 1,200 Pass System 1,200 1,200 FL250 L.10.12

Question 49

The smoke barrier door must be ______ during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing. The door must be _______ in-flight except when entering or leaving the main deck cargo compartment.

Answer 49

closed closed L.10.12

Question 50

Takeoff EGT is limited to _______ minutes

Answer 50

400 - GE/PW 5 min -8 10 min in the even of engine fail during takeoff L10.13

Question 51

B5F With EEC in Alternate mode, Takeoff power must be set after ________

Answer 51

Brake Release L10.13

Question 52

GE Minimum oil Pressure PW Minimum oil Pressure -8 Oil Pressure limits

Answer 52

GE 10 PSI PW 57 PSI GE see L10.25 On Ground, pressure in the amber region requires correction before flight. L10.14

Question 53

PW Oil Temperature must be greater than ____ C before advancing thrust levers to takeoff power

Answer 53

50 L10.14

Question 54

Engine Ignition must be ON when encountering: Use standby ignition if continuous is ______ available

Answer 54

``` Moderate to Heavy Rain Moderate to severe turbulence Icing conditions Hail or sleet Volcanic ash Standing water or slush on the runway ``` Use standby ignition if continuous is (not available) L10.14 SP7.5

Question 55

During Ground operations (including taxi-in, taxi-out, and ground hold) in visible moisture and OAT 3C or below the flight crew must comply with the __________ in the SP Cold weather op

Answer 55

Run up procedures in the SP Cold weather ops L10.14

Question 56

Intentional selection of reverse thrust in flight is _____

Answer 56

Prohibited L10.14

Question 57

Backing the airplane with the use of reverse thrust is _________

Answer 57

Prohibited L10.14

Question 58

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw as they may result in __________ at any speed, including below Va

Answer 58

Structural failure L10.15

Question 59

Maximum altitude with flaps extended

Answer 59

20,000 feet L10.15

Question 60

Flaps up Maneuvering load acceleration Flaps down Maneuvering load acceleration

Answer 60

+2.5g to -1.0g +2.0g to 0.0g -8 varies linearly from +2.0g at MLW to +1.5g at MTOW

Question 61

use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended N249BA, N780BA (LCF) use of speedbrakes in flight with flaps extended past ________ is not recommended

Answer 61

20 N249BA, N780BA(LCF) 10 L10.15

Question 62

Engine Max, Min and Cautionary limits are what color If EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be _______

Answer 62

Max/Min - Red Caution - Amber If EICAS markings show more conservative limits than those specified in this section, the markings shown on the EICAS must be observed L10.16

Question 63

Max speed operating in RVSM airspace

Answer 63

0.90 Mach L10.16

Question 64

Max allowable in-flight difference between captain and first officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is ____

Answer 64

200 feet L10.16

Question 65

Max allowable on the ground altitude display difference for RVSM operations

Answer 65

Max Diff Capt and FO - Sea Level to 5,000' - 35' - 5,001' - 9,000' - 40' Max Diff Capt and FO and Field Elevation - 75' L10.16

Question 66

Do ______ delete/add waypoints to RNAV/RNP DP's or STAR procedures

Answer 66

NOT L10.17

Question 67

The use of LNAV or VNAV with QFE is LCF QFE operations are ________

Answer 67

prohibited Prohibed L10.17

Question 68

Min and Max VNAV path angle

Answer 68

2.75 / 3.5 L10.17

Question 69

If leveling off within 2,000 feet AFTER changing altimeter setting from QNE to QNH or QNH to QNE, do not use VNAV to execute the level off if the QNH is less than ________. After level off is complete, VNAV may be re-engaged.

Answer 69

29.70/1006 L10.17

Question 70

Do ______ cycle CWT and HST pump switches form ON to OFF to ON with any continuous low pressure indication present

Answer 70

NOT L10.18

Question 71

Do _____ reset a tripped fuel pump circuit breaker

Answer 71

NOT L10.18

Question 72

The CWT fuel quantity indication system must be operative to dispatch with ______ Trip fuel

Answer 72

CWT trip fuel L10.18

Question 73

If the Fuel Low CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____

Answer 73

OFF Except in a low fuel situation L10.18

Question 74

If the Fuel Press CTR L or R message is displayed, both override/jettison pumps must be selected _____ except in a low _____ situation

