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KCUMB Histology > EXAM II Material > Flashcards

EXAM II Material Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fibrocartilage?

Type II Collagen

Not surrounded by perichondrium

Found in intervertebral discs

Increased collagen in the matrix

Neither A nor B are characteristic of fibrocartilage

A

Type II Collagen

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2
Q

Which of the following is not part of a Haversian system?

Periosteum

Lacunae

Lamellae

Volkmann canals

Canalciuli

A

Periosteum

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3
Q

Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoblasts to secrete/express which of the following?

Osteoprotegerin

M-CSF

RANKL

All the above

Only B and C

A

Only B and C

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4
Q

Hyaline Characteristics & Locations

A
  • Most common; avascular
  • Isogenous groups
  • External Auditory meatus, Larynx, Trachial/Bronchial cartilages, Fetal long bones, articular ends of bones
  • Type II Collagen
  • Appositional & Interstitial growth
  • Translucent- bluish white
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5
Q

Elastic Cartilage Characteristics & Locations

A
  • Single Chondrocytes
  • Auricle/Pinna of ear, Epiglottis
  • Type II & Elastic fibers
  • Opaque and flexible
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6
Q

Fibrocartilage Characteristics & Locations

A
  • Singly sparse chondrocytes
  • LACKS perichondrium
  • Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, some tendon/ligament insertions
  • Type I Collagen
  • opaque
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7
Q

Describe Cartilage in terms of:

Cells (2)

ECM

Matrix

& other characteristics

A
  • Chondroblasts = cartilage-forming (matrix), Chondrocytes = cartilage-maintaining (both in lacunae)
  • ECM = Collagen fibers, Amorphous ground substance (gel-like)
  • Matrix - Collagen type II, GAGs (hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparin sulfate)
  • Avascular - nutrients diffuse thru matrix, slow to heal
  • Territorial and Inter-territorial matrix
  • Perichondrium - inner fibrous layer, outer chondrogenic layer
  • Isogenous groups - chondrocytes
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8
Q

What is meant by bone tissue being based on a canalicular system?

A

Bone matrix is penetrated by various channels with various characteristics

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9
Q

Bone Tissue Characteristics

Matrix components?

Cell types? Type of growth?

A
  • Appositional growth - hyaline cartilage model
  • Continuously resorbed, reconstructed, remodeled
  • Formed by osteoblasts –> osteocytes
  • Matrix w/ organic and inorganic components
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10
Q

What is the organic & inorganic component of bone referred to as?

A

Organic - Osteoid (soft component)

Inorganic - hydroxyapatite (35-65%)

O = O

H = I

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11
Q

Characteristics of woven bone

A
  • Development & bone repair
  • also called cancellous/trabecular
    *
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12
Q

Characteristics of Compact bone

A
  • Found in adults - lamellar
  • Components:
    • Haversian canal - vessels w/ nerves
    • Lacunae - osteocytes
    • Lamellae - H.C. layers w/ lacuna in b/w
    • Caniculus - connects lacunae to vessels
    • Volksman Canal - connects HC
    • Fibrous periosteum & Osteogenic periosteum
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13
Q

What are bones macroscopic components?

A

Endosteum - lines marrow cavity

Periosteum - surrounds bone

Marrow/Medullary cavity - runs down inner shaft

Sharply a fibers - connects periosteum to bone

E.PMS Erin (has) PMS

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14
Q

Characteristics of Spongy/Trabecular Bone

A

Contain bony spicules that intertwine to form trabeculae surrounding bone marrow spaces in long and flat bones

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15
Q

What are osteoblasts characterized by, derived from, give rise to, and the major protein products?

A

Derived from osteoprogenitor cells

Give rise to osteocytes

Characterized by Alkaline phosphatase and Vit D3

Major protein - Type I collagen, Noncollagenous proteins:

Osteocalcin, osteonectin, osteopontin, osteoprotegerin, RANKL

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16
Q

Function of Vitamin D3 in Osteoblast cells?

