Exam III-Communication

Question 1

What is the right age for an ortho consult?

Answer 1

age 7

Question 2

WHY is the right time for an ortho consult no later than age __? The _______ is established by this time

Answer 2

posterior occlusion (6 year molars erupt)

Question 3

Bust out the pen and paper: What are the 6 indications for PHASE 1 treatment?

Answer 3

1. Anterior Crossbites 2.Posterior Crossbites 3.Impacted Teeth 4.Severe skeletal growth problems 5.Habit therapy (digit sucking, tongue thrusts) 6.loss of space due to premature tooth loss

Question 4

________ malocclusion is more prevalent than true Class III malocclusion in 8-12 years olds.

Answer 4

Pseudo-Class III

Question 5

What are the 4 characteristics of a pseudo-class III malocclusion?

Answer 5

1.anterior crossbite 2.forward functional shift of mandible 3.retroclined maxillary incisors 4.proclined, spaced mandibular incisors

Question 6

In a PSEUDO class III maloccusion, youll have a _______ crossbite

Answer 6

FULL ANTERIOR crossbite

Question 7

Correction of Pseudo Class III occlusion may: 1. Increase ________ perimeter

Answer 7

maxillary arch

Question 8

Correction of Pseudo Class III occlusion may: 2.Decrease risk of _______ recession

Answer 8

gingival

Question 9

Correction of Pseudo Class III occlusion may: 3. Decrease risk of ______ wear

Answer 9

incisal

Question 10

A ________ crossbite represents an upper and lower transverse ridge descrepency

Answer 10

UNILATERAL crossbite

Question 11

What develops in a unilateral crossbite as a way to avoid interferences?

Answer 11

a mandibular shift

Question 12

Which type of crossbite is a TRUE basal skeletal descrepancy?

Answer 12

bilateral crossbites

Question 13

In a bilateral crossbite, which is usually the culprit-mandibular enlargement or maxillary constriction?

Answer 13

maxillary constriction

Question 14

**What are the 4 methods of canine exposure? What is the preferred method?

Answer 14

1. Gingivectomy 2.Aplically positioned flap 3.Closed eruption 4.open eruption…closed eruption is preferred

Question 15

Gingivectomy: if the cusp of the canine is coronal to the ____ and there is an adequate amount of _______ gingiva and the tooth is not ________.

Answer 15

MGJ…keritinized…covered in bone

Question 16

Gingivectomy: does the tooth erupt normally or does it need to be bracketed?

Answer 16

normally

Question 17

Which canine exposure is indicated if the crown is APICAL to the MGJ and there is minimal attached gingiva?

Answer 17

Apically positioned flap

Question 18

Does the apically postitioned flap usually bracket the canine?

Answer 18

yes

Question 19

Which canine exposure is indicated when the crown is SIGNIFICANTLY apical to the MGJ??

Answer 19

Closed eruption

Question 20

Which canine exposure technique involves removing bone and adding a button to the canine?

Answer 20

Closed eruption (gingiva sutured back over tooth)

Question 21

***Closed eruption technique is also used frequently for ______ placed canines.

Answer 21

palatally

Question 22

I know I said closed eruption technique is frequently used for palatally placed canines, but what is the #1 technique for this situation?

Answer 22

Open eruption (called open because gingiva is not sutured back over the tooth after canine is exposed)

Question 23

Although both have mixed results, which malocclusal classification has a better outcome if treated skeletally early?

Answer 23

class III (but there is some relapse).

Question 24

When should a child stop using a pacifier?

Answer 24

age 2

Question 25

Localized space loss in mixed dentition is considered ___mm or less

Answer 25

3mm

Question 26

Treatment sequencing: what comes first crowns or ortho?

Answer 26

Ortho-you can then have the lab build to ideal occlusion AND you wont ruin the porcelain by putting a bracket on it

Question 27

What disease should not be active when treating for Ortho?

Answer 27

periodontal

Question 28

What is the first line of defense against white spot lesions? What is the mechanism of action?

Answer 28

1.prevident NaF 1.1%…arrest decalcification and remineralize enamel (does not get DEEP decalcification)

Question 29

Since prevident only reaches superficial decalcification, what is the next line of treatment for white spot lesions?

Answer 29

MI paste (slow release of CPP-ACP)

Question 30

What is the third treatment for white spot lesions that is still being researched? Mechanism?

Answer 30

icon infiltrant…cured resin

Question 31

In the treatment of white spot lesions, which of the three modalities improved the lesions more?

Answer 31

HA TRICK QUESTION: they were all the same effectiveness

Question 32

What are the 5 etiologic factors of TMD? What is the one that ortho can help?

Answer 32

1.occlusion (ortho) 2.trauma 3.emotional stress 4.deep pain input 5. parafunction

Question 33

***Which treatment option should not be used for missing laterals?

Answer 33

maryland bridge

Question 34

What are the two general methods for correcting crowding? What are the 4 things to consider?

Answer 34

expansion of the palate or extraction…1.lower incisor position 2.lip position 3.overjet/overbite 4.gingiva

Question 35

Unfortunately root resorption is a common risk factor… what is the best plan of action when this is noticed?

Answer 35

PAUSE ortho tx for 3 months

Question 36

root resorption is common but it is less than ___mm of resorption..

Answer 36

2.5mm

Question 37

What is considered SEVERE root resorption? Over ___mm..

Answer 37

4mm

Question 38

What are the three most common teeth to undergo root resorption (in order of most frequent to least)

Answer 38

Maxillary incisors > mand incisors > first molars

Question 39

What is a BOLTON discrepancy a discrepancy of?? What does it result in?

Answer 39

its a TOOTH MASS discrepancy…results in residual spaces

Question 40

Which teeth are the common culprit in a bolton discrepancy?

Answer 40

lateral incisors