Answer 74

OFF Except in a low fuel situation L10.18

Question 75

When Defueling or transferring fuel refer to to

Answer 75

FCOM limitations

Question 76

-400 | Do not extend or retract the flaps between postilions 1 and 5 during _____

Answer 76

fuel jettison

Question 77

For fuel densities less than _______ gross weight is limited Fuel density limitations refer to the _______

Answer 77

2.92 kgs / 6.43 lbs / 0.771 ltr FCOM limitations L10.19

Question 78

PW Tank fuel temperature prior to takeoff must not be less than ______ or ______ above the fuel freezing point temperature, whichever is higher In flight tank fuel temperature must be maintained at least _______ above the fuel freezing point of the fuel being used. -8 minimum tank fuel temperature in flight is ____

Answer 78

-43C or 3C 3C -48C L10.20

Question 79

Max tank Temp is

Answer 79

+54C L10.20

Question 80

The use of Jet B and JP4 is

Answer 80

prohibited L10.20

Question 81

Nacelle anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations when __________

Answer 81

icing conditions exist or are anticipated except when the temperature is -40 L10.21

Question 82

Do not using ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds

Answer 82

10C L10.21

Question 83

Icing conditions exist when indicated in flight by the primary ice detection if installed or else when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff or TAT in flight is _____ or below and visible moisture in any form is present.

Answer 83

10C L10.21

Question 84

Icing conditions exist when the OAT on the ground and for takeoff is

Answer 84

10C or below when operating on ramps, taxiways or runways with surface snow, ice, standing water or slush L10.21

Question 85

Operatins in ICI (GE CF6-80C2) Nacelle anit-ice must be _______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. If at or below 22,000 ft wing anti-ice must be ______ when ice crystal icing conditions exist even when the temperature is below -40C. Do not use ant-ice if OAT or TAT exceeds _____

Answer 85

ON ON 10C L10.22

Question 86

Window heat must be _______ for all normal flight conditions. If window heat or anti fogging is inop, refer to the ________

Answer 86

ON Limitations L10.22

Question 87

Flaps Speeds -400 -400 ERF -8 1 5 10 20 25 30

Answer 87

-400 -400 ERF -8 280 285 285 260 265 265 240 245 245 230 235 235 205 210 210 180 180 185 L10.23

Question 88

Landing gear retract or extend speed Landing gear extended speed

Answer 88

270/0.82 320/0.82 L10.23

Question 89

The total number of persons including crew member that may occupy the upper deck cabin during taxi, takeoff, flight and landing are: 400F, -8 400C LCF

Answer 89

400F, -8: 8 400C: 12 LCF: 4 L10.24

Question 90

Do ____ use the terrain display for navigation

Answer 90

not L10.24

Question 91

The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and terrain display functions is prohibited within _____of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases.

Answer 91

15nm of takeoff, approach or landing at an airport or runway not contained in the GPWS terrain databases. L10.24

Question 92

Avoid weather radar operation in a hangar, or within______ of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome.

Answer 92

hangar, or within 50 feet of fueling operations or a fuel spill or when personnel are within the area normally enclosed by the aircraft nose radome. L10.24

Question 93

Flap Maneuvering Speed can be found in the

Answer 93

QRH PI

Question 94

400P Without Cabin Crew on board, Cockpit ACMs and supernumeraires are ___________ to the upper deck cabin for taxi, takeoff and landing

Answer 94

restricted L10.2

Question 95

-8 For crosswinds greater than _____ knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1) with a tailwind component greater than _____ knots and winds greater than _____ Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(______%N1) For winds greater than ______ knots, limit engine thrust to idle Engines must be shut down when the _____ degree crosswind exceeds _____ knots

Answer 95

For crosswinds greater than (35) knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45 %N1) with a tailwind component greater than (5) knots and winds greater than (26) Knots, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi(45%N1) For winds greater than (55)knots, limit engine thrust to idle Engines must be shut down when the (90) degree crosswind exceeds (55) knots

Question 96

400C, LCF A/C PACKS OFF for takeoff or go-around is not ______.

Answer 96

permitted L10.6

Question 97

400P If pack 3 is available, do not move the Pack 3 control selector to _____ during normal ground operations unless Pack 1 and Pack 2 selectors are OFF

Answer 97

OFF L10.6

Question 98

LCF Autoland capability may only be used for operations into runways at or below ________ feet AFE

Answer 98

5,000 L10.7

Question 99

N408MC - N412MC, N457MC - N477MC, N492MC - 499MC If one HF radio is selected for transmission, _______ the other HF radio on all audio control panels to prevent audio interference

Answer 99

deselect L10.8

Question 100

400P verify that an operational check of the flight deck access system has been accomplished ______ each day

Answer 100

once L10.11

Question 101

-8 in the event of a loss of primary air data, standby system corrections must be _____ by the flight crew

Answer 101

applied L10.16

Question 102

Pilots must monitor the required primary navigation aid(s) inside the FAF by display of the following: DME: ______ VOR:______ NDB:_______

Answer 102

DME: Valid DME data VOR: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in VOR NDB: ND map may be used VOR/ADF switches must be in ADF L10.17

Question 103

Pilots must ______ if the EICAS alert message "Unable RNP" displays while on an RNAV approach, unless adequate visual reference can be established and maintained

Answer 103

Go-around L10.17

Question 104

RNAV(RNP) or RNP(AR) are ______

Answer 104

not authorized L10.17

Question 105

LCF Reserve tank 2 and 3 maximum fuel tank quantity is __________ Main tank 1 and 4 maximum fuel tank quantity is _______

Answer 105

Res. 2/3: 2,065 kg (4553 lbs) Main 1/4 9,933 kg (21,900 lbs) L10.18

Question 106

Horizontal Stabilizer Tank(HST) The HST fuel quantity indication system must be _______ to dispatch with HST mission fuel if the FUEL PMP STB L or R or FUEL LO STAB L or R or FUEL PRES STAB L or R message is displayed in flight the corresponding HST pumps must be selected _____ The remaining fuel in the HST must be considered ______

Answer 106

operative Off unusable L10.18

Question 107

-8 use of the powered outlets in flight is ______

Answer 107

prohibited L10.25

Question 108

-8 minimum OAT for takeoff and landing is ______

Answer 108

-47.8C L10.25

Question 109

-8 minimum runway width is _____

Answer 109

172 feet(52.4 meters) L10.25

Question 110

-8 on ground, oil pressure in the amber region requires _______ before flight

Answer 110

correction L10.25

Question 111

-400 QRC

Answer 111

Cabin Altitude/Rapid Depressurization Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start Engine limit or surge or stall IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable Flaps extended ............ 10deg and 90% N1 Flaps up .......................... 4deg and 80% N1 Fire ENG 1,2,3,4/Engine Severe Damage or separation Multiple Engine Flameout or stall Evacuation

Question 112

-8 QRC

Answer 112

[ ] Cabile Altitude [ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Autostart/Aborted Engine Start [ ] Eng 1,2,3,4 Lim Exceed/ Surge [ ] Engine Svr damge/Sep 1,2,3,4 [ ] IAS Disagree/Airspeed unreliable Flaps extended ............ 10deg and 90% N1 Flaps up .......................... 4deg and 80% N1 [ ] Fire ENG 1,2,3,4 Multi Eng Fail/Stall Evacuation

Question 113

-400 Wingspan Min width of pavement for 180 deg turn

Answer 113

213' (64.9m) 153' (46.6m) -400 Fcom Vol 2

Question 114

-8 Wingspan Min turn radius

Answer 114

224'5"(68.4m) 172'(45.7m) -8 Fcom Vol 2

Question 115

Pitch and Power -400 Climb Cruise Descent 5,000 / Flaps up Flaps 25 Flaps 30 GA -8 Climb Cruise Descent 5,000 / Flaps up Flaps 25 Flaps 30 GA

Answer 115

Pitch and Power -400 Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000' Cruise : 1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1 Descent: -3 to +1.5 deg 5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1 Flaps 25: 2 deg, 50% - 70% Flaps 30: 1 deg, 60% - 70% GA: 12 deg -8 Climb: 11 deg, drops 2 deg per 10,000' Cruise: 1 - 4 deg, 80% - 90% N1 Descent: -3 tp +1.5 deg 5,000 / Flaps up: 5 - 6.5 deg, 55 - 70% N1 Flaps 25: 1 deg, 50% - 70% Flaps 30: 1 deg, 50% - 70% GA: 12 deg