EXAM III Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most important opsonin? Why?

A

C3b

Has the highest binding affinity

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2
Q

Primary or secondary lymph follicles/nodules contain a germinal center? What does this germinal center consist of?

A

Secondary

B lymphocytes memory B cells, plasma cells, dendritic reticular cells

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3
Q

What is the difference between lymph nodules and lymph nodes?

A

Nodules are apart of lymph nodes and other lymphatic vessels/organs (primary & seconday)

Lymph nodes are enclosed by a capsule

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4
Q

What are the primary and secondary lymphoid organs?

A

Primary - bone marrow and thymus (precursor cells mature into immunocompetent cells programmed to recognize a specific Ag)

Seconday - spleen, tonsils, lymph nodes (trapped Ag stimulate clonal expansions of mature T and B cells)

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5
Q

Distinguish between primary and secondary lymph nodules

A

Primary follicles - virgin B cells and dendritic reticular cells that haven’t been exposed to Ag

Secondary - been exposed to foreign Ag; not present at birth

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6
Q

What are the 3 propria-associated lymphoid tissues?

A

MALT

BALT (bronchial)

GALT

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7
Q

Which T cells does MHC I and MHC II express their Ag peptide fragment to?

A

MHC I = CD8+

MHC II = CD4+ helper

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8
Q

What are CD16/56+ T cells? What are they activated by and what do they release?

A

NK cells

Activated by tumor cells Ags and release cytokines

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9
Q

What are HEVs? Where are they found? Whats it used for

A

High Endothelial Vessels are found in the deep cortex of lymph which allows entry point for circulating differentiated lymphocytes to leave the bone marrow and enter lymph node by easily leaving the venules

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10
Q

Define Hassall’s corpuscle. What do they produce and stimulate?

A

Whorls of highly keratinized medullary epithelial cells in the medulla of the lobules of the thymus

Produce cytokine thymic stromal lymphopoietin

Stimulates thymic dendritic cells needed for single (+) T cell maturation

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11
Q

Describe characteristics of the red pulp of the spleen. Function? What does it surround? Explain Billroth cords

A

Surrounds white pulp

Filters blood

Contains Billroth cords which form red pulp parenchyma = blood cells, plasma cells, APCs

Terminal capillaries open directly into the substance of cords = open circulation

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12
Q

What type of epithelium is the respiratory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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13
Q

What part of the kidney is the most important in generating the countercurrent osmol gradient?

A

Loop of Henle

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14
Q

What type of epithelium is located within the olfactory?

A

Pseudostratified columnar without goblet cells, without basement membrane

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15
Q

What are the specialized cell types of the pulmonary system? (

A

Type I Alveolar/Pneumocytes - covers large surface area

Type II Alveolar/Penumocytes - secrete surfactant, contains lamellar bodies w/ lecithin, phagocytize old surfactant (combine w/ proteins from Clara cells)

Clara Cells - secrete surfactant preventing collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation

Dust Cells

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16
Q

Characteristics of clara cells? Location? Function?

A

Found only in bronchioles

Secrete surfactant preventing collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation

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17
Q

Define Type I alveolar cells/Type I Pneumocytes, where are they located?

A

Less numerous than Type II

Cover largest suface area (more thinner)

Walls of Alveoli

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18
Q

Define Type II Alveolar Cells/Pneumocytes

A

Produce surfactant

Cuboidal/rounded

Stem cells for Type I and Type II

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19
Q

What two cells secrete surfactant?

A

Clara and Type II Alveolar/Pneumocytes

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20
Q

Characteristics of Type II Alveolar cells

A

​Lamellar bodies​ = Distinctive under EM; contain lecithin

Phagocytize old surfactant; more round

Can divide and replace Type I

Secreted from apical domain of cells

Combine w/ proteins from Clara cells

Produce phospholipid-protein surfactant that coats alveolar walls

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21
Q

Define Clara cells, where are they found, which cell do they work with in the pulmonary system?

A

Secrete surfactant & lipoprotein that prevents collapse of terminal bronchioles during exhalation

Bronchioles

Identified by apical surface that bulges into lumen of airway

Abundant SER; greater # with less ciliated columnar cells

Work with Type II Pneumocytes

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22
Q

What are dust cells and what are their roles? Where are they located?

A

Macrophages; derived from monocytes

Phagocytize pollutants, bacteria, surfactant

Walls of alveoli

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23
Q

Where are intercalated cells found? What is their function in terms of ion concentration and its relationship with angiotensin-aldosterone pathway?

A

Late DCT and Collecting Tubule

Reabsorb K+ during depletion, secrete H+ or Bicarbonate

Affected by angiotensin (increases Na+ reabsorption)

24
Q

What are the types of T cells involved during T cell differentiation?

A

Double (-) T cells - lack cell surface molecules, enter cortex from blood vessels, proliferate in subscapular area

Double (+) T cells - move to outer cortex, express CD4 & CD8 & TCR, interact w/ epithelial cells w/ MHC I & II for clonal selection,

Single (+) T cells - move to inner cortex, express TCR and EITHER CD4 or CD8

Medulla = clonal deletion completed (copies of T cells)

25
Q

List the layers of the epidermis from deep to outermost

Thick Skin

vs

Thin Skin

A

Thick: Remember, Please Bring Some Good Chapstick

Thin: Remember, Please Bring Some Good Lip Chap

Stratum basale/germinativum

Stratum spinosum

Stratum granulosum

Stratum lucidum - absent in thin skin

Stratum corneum

26
Q

What are the steps necessary during differentiation of T cells? (4)

A

Double negative

Double positive

Single positive

Clonal deletion

27
Q

What are the characteristics of double negative T cells? Where are they located?

A

Lack cell surface molecules (in mature T cells)

Proliferate in subcapsular area (outside cortex)

Enter cortex from blood vessels

28
Q

What are the characteristics of double positive T cells and what do they express?

A

Express both CD4 & CD8 coreceptors and TCR receptors

Are deeper in cortex

Confronted with epithelial cells w/ cell surface MHC classes I and II for clonal selection

29
Q

What do single positive T cells express?

A

Either CD4 or CD8 and TCR receptors

Mature T cells

30
Q

Where does clonal deletion of T cells occur?

A

Medulla

31
Q

What occurs in the white pulp of the spleen?

A

Clonal expansion of Ag-stimulated lymphocytes

32
Q

What is the function of the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

Forms sinusoidal interface between red pulp and white pulp

The site of initial Ag exposure to lymphocytes

33
Q

What are the 4 arteries of the spleen?

A

Splenic artery - enters hilus

Trabecular artery - branches off

Central artery - where adventitia loosens and becomes mesh-like reticulum infiltrated with lymphocytes. A penicillus is formed when capillaries enter red pulp

Penicullar arterioles –> Terminal Capillaries

Veins: Venous Sinuses, Pulp Vein, Trabecular Vein, Splenic veins, Hilus

34
Q

What are Meissner’s Corpuscle? What is their function?

A

(Tactile corpuscle)

Type of mechanoreceptor

Type of nerve ending in the skin responsible for sensitivity to light touch

35
Q

What are Pacini Corpuscles

A

One of the 4 major types of mechanoreceptors

Nerve endings in skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure

36
Q

Where are intercalated cells found? What is their function in terms of ion concentration and its relationship with angiotensin-aldosterone pathway?

A

Late Distal Tubule and Medullary CT

Reabsorb K+

Secrete H+ or bicarbonate

Affected by Angiotensin II

37
Q

Where are principal cells found? What is their function in terms of ion concentration and its relationship with angiotensin-aldosterone pathway?

A

Late DCT and Collecting Duct

Reabsorb Na+ and Water

Secrete K+

Affected by Aldosterone

38
Q

Define space of Disse and describe its location

A

Separates hepatic cells from endothelial cells (between hepatocytes and sinusoids; separates basolateral domain of the hepatocytes from blood circulating in the hepatic sinusoid

Active in transfer between blood and parenchyma

39
Q

Function of sinusoids in the liver; explain both hepatic lobules

A

Canal area that feeds into the central venule which is within the Classic lobule

Portal triads are at an angle (hepatic artery, portal vein, bile duct)

Portal lobules - contain 3 central venules of adjacent lobules that form a triangle

40
Q

For CCK hormone, state the site of secretion, targets, and effects

A

Duodenum (upper intestinal mucosa) in response to gastric contents

Targets pyloric sphinctor to slow stomach emptying

Stimulates bile release from gall bladder

Stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzymes

Competitive inhibitor of gastrins

41
Q

For gastrin hormone, state the site of secretion, targets, and effects

A

Duodenum

Targets Pancreas

Insulin release by pancreatic beta cells

Bicarbonate secretion by pancreas

42
Q

For secretin hormone, state the site of secretion, targets, and effects

A

Pyloric-antral portion of stomach

Targets stomach

Stimulates HCl production by gastric parietal cells

gastric motility

Insulin release by pancreatic beta cells

43
Q

Which taste bud is only found on along the sulcus terminalis?

