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Phase 1 Cards > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What does DNA helicase do?

A

catalyses the breakage of hydrogen bonds between bases to separate DNA strands

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2
Q

Give an example of an intrahepatic cause of jaundice

A

alcoholic liver disease

viral hepatitis

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3
Q

What blood type should be used for a transfusion if the blood type is not known?

A

O negative- ‘universal donor’

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4
Q

In which layer of the skin are melanocytes?

A

stratum basale

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5
Q

What do melanocytes do?

A

synthesise melanin which absorbs UV light

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6
Q

What does LH do in males?

A

stimulates release of testosterone from leydig cells

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7
Q

What structures are part of the rotator cuff?

A

subscapularis
teres minor
supraspinatus
infraspinatus

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8
Q

What does the zona fasciculata do?

A

cortisol

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9
Q

What does the zona glomerulosa produce?

A

aldosterone

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10
Q

Where is noradrenaline produced?

A

adrenal medulla

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11
Q

What does the zona reticularis produce?

A

DHEA

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12
Q

Compression of what nerve will give a hoarse/ crackly voice?

A

recurrent laryngeal nerve

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13
Q

What is the precursor and enzyme for lysis of clots?

A

plasminogen (precursor)

plasmin (enzyme)

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14
Q

What substance makes up the skin?

A

type 1 collagen

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15
Q

What is cartilage made from?

A

type 2 collagen

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16
Q

What is basement membrane made of?

A

type 4 collagen

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17
Q

What makes up the placenta?

A

type 5 collagen

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18
Q

What substance makes up the spleen?

A

type 3 collagen

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19
Q

What are type 1 hypersensitivity reactions mediated by?

A

IgE

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20
Q

What does IgE do during type 1 hypersensitivity reactions?

A

causes histamine to be released from mast cells causing the allergic response

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21
Q

What reactions are T helper cells involved in?

A

type 4 hypersensitivity reactions

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22
Q

Which hypersensitivity reactions is IgG involved in?

A

type 2 and type 3 reactions

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23
Q

Where is IgA found and what does it do?

A

found in mucous, saliva, tears

protects against pathogens

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24
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity reaction is autoimmune conditions?

A

type 2

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25
Q

What are type 4 hypersensitivity reactions?

A

delayed type reactions- e.g. TB/ sarcoidosis

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26
Q

What do mucous cells secrete?

A

mucin

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27
Q

What are ADLs and IADLs and examples

A

ADL- activities of daily life
e.g. going to the toilet

IADL- instrumental activities of daily living
e.g. going to the supermarkets, using public transport, managing medications

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28
Q

What is the correct order of the vessels for the blood supply to the kidney?

A 
renal artery
segmental artery
interlobular artery
arcuate artery 
afferent arteriole
glomerular capillary
efferent arteriole 
peritubular capillary
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29
Q

What are the vitamin K clotting factors?

A

2, 7, 9, 10 (remember 1972)

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30
Q

What are the stages of the transtheoretical model of behaviour?

A 
precontemplation
contemplation
preparation
action
maintenance
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31
Q

What structures pass through the carpal tunnel?

A

median nerve + 9 tendons
(tendon of flexor policus longus, 4 tendons of flexor digitorium profundus, 4 tendons of flexor digitorium superficialis)

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32
Q

What are the borders of the carpal tunnel?

A

flexor retinaculum and arch of carpal bones

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33
Q

What type of neurotransmitters are GABA and glutamate?

A

GABA- inhibitory

glutamate- excitatory

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34
Q

What is the threshold voltage for an action potential?

A

approx -55mV

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35
Q

What joins plasma membranes of pre and post electrical synaptic neurons?

A

gap junctions

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36
Q

What is the connective tissue between muscle fibres of the myocardium?

A

endomysiums

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37
Q

What is the appearance of the myocardium?

A

striated appearance
single, central nucleus per cell
intercalated discs

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38
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

converts short term memory to long term memory

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39
Q

What nerve innervates the triceps brachii?

A

radial nerve

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40
Q

What is the function of the thalamus?

A

relay station for sensory inputs

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41
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

regulates autonomic nervous system

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42
Q

When is renin secreted?

A

in response to decreased perfusion in the kidneys

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43
Q

Describe the action of angiotensin 1

A

liver produces angiotensin
it is then cleaved by angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1
ACE converts angiotensin 1 to angiotensin 2
this acts to retain water and sodium which elevates blood volume and increases blood pressure

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44
Q

How many types of pneumocytes are there? What do they do?

A

2 types

type 1: line alveolar wall
type 2: secrete surfactant

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45
Q

What is Barretts oesophagus?

A

a change from stratified squamous to simple columnar

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46
Q

What vertebral levels do the kidneys sit between?

A

T12 - L3

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47
Q

Which kidney is lower and why?

A

right kidney, due to presence of liver

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48
Q

Where do you find baroreceptors?

A

carotid sinus and arch of aorta

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49
Q

What is the lifespan of an erythrocyte?

A

120 days

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50
Q

Injury to what nerve causes inability to abduct?

A

axillary nerve

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51
Q

What is the nerve supply to the deltoid muscle?

A

axillary nerve

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52
Q

What is the lifespan of a platelet?

A

7-10 days

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53
Q

What is the main abductor of the arm?

A

deltoid muscle

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54
Q

What proportion of body weight is made of ECF?

A

20% of total body weight

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55
Q

What % of body weight is made of ICF?

A

40%

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56
Q

What % of total body weight is water?

A

60%

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57
Q

What are the intraperitoneal organs?

A 
stomach
spleen
liver
first 3cm duodenum 
jejunum
ileum
transverse colon
sigmoid colon
tail of pancreas
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58
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal?

A

rest of pancreas and duodenum
ascending colon
descending colon
kidneys

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59
Q

What enzyme converts purines to xanthine to uric acid?

A

xanthine oxidase

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60
Q

How long do basophils live?

A

1-2 days

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61
Q

Which white blood cell releases histamine?

A

basophils

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62
Q

Which white blood cells have a granular histological appearance?

A

basophils

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63
Q

How do you calculate relative risk?

A

risk in one group/ risk in all other groups

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64
Q

From what point in gestation is surfactant produced?

A

34 weeks

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65
Q

What can be an effect of surfactant deficiency in a foetus?

A

respiratory distress syndrome
non-compliant lungs
loss of lung volume

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66
Q

What are the stages of lung development

A

embryonic (0-5 weeks)
pseudoglandular (5-17 weeks)
canalicular (16-25 weeks)
alveolar (25 weeks to term)

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67
Q

What supplies oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to the foetus?

A

oxygenated: umbilical vein
deoxygenated: umbilical artery

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68
Q

Where is the foramen ovale in the heart?

A

between left and right atrium

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69
Q

In what direction is blood shunted in a foetus?

A

right to left

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70
Q

What does an artery have but a vein lacks?

A

external elastic lamina

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71
Q

What are the symptoms of a cerebellar stroke/ lesion?

A 
problems coordinating movement
balance problems 
vertigo
nausea 
vomiting due to prominent headache
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72
Q

Where is 1,25 dihydrocyvitamin D3 synthesised?

A

kidneys

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73
Q

Which cells detect low NaCl concentration? What do they stimulate release of as a result?

A

macula densa- stimulate release of renin

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74
Q

What is the equation for inspiratory capacity?

A

inspiratory reserve volume + tidal volume

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75
Q

Which cells release renin?

A

granular

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76
Q

What do goblet cells secrete?

A

mucus

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77
Q

What does a cross-sectional study do?

A

looks at an association at only one point in time

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78
Q

What are the advantages/ disadvantages of a cross-sectional study?

A

advantages: quick feedback, is cheap, representative of current population, no risk of drop out
disadvantages: is not representative over periods of time, no cause and effect, potentially biased if groups not randomly selected

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79
Q

What is gluconeogenesis?

A

synthesising glucose from non-carbohydrate sources

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80
Q

What substance is used in gluconeogensis and how us it produced?

A

glycerol

produced from breakdown of adipocytes

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81
Q

What structures are in the spermatic cord?

A

vas defrens, testicular artery, processus vaginalis, pampiniform nucleus

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82
Q

Where does glycolysis occur?

A

cytosol of cells

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83
Q

What are the products of glycolysis?

A 
2 pyruvate
2 ATP
2NADH
2 H+
2 H2O
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84
Q

Where does the Kreb’s cycle take place?

A

mitochondrial matrix in aerobic conditions

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85
Q

What is the formula for anaerobic respiration?

A

glucose + 2ADP + 2Pi –> 2 lactate + 2ATP + 2H2O

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86
Q

What is another name for the common peroneal nerve?

A

fibular nerve

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87
Q

What nerve supplies the anterior compartment of the leg? A lesion on this nerve will cause what?

A

deep fibular nerve

unable to dorsiflex foot (aka ‘foot drop’)

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88
Q

What nerve is most commonly damaged by a fracture to the fibula and why?

A

common peroneal as it wraps around head of fibula

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89
Q

What germ layer is the CNS formed from?

A

ectoderm

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90
Q

How do you describe the ethical theory of utilitarianism?

A

an act is evaluated solely in terms of its consequences

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91
Q

How do you describe morality?

A

concern with the distinction between good and evil or right and wrong

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92
Q

Describe deontology

A

features of the act themselves determine the worthiness

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93
Q

Describe beneficence

A

providing maximum benefits and balancing the benefits against the risks

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94
Q

Describe virtue ethics

A

focuses on the kind of person who is acting, are they expressing good character?

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95
Q

Which bone has a disorganised structure, is made quickly in development and is temporary? What is it replaced with?

A

woven bone

replaced with lamellar bone

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96
Q

What regulates erythropoiesis?

A

erythropoietin

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97
Q

Where is erythropoietin produced?

A

kidneys

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98
Q

Where is calcitriol produced and what does it do?

A

produced in kidneys

regulates calcium homeostasis

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99
Q

Where is cortisol produced? What stimulates it?

A

adrenal glands, stimulated by stress

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100
Q

What kind of innervation causes bronchoconstriction?

A

parasympathetic

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101
Q

What muscles cause bronchoconstriction?

A

smooth muscle

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102
Q

Which arteries supply the pancreas?

A

superior + inferior pancreatoduodenal arteries form an arcade

also pancreatic branches from splenic artery

103
Q

Which female structure has the same embryological precursor to the scrotum? What is it?

A

labia majora

the genital swellings

104
Q

What does the genital tubercle become?

A

either penis or clitoris

105
Q

Define specificity

A

proportion of people without disease who are currently excluded by screening test

106
Q

What is the visual field defect of a pituitary tumour and why?

A

bitemporal hemianopia

pituitary sits close to optic chiasm where nasal fibres cross, so you get loss of peripheral vision in both eyes

107
Q

Describe the appearance of an osteoblast

A

uninucleate cuboidal-shaped cells

108
Q

What do osteoblasts produce?

A

type 1 collagen

109
Q

In what form do osteoblasts form new bone?

A

in the form of osteoid

110
Q

Where is the sinoatrial node located?

A

wall of right atrium

111
Q

Where is the atrioventricular node?

A

in the atrioventricular septum

112
Q

A lesion on what nerve gives a ‘down and out’ eye appearance? What other symptoms will it give?

A

occulomotor

ptosis, fixed and dilated pupil

113
Q

What is ptosis?

A

drooping of the eyelid

114
Q

Why does an CN III lesion cause ptosis?

A

because CN III innervates levator palpabrae superioris which elevates the eyelid

115
Q

What supplies serratus anterior?

A

long thoracic nerve

116
Q

What muscle is affected in ‘winging of the scapula’?

A

serratus anterior

117
Q

What nerve innervates rhomboid major?

A

dorsal scapula nerve

118
Q

What innervates the trapezius muscle?

A

accessory nerve

119
Q

Why is creatinine used as a marker for filtration rate in the nephron?

A

because it isn’t reabsorbed or secreted anywhere along the nephron

120
Q

What are the two main hormones that control rate of water secretion and where do they act

A

aldosterone- acts on distal tubule

ADH/ vasopressin- acts on collecting duct

121
Q

What can be used to stain iron blue?

A

Perls’ stain

122
Q

What type of inheritance is the concern with consanguinity?

A

autosomal recessive

123
Q

How many codons for one amino acid?

A

each codon specifies only one amino acid

124
Q

What type of structure does collagen IV have?

A

non-fibrillar

125
Q

What is the CNS derived from?

A

ectoderm

126
Q

Which part of the GI tract absorbs the most fluid?

A

jejunum

127
Q

What is freely filtered by the glomerulus?

A

glucose

128
Q

What is the chance that the child of a patient with CF will be an asymptomatic carrier?

A

2 in 3

129
Q

What is the effect of stimulation of the carotid sinus?

A

reduce blood pressure

130
Q

What embryological structure gives rise to the aortic root?

A

truncus arteriorsus

131
Q

Which ion in the monocyte is responsible for the plateau phase of cardiac action potential

A

calcium

132
Q

Which component of an ECG is associated with onset of ventricular systole?

A

QRS complex

133
Q

What is the calculation for mean arterial pressure?

A

diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure

134
Q

What is functional residual capacity?

A

the volume of gas left in the lungs at the end of normal exhalation

135
Q

What is the purpose of coughing?

A

to move material from the vocal cords to the pharynx

136
Q

How are type 1 pneumocytes joined?

A

tight junctions

137
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

maximum volume of air that can be expelled during a forced maximal exhalation

138
Q

What is the main driver to breathing?

A

central carbon dioxide chemoreceptors

139
Q

What provides the greatest stimulus to increase breathing rate?

A

high concentration of brain carbon dioxide

140
Q

Which mechanism is primarily responsible for the process of expiration?

A

elastic recoil of the lung

141
Q

At what point in the capillary is Hb saturated?

A

25% of the way through

142
Q

What types of molecules are secreted by the exocrine pancreas?

A

digestive enzymes, fluids and bicarbonate

143
Q

What is retinol the same as?

A

vitamin A

144
Q

Where is bile reabsorbed?

A

terminal ileum

145
Q

What does the colon do?

A

water and electrolyte reabsorption

146
Q

What causes parietal cells to secrete acid? does this act directly?

A

gastrin, acts directly

147
Q

What does pepsin do?

A

hydrolyses bonds between aromatic amino acids

148
Q

What is an example of a trace metal?

A

manganese

149
Q

What is the sensory input for swallowing?

A

cranial nerves 9 and 10

150
Q

What is the prevention paradox?

A

a large number of people at a small risk may give rise to more cases of disease than the small number at high risk

151
Q

Smoking, being overweight, consuming too much alcohol, poor diet are all examples of what?

A

modifiable risk factors

152
Q

A drug administered late or not at all is what kind of error?

A

omission

153
Q

What is absolute risk?

A

probability of an individual developing a particular disease in a particular time period

154
Q

What is equity?

A

notion of how fair a given allocation of resources is

155
Q

What is inverse care law?

A

access o health care tends not to be proportionate to the actual need for care in the population served

156
Q

What does loss of hair cells at apex of cochlear cause?

A

low frequency hearing loss

157
Q

Which nerve is responsible for referred pain of gallbladder to the right shoulder?

A

phrenic

158
Q

Where do first order neurones for sense of smell synapse?

A

olfactory bulb

159
Q

What supplies external vesicle sphincter?

A

pudendal nerve

160
Q

What type of membrane does the plasma membrane of neurons have?

A

excitable

161
Q

Where are microglial cells found?

A

in meninges, brain parenchyma and vasculature

162
Q

What system do microglial cells belong to?

A

CNS

163
Q

A right-handed person has a blockage of their right middle cerebral artery- which of the following would likely result from the occlusion?

A

paralysis or weakness, and sensory loss on the left hand side of the body

164
Q

Where does awareness of pain happen?

A

prefrontal cortex

165
Q

Where are C-cells located?

A

thyroid gland

166
Q

What is the primary physiological change that results in menopause?

A

reduced production of oestradiol and inhibit B by the ovary

167
Q

Which hormone is produced to support early days of pregnancy?

A

progesterone

168
Q

What does Type B spermatogonium develop into?

A

primary spermatocytes

169
Q

What process transforms spermatids into spermatozoa?

A

spermiogenesis

170
Q

What is the primary event in the switch from storage to voiding?

A

relaxation of urethral sphincter

171
Q

What will persistent hypoxia due in a newborn?

A

cause the ductus arteriosus to remain open

172
Q

What is the general function of aldosterone?

A

reduces sodium and water loss through urine

173
Q

What is a cause of metabolic alkalosis?

A

vomiting

174
Q

What causes oedema?

A

reduced reabsorption of tissue fluid due to low plasma osmotic pressure

175
Q

What effect does aldosterone have on transporter proteins in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

increase in sodium-potassium exchange transporters

176
Q

How is uric acid formed?

A

breakdown of purines

177
Q

What innervates muscle spindle cells?

A

gamma motor neurones

178
Q

What do muscle spindle cells do?

A

detect the amount and rate of change of muscle length

179
Q

What feature allows you to determine you are looking at cardiac muscle?

A

intercalated disc

180
Q

What is the main physiological function of the synovial membrane?

A

secretes important components of synovial fluid

181
Q

What hormone is produced in response to an elevated calcium concentration?

A

calcitonin

182
Q

What does the anterior cruciate ligament do?

A

stops forward movement of tibia

183
Q

Which bone of the foot supports ALL the body weight?

A

talus

184
Q

In what tissue is 25-hydroxycholecalciferol converted to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol?

A

kidney

185
Q

Where is rRNA synthesised?

A

nucleolus

186
Q

Where is design exclusively found?

A

muscle cells

187
Q

What is the notochord derived from?

A

mesoderm

188
Q

During which week of foetal development does the primitive streak usually appear?

A

week 3

189
Q

What is the function of topoisomerase?

A

unwinds strands of DNA by relieving supercoils

190
Q

What type of collagen is bone?

A

type 1

191
Q

What do desmosomes do?

A

join the intermediate filaments of neighbour cells

192
Q

What type of filament is tubulin?

A

microtubule filament

193
Q

What is penetrance?

A

proportion of people with a gene/ genotype who show the expected phenotype

194
Q

What level is the angle of Louis?

A

T4

195
Q

What is found at the angle of Louis?

A

carina of trachea, loop of left recurrent laryngeal nerve

196
Q

Where does the sino-atrial node lie?

A

crista terminalis in right atrium

197
Q

Where does the right recurrent laryngeal nerve loop?

A

right subclavian artery

198
Q

Where does the left recurrent laryngeal nerve loop?

A

around arch of aorta

199
Q

Which type of vessels provides most TPR to the flow of blood?

A

arterioles

200
Q

How do you calculate TPR?

A

TPR= MAP/CO

201
Q

What does the trunks arteriosus form?

A

ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

202
Q

In which of the cardiac layers can purkinje fibres be found?

A

endocardium

203
Q

In which type of cell is a perinuclear hof most easily and frequently seen?

A

plasma cell

204
Q

What is the innervation of the cricothyroid muscle?

A

superior laryngeal

205
Q

What are all intrinsic muscles (except cricothyroid) of the larynx innervated by?

A

branches of the vagus nerve

206
Q

What is respiratory epithelium?

A

pseudo stratified columnar

207
Q

What structure allows transmission and equilibrium of air pressure between the alveoli?

A

pores of kohn

208
Q

What is a generator potential?

A

graded, non-propagated potential changes seen in sensory end organs

209
Q

What antibody mediates allergic reactions?

A

IgE

210
Q

What type of respiratory failure is commonly caused by pulmonary embolism?

A

type 1

211
Q

The trachea is a continuation of what structure?

A

larynx

212
Q

How does the muscle layers of the stomach differ from the rest of the GI tract?

A

rest of GI tract has only circular and longitudinal, stomach has circular, longitudinal and oblique

213
Q

How is glucose absorbed into the cell?

A

through a sodium dependent carrier system

214
Q

What two molecules transport copper around the body?

A

most- ceruloplasmin

some- albumin

215
Q

How many ml of pure alcohol in 1 UK unit?

A

10ml

216
Q

Which vitamins are not stored in the liver?

A

C and B

217
Q

Which cells secrete glucagon?

A

alpha cells

218
Q

Which cells secrete insulin?

A

beta cells

219
Q

What does ghrenlin do?

A

increase hunger (decrease hunger)

220
Q

What substance causes urine being yellow?

A

urobilin

221
Q

What level is the root of the inferior mesenteric artery?

A

L3/L4

222
Q

What level is the root of the coeliac trunk?

A

T12

223
Q

Which blood vessel supplies 70-80% of the blood to the liver?

A

hepatic portal vein

224
Q

What causes vertical diplopia and what is an example of this?

A

trochlear nerve lesion (importer action of superior oblique)

double vision while looking down stairs, for example

225
Q

What is the most likely cause of bilateral hemianopia?

A

pituitary tumour

226
Q

Which secondary vesicle forms the 3rd ventricle?

A

diencephalon

227
Q

What type of fibres are transmitted between the two cerebral hemispheres?

A

commissural fibres

228
Q

What are two examples of commissural fibres?

A

corpus callosum

interthalamic adhesion

229
Q

What composes the lentiform nucleus?

A

putamen and globus pallidus

230
Q

What composes the neostriatum?

A

putamen and substantia nigra

231
Q

What test is used to test the accessory nerve?

A

turning the head against resistance

232
Q

What muscle of the neck is innervated by the accessory nerve?

A

sternocleidomastoid

233
Q

What does the vas deferens pass over at the posterior aspect of the bladder?

A

ureters

234
Q

What proteins do thyroid hormones bind to in the blood?

A

albumin

thyroglobulin

235
Q

Where does fertilisation of the oocyte occur?

A

ampulla of Fallopian tube

236
Q

Where is the only place in the body where you can find a double layer of stratified columnar cells?

A

conductive of eyelid

237
Q

What is the typical range that a menstrual cycle can last?

A

21-35 days

238
Q

In what cells do you find Reinke’s crystalloids?

A

Leydig cells

239
Q

How do you separate leydig cells from other cells?

A

they have Reinke crystalloids

240
Q

Which hormone causes Leydig cells to produce testosterone?

A

LH

241
Q

At which vertebral level does the abdominal aorta bifurcate in the common iliac arteries?

A

L4

242
Q

Where is erythropoietin (EPO) made?

A

interstitial cells of the renal cortex

243
Q

How many cells makes up a morula?

A

16

244
Q

What type of epithelium is found in the vas deferens?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelia with stereo cilia

245
Q

Which hormone stretches the pubic symphysis during birth?

A

relaxin

246
Q

What type of bone is most numerous in the body?

A

long bones

247
Q

What innervates the deltoid muscle and what is its function?

A

axillary nerve

abduction of arm at shoulder

248
Q

Which muscle is the strongest supinator of the forearm when the elbow is flexed 90 degrees?

A

biceps brachii

249
Q

What nerve is damaged in a humeral shaft fracture and what can it cause?

A

radial nerve

causes a wrist drop

250
Q

What is the order of the brachial plexus

A

roots trunks divisions cords branches

read that damn cadaver book

251
Q

What muscles make up the rotator cuff?

A

supraspinatus
infraspinatus
subscapularis
teres minor

252
Q

What nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A

tibial nerve

253
Q

What nerve causes carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

median nerve

254
Q

What structures make up the carpal tunnel?

A

flexor digitorium superficialis tendons (4)
median nerve
flexor pollicis longus tendon
flexor digitorium profundus tendons (4)

Phase 1 Cards (9 decks)

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