A

Regulates the expression of osteocalcin

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17
Q

Where is Alkaline phosphatase NOT found?

A

Osteocytes

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18
Q

Unique characteristic of Osteocalcin?

A

Has a high binding affinity for hydroxyapatite which inhibits osteoclast maturation

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19
Q

How are osteoclasts able to reabsorb bone matrix?

A

HI KO

inorganic = H+

K+ = secreted for organic

Via Osteoclasts

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20
Q

Define Joint

A

Where two bones come together

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21
Q

What are the 3 types of joints

A

Cartilage Joint

Synovial Joint

Fibrous Joint

Joints allow you to Cum, Swallow & Fuc

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22
Q

What are the types of Cartilaginous Joints?

A

S.F.S.H.

SoFarSonicHedgehog

Symphysis - joined by fibrocartilage

intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis

Synchondrosis - joined by hyaline cartilage

Epiphyseal plates, 1st sternocoastal joint

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23
Q

What are cartilaginous joints joined by?

A

Hyaline or Fibrocartilage

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24
Q

What are Fibrous Joints joined by?

A

Collagenous and/or Elastic Fibrous CT

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25
Q

What are the types of Fibrous Joints?

“Brain-dosis”

A

Suture

Joints b/w skull cap

Syndesmosis

b/w tibia and fibula

Gomphosis

teeth in alveoli

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26
Q

Characteristics of Synovial Joints

A

Moveable joints w/ connective capsule surrounding a fluid-filled joint space

3 Types: Monaxial Joint movement via 1 plane

Hinge and pivot joints

Biaxial Joint (condyloid joints; atlantooccipital joint)

Triaxial Joint 3 planes (ball & socket) Glenohumeral

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27
Q

Properties of Erythrocytes

A

Major Contents: lipids, ATP, Carbonic anhydrase, Hb

Major Peripheral Proteins: Spectrin, Actin, Ankyrin (binds spectrin & transmembrane protein), Protein 4.1, Adducin, Anion Transporter Channel

No organelles

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28
Q

Neutrophil Characteristics

A

PMNs; 3-5 lobes

Active phagocytes

Both small (specific; ) and large granules (less numerous azurophilic granules; primary);

Small Radicals Love Lying to Please

SMALL secrete free radicals, lysozyme, lactoferrin, proteases

LARGE secrete elastase, defenSins, myeloperoxidase

smallest blood cell

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29
Q

Basophil Characteristics

A

Bilobed Nucleus

Large, membrane bound basophilic granules = mask the membrane

Heparin = anticoagulant

Kallikrein = attracts eosinophils

Leukotrienes = vascular permeability

Serotonin

He Kills (his) Little Sisters

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30
Q

Eosinophil Characteristics

A

Bilobed Nucleus

Specific granules

MNP = Major basic protein = parasite membranes, histamine release

Peroxidase = neutralizes heparin & anti-parasitic

Men Can’t Perform

Allergic Rxns & Parasites

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31
Q

Lymphocyte Characteristics

A

Large, round Nucleus - slightly indented

B and T Lymphocytes (immune response)

Contain small, medium, and large (largest blood cell)

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32
Q

Monocyte Characteristics

A

Kidney Nucleus

LARGEST

Precursor of MO and Osteoclasts

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33
Q

Platelets Characteristics

A

Derived from megakaryocytes

Enhance aggregation, Promote clot formation, retraction (via prostacyclin from endothelial cell) and dissolution

Platelet plug (repair vessel damage), Adhesion via integrins

Release Thromboxane

2um; 200,000-400,000/uL of blood

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34
Q

3 Steps of extravasation of inflammatory cells into connective tissue:

A
  1. Leukocyte Extravasation
  2. Selectin phase
  3. Integrin phase
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35
Q

Basic steps of extravasation, what is released and what ICAMs are involved

A

Cytokines (via mast cells, platelets, damaged tissue cells) activate

Endothelial cells releases NO, Leukocytes move toward endothelial vessel wall

Leukocyte membranes w/ bodies bind to endothelial ligand P-selectin causing leukocyte rolling

Activated integrin receptors on leuks bind to ICAM-1 & ICAM-2 = Transendothelial migration of leuks

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36
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis basic concepts

What antigen is involved?

A

Ag D

Mom is Rh-, baby is Rh+

Mother makes IgM during 1st baby = cannot cross placenta

Second baby = mother has IgG = crosses placenta

Rh Incompatibility

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37
Q

Totipotent

Pluripotent

Multipotent

A
  1. Give rise to All cells including embryonic & XE tissues
  2. Give rise to Adult tissue and embryo NO XE
  3. Give rise to Adult only - a given lineage
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38
Q

What are the 4 features of bone marrow histology?

A

Some Souls Prefer Hate

Sinusoids - connect arterial and venous vessels, access for mature blood cells to move into circulation

Stroma - background/framework for growth/dev. of blood cells (fibroblasts, adipose cells, ect.) Forms and secretes hematopoietic GFs

Parenchyma - various lineages of hematopoietic cells in diff stages of differentiation

Hematopoietic Cords - bands of parenchyma & stroma lying b/w sinusoids

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39
Q

What are the 3 classes of Hematopoietic GFs?

A

Colongy-stimulating factors

Erythropoietin and Thrombopoietin

Cytokines (interleukins)

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40
Q

Unique Cardiac Muscle Characteristics

A

Intercalated Discs (gap junctions)

Mononucleated

Central Nuclei

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41
Q

Smooth Muscle Characteristics

A

Mononucleated

No sarcomere arragement

Gap junctions

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42
Q

Skeletal Muscle Characteristics

A

Striated, Peripheral Nuclei

Multinucleated = syncytium

Sarcomere arrangement, “all-or-none”

Each fiber innervated via single motor axon

3 Myofiber Types - I, IIA, IIB

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43
Q

What are the characteristics of Myofiber Type I?

A

Slow, continuous contractions = high mito

NADH rich = high Oxidative Phosph = Strong staining for oxidative enzymes (darkest)

Dark/Red fibers

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44
Q

Characteristics of Myofiber Type IIA?

A

Intermediate staining

Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Faster than Type I

Fatigue Resistance

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45
Q

Characteristics of Myofiber Type IIB?

A

Fastest = therefore fatigue faster

Stain Light for oxidative enzymes

Anearobic respiration for ATP

Light/White fibers

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46
Q

Components of the troponin-tropomyosin-actin complex

(thick and thin filament)

A

Thick Filament: Myosin - 2 heads = Actin, ATP, & light chain binding sites, 2 tails = one maintains stability, other stabilizes head

Thin Filament: G actin

Troponin: T.I.C.

T = binds tropomyosin

I = inhibits actin/myosin binding

C = binds Ca2+

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47
Q

Tropomyosin

A

2 alpha-helical polypeptides twisted around one another and sits in b/w two actin filaments

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48
Q

Location and function of T tubules

A

Between A and I bands

Electrochemical Coupling occurs

AP along sarcolemma and contraction

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49
Q

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum location and function

A

Contain Cisternae - sequester Ca2+ ions

Next to T-tubules

Equivalent to RER

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50
Q

Function of basal lamina in skeletal muscle

A

Connects muscle fibers and helps distribute the force of contraction

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51
Q

Characteristics of Satellite Cells

A

Attach to myotubes before basal lamina is laid down

Generally quiescent

Function as stem cells

Become mitotic in times of stress -> HGF binds C-Met receptor

Gives rise to myogenic precursor cells - replaces damaged cells (differentiates into muscle fibers)

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52
Q

Function of the Neuromuscular Spindle

A

sensory receptors within the belly of a muscle that primarily detect changes in the length of this muscle. They convey length information to the central nervous system via sensory neurons.

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53
Q

Regions of the Neuromuscular spindle

A

Sensory Region

Contractile Region

Alpha motor neurons = extrafusal fibers

Gamma motor neurons = intrafusal fibers

Primary and Secondary afferent fibers

GI BILL= gamma = intrafusial

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54
Q

What are the components of intercalated discs in cardiac muscle? (3)

A

Gap Junctions - along longitudinal section

Macula Adherins (desmosomes) - adhere intermediate filaments/desmin to adjacent muscle cells (transverse component)

Fascia Aderendentes - anchors actin filaments of sarcomeres (transverse component)

LGBT

Longitudinal = gap junction

Transverse = Adherins & Aderendentes

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55
Q

What is the source and function of ANP?

A

Source: cardiac muscle cells in atria

Function: Regulate fluid electrolyte balance

Relax vascular smooth muscle (reducing blood volume and pressure) = release stimulated via atrial stretch = cleavage of prohormone into active product

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56
Q

Describe function and structure of caveolae (and lipid rafts)

A

Caveolin bind cholesterol in lipid rafts (cell membrane depressions involved in fluid and electrolye transport where pinocytotic vesicles form) and initiates formation of caveolae which are vesicles that detach and participate in vesicular trafficking (which transport Ca2+ from extracellular fluids to SR of smooth muscle)

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57
Q

Layers of the perichondrium?

A

Fibrous perichondrium - source of fibroblasts, outermost

Chondrogenic perichondrium - chondroblasts and oteoprogenitor cells, innermost layer

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58
Q

What are the cells of cartilage and where are they located?

A

Located in lacunae

Chondroblasts - cartilage-forming cells

Chondrocytes - cartilage maintaining

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59
Q

What does the ECM of cartilage contain?

A

Amorphous ground substance

Type II Collagen (besides Fibrocartilage = Type I)

Hyaluronic acid

GAGs - chondroitin sulfate, keratan sulfate, heparin sulfate

Territorial and Inter-territorial matrix

Isogenous groups

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60
Q

How are chondrocytes arranged in elastic cartilage, fibrocartilage and hyaline cartilage?

A

Elastic = Singly

Fibrocartilage = Sparsly

Hyaline = Many Isogenous groups

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61
Q

What is unique about Fibrocartilage?

A

Contains Type I Collagen rather than Type II

is NOT surrounded by perichondrium

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62
Q

What is the primary regulator for bone turnover? What do low and high amounts signify?

A

PTH

[high] - PTH binds osteoblast

Osteoblast stimulated to synthesize M-CSF & RANKL

M-CSF binds to M-CSFr on monocyte which diff into MO which expresses RANK which binds RANKL which couples together osteoblast & MO = immature osteoclast

[low] - bone formation = Osteoblast syn. Osteoprotegerin which blocks RANKL (no binding of RANK) = osteoblast activity

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63
Q

What occurs during high [PTH] and low [PTH]?

A

High = high osteoclast activity = Bone Breakdown/killing = Osteoblast releases osteoclast-differentiation factors (eroded bone & fibrosis = osteitis fibrosis)

Low = high osteoblast activity = Bone Formation

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64
Q

What are the major protein products of osteoblasts?

A

Type I Collagen

Osteocalcin

Osteonectin

Osteopontin

Osteoprotegerin

RANKL

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65
Q

Steps in intramembranous bone development

A

Mesenchymal Aggregation (Wnt, Shh, FGF, TGF-beta)

Osteoblasts

Secrete osteoid, trapped blasts = Blastema

Trapped blasts - Osteocytes = Syncytium

Mineralization via Ca2+ ions

Epithelial covering secreting osteoid: Type I + Non-collagen proteins

Primary ossification center = Trabecula, fusion = spongy bone

Woven Bone w/ crazy collