Exams 1&2 Flashcards
Which of the following is most likely to happen with respect to drugs given as weak bases?
Better absorbed in intestine
Which of the following for of the drug would be most beneficial for crossing numerous biological membranes before reaching their target receptors?
Unionized form
A weak acid drug with pKa= 3 would be least ionized and have better absorption rate in the …
Stomach (pH=2)
Which one combination of the following factors helps in increased efficiency of drug distribution?
High lipid solubility, low plasma protein binding
High plasma protein binding of the drugs will generally result in which on condition of the following?
slow drug displacement interactions
A dog which was under treatment for epilepsy is overdosed with phenobarbital (weakly acidic drug). the dog was brought to the clinic and was starting to show symptoms of toxicity. Which of the following intervention could be most beneficial in terms of urinary excretion of the drug?
Alkalization of urine
Which of the following process in kidneys will usually result in increase in systemic availability of the drug or metabolite?
Tubular reabsorption
If you have started new drug A in a patient already on phenobarbital, which is a potent inducer of drug metabolizing enzymes (CYP450) which can metabolize drug A. period what can you expect with drug A.
Increased metabolism of drug A
Cats are more sensitive to toxicity to acetaminophen (Tylenol) and aspirin due to the deficiency of on the following metabolic pathways
Glucuronidation
With respect to urinary excretion of the drugs in carnivores, witch excrete more acidic (pH 5.5-7.0)…
Acidic drugs in herbivores have greater renal excretion
The phase 2 metabolism of drugs results in conjugation of drugs. Due to high molecular weight of drug… Which of the following conjugate is exclusively excreted in bile?
Glutathione conjugates
You decided to treat an animals with a potnetially life saving drug…
Less than normal therapeutic response tp drug therapy
In a medical emergency, a rapid onset of drug effect is desired …
IV injection
After administration of drug, it passes through different kinetic processes. The correct sequence…
Absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
When 2 pharmaceutical products are bioequivalent, which of the following pharmokinetic parameters…
All of the above (C max the peak concentration, tmas the time to achieve peak concentration, AUC is area under drug concentration time curve)
The drugs agents like alcohol, phenytoin, salicylates follow zero order elimination …
The half-life is not constant and increases with increase in dose
Fro drugs following first order kinetics, complete elimination (>95%) occurs in how many half-lives
5
For the drugs those are known to be cleared by first order kinetics. Which of the following parameter allows you to determine how long it will take to reach steady-state drug level?
Elimination half-life
If a highly lipid-soluble drug has a higher volume of distribution in patients with high body fat content… half-life expected to be:
Increased (longer)
Some drugs bind to receptors and show opposite response that of agonist. Which term is used for this type of agonist when used alone
Inverse agonist
ED50 or EC50 is the dose of the drug that produces an effect produces an effect equal…
Potency
Which of the following type of receptor activation will result in quickest possible drug response?
Ligand gated
In clinical conditions, the rebound hypertension observed in dogs following withdrawal of beta-adrenoreceptor blockers…
Up regulation of receptors
Which of the following is the best example for chemical antagonism
Using antacids to neutralize excessive gastric acid
The adrenoreceptor primarily responsible for heart muscle contraction
Beta 1
Activation of presynaptic alpha 2 receptor has what impact on NE?
Decreases NE release from presynaptic nerve terminal
A horse diagnosed with COPD. Which of the following class of drugs you would like to use without any possible side effects on heart
Beta 2 agonist (clenbuterol)
Which of the following mechanisms best explains why EP is used as an adjunct of local anesthetics
It activates alpha receptors, causing vasoconstriction there by inhibiting local anesthetic absorption and prolonging its action
A dogs diagnosed with pheochromocytoma and having hypertension (malignant hypertension)…
Phenoxybenzamine
Non-selective beta blocker and alpha blocker that is used as adjunctive therapy to treat heart failure in dogs
Atenolol
Which of the following blockers are termed as cardio-selective beta blockers
Beta 1
The selective alpha 2 antagonist used to reverse the overdose toxicity of Xylazine in animal is
Yohimbine
Short acting reversible cholinesterase inhibitor used to diagnose MG like syndrome in dogs
Edrophonium
Direct acting cholinergic agonist used to stimulate bladder contraction ind dogs and cats
Bethanechol
A cholinergic antagonist used as pre-anesthetic to reduce salivary and respiratory secretions
?
The acetylcholine esterase located on the synaptic membranes rapidly degrade ACh into acetate and choline
TRUE
The cholinergic receptor primarily repsonsible for increased gut motility and secretions
Muscarinic M3
A male dog presents to the emergency clinic after contacted with carbamate insecticide while gardening…
All of the above symptoms (urination, lacrimation, salivation)
Which of the following anticholinergic drug is used to treat motion sickness in animals
Scopolamine
A dog was administered with one of the following neuromuscular blocking agents prior to the surgery…
?
Oral absorption of the neuromuscular blocking is poor, hence they generally given by IV route and they cannot cross BBB
TRUE
A maledog under treatment with high dose antibiotics, is administered with NM blockers for prep…
Aminoglycoside
The veterinarian decided to use a non-depolarizing NM blocker for muscle relaxation before an emergency …
Pancuronium
You start an IV infusion of a drug to a patient at a rate of 250 mg/hr. The drug is known to be cleared….
Elimination half life
If we alkalinize the urine to a pH of 7.8, will a lower or higher percentage of a weakacid be ionized, compared with when the urine pH was 6.0
Higher
In a 20 kg dog, drugs such as amiodarone and digoxin, have apparent volumes of distribution …
High affinity for tissue proteins or high fat solubility
Which on tandem of drugs when combined may dangerously prolong action potential duration and can result in ventricular fibrillation?
Procainamide and Sotalol
Which of the following agents when administered, leads to ultra-rapid vasodilation by stimulating guanylate cyclase ..
Sodium nitroprusside
Least affective for treating supraventricular tachycardia due to high affinity for inactivated Na+ channels with rapid onset and offset kinetics
Lidocaine
Positive ionotropy via calcium sensitization and vascular dilation via inhibition of phosphodiesterase II and is categorized as an inodilator
Pimodendan
Electrolyte abnormalities could result in increased signs of digoxin toxicity
Hypokalemia
Angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor that’s primarily eliminated via hepatic metabolism
Benazepril
Sympathomimetic that results in a positive inotropic response as well as vasodilation via stimulation of B1 and B2 receptors
Dobutamine
Beta blockers is considered an ultra-short acting cardioselective B1-antagonist used for emergency therapy of supraventricular tachycardia
Esmolol
Arterial vasodilation by blocking calcium channels
Amlodipine
Which one of the following agents is an anticholinergic drug that can be used to asses etiology of sinus brachycardia
Atropine
One of the following is a low ceiling yet potent diuretic that inhibits Na+CL-/H2O…
Hydrochlorothiazide
Drug that achieves its anti-arrhythmic effect through the blockade of potassium…
Sotalol
Vasodilator that works to block the effects of angiotensin-II at the receptor level …
Telmisartan
Binds to Na+K+Cl+ co-transporter in the thick ascending loop … prevent diuretic resistance…
Torsemide
Aldosterone inhibitor that reduces Na+ and H2O resorption in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting tubule …
Spironolactone
Agent that blokcs the Na+K+ ATPase pump on cardiac cells that leads to Na+/Ca2+ reversal…
Digoxin
Choose the correct statement regarding the therapeutic management of convulsions in animals
Requires lifetime of use of anticonvulsant drugs and eradication not possible
Pharmacological approaches can be attempted to control convulsions in animals
Increasing the activity of inhibitory NT
Dog presented with acute onset of seizure for more than 5 minutes (status epilepticus) with losing and gaining consciousness… best used?
Diazepam
Dog is under long-term therapy with phenobarbital for convulsions. After 3 months of treatment, the owner reported an episode of convulsion …
Perform therapeutic drug monitoring
5 year old male Lab diagnosed with idiopathic epilepsy. The dog has been receiving phenobarbital for seizure control …
Phenobarbital induced its own metabolism by inducing CYP450
Main toxicity in phenobarbital use as an anticonvulsant …
Hepatoxicity
Why are hematinics administered to animals?
To enhance the biosynthesis of Hb
What deficiency is most likely responsible to the development of microcytic anemia in baby pigs
Iron
Which form of heparin is frequently preferred for providing consistent anticoagulation with less risk of bleeding of thrombocytopenia in patients
LMWH
Treatment of thromboembolic disease in cats and is hyper coagulable states in dogs…
Clopidogrel (Plavix)
The neural process of encoding and processing noxious stimuli
Nociception
Opiod receptor activation is associated with all of the following except
Stimulation of excitatory NT release
Statment false regarding the pharmacological effects of opioids
Respiratory depression due to reduced sensitivity of brain neurons to oxygen
Activation of which opiod receptor can result in resp. depression
Mu
Morphine is most pure opioid agonists are listed as Schedule ____ drugs
2
Pure opioid antagonist used primarily for the treatment of opioid-induced resp. depression
Naloxone
Partial Mu agonist opioid approved for use in cats for control of post-op pain
Buprenorphine
Synthetic opioid which is 75-125 times more potent than morphine
Fentanyl
Some glucocorticoids are prodrugs and need hepatic metabolic activation to show their response…
Prednisone
Long acting glucocorticoid
Dexamethasone
In management of certain medical conditions long-term therapy with glucocorticoids …
Using alternate- day dosing or intermittent therapy
Glucocorticoids indicated for which condtion?
All (anti-inflamm and antiallergic, immunosuppressive, physiological replacement)
PG analog, employed in the treatment of NSAID induced GI ulceration in dogs
Misoprostol
PG analogue used to induced leuteolysis, induction of parturition, abortion and estrus synchronization
PGF2 alpha
PG analogue used to reduce intra ocular pressure in primary glaucoma in dogs …
Latanoprost
Main adverse effects observed with prolonged use to NSAIDs are seen as a result of reduced production …
Inhibition of COX 1
COX-2 preferential NSAID
Carprofen
NSAIDs show the PK characteristics like good oral absorption, high protein binding, hepatic metabolism
TRUE
NSAID contraindicated in cats due ti potential hepatotoxicity and death
Acetaminophen
Contrain use for NSAIDs
Dehydration, GI ulceration, hepatic insufficiency
Patients is the best candidate for NSAID admin as part of analgesic protocol during orthopedic surgery
6 month old doodle with femur fracture
7 week old dog was presented to clinic with muscular pain due to injury while playing. What is the best NSAID of choice for this dog
Carprofen
New NSAID which acts by blocking EP4 receptor and having no effect on COX
Grapiprant
Monoclonal Ab that blocks pain through inhibtion of nerve growth factor… in dogs
Bedinvetmab
Most important therapeutic mechanism of aciton of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs such as aspirin and flunixin meglumine
Inhibit conversion of membrane phospholipids to arachidonic acid
All the below are properties exhibited by NSAIDs except one
Weak bases
NSAID is contraindicated in cats due to it potential hepatoxcity and death
Acetaminophen
Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker and can be combined with digoxin therapy for adequate rate control…..
Diltiazem
Anti-arrhythmic agent in class 1a drug that also has muscarinic receptor antagonism that results in…
Quinidine