Circumvallate papillae

Filiform papillae

Foliate papillae

Fungiform papillae

A

Circumvallate papillae; projections along sulcus terminalis

Along the lateral walls

44
Q

Which taste bud is found on the oral surface of epithelium of the tongue?

Circumvallate papillae

Filiform papillae

Foliate papillae

Fungiform papillae

A

Fungiform papillae

mushroom appearance

45
Q

What are the 4 layers of the digestive gut tube?

A

Mucosa

Submucosa

Muscularis externa

Serosa & Adventitia

46
Q

Type of epithelium in the mucosal layer of the digestive gut tube? What are the 2 layers?

A

Stratified squamous transitioning to simple columnar

Lamina propria - loose areolar CT

Muscularis mucosa - 1-3 layers of smooth muscle

47
Q

Type of epithelium in submucosa of the digestive tube? Is it vascularized? What special item is within it

A

Dense, irregular CT

Vascularized

Meissner’s plexus (nerve/submucosa plexus)

48
Q

Type of epithelium in the muscularis externa layer of the digestive tube? What are the 2 layers and what special item does it hold

A

Inner circular layer of SM (regulates lumen size)

Outer longitudinal layer (regulates rhythmic movement of GI tract)

Myenteric/Auerbach’s nerve plexus - between the two muscle layers

49
Q

What type of epithelium or CT is within the Serosa and Adventitia of the digestive gut tube?

A

Serosa

Dense, irregular CT; forms visceral peritoneum, covers intraperitoneal portions of abdominal organs

Adventitia

Dense, irregular CT with adipose tissue

Covers retroperitoneal portions of digestive system

50
Q

Where does carbohydrate digestion begin?

A

Mouth

via amylase

51
Q

Which of the following best describes the olfactory mucosa?

Stratified columnar epithelium with goblet cells and a distinct basement membrane

Simple ciliated columnar epi with goblet cells and a distinct basement membrane

Stratified, non-keratinized epi lacking goblet cells with thick basement membrane

Pseudostratified columnar epi lacking goblet cells w/ no distinct basement membrane

A

Pseudostratified columnar epi lacking goblet cells with no distinct basement membrane

52
Q

Which of the following is NOT a necessary part of the respiratory membrane?

Pneumocyte I

Basal lamina of pneumocyte I

Dust cells

Basal lamina of endothelial cell

Endothelial cell

A

Dust cells

53
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of an arteriole?

Thick tunica adventitia and large lumen

Thick tunica media in relation to size of lumen

Thin tunica media and relatively large lumen

Large blood-filled lumen

Large amounts of elastic fibers in the tunica media

A

Thick tunica media in relation to size of lumen

54
Q

Where in the body of a normal, healthy individual would you expect most erythrophagocytosis to be occurring?

Marginal zone of spleen

Hematopoietic cord in bone marrow

Cord of Billroth in spleen

Paratrabecular sinus in lymph node

A

Cord of Billroth in spleen

55
Q

Which of the following sequences best describes the flow of red blood cells through the spleen?

Trabecular arteries, central arteries, splenic arteries, penicullus, venous sinuses

Splenic artery, central arteries, trabecular arteries, venous sinuses, penicillus

Splenic artery, central arteries, trabecular arteries, venous sinuses, penicillus

Trabecular arteries, splenic arteries, central arteries, penicullus, venous sinuses

Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicullus, venous sinuses

A

Splenic artery, trabecular arteries, central arteries, penicillus, venous sinuses

56
Q

The simple cuboidal epithelium of this portion of the kidney tubule is composed of cells in the form of truncated pyramids which are characterized by basal striations that mark the location of mitochondria

PCT

Descending thin segment of LOH

Ascending thick segment of LOH

DCT

Collecting Duct

A

PCT

57
Q

Renin is secreted by which of the following?

Liver

Macula densa cells

Atrial cells of the heart

Mesangial cells

Juxtaglomerular cells

A

Juxtaglomerular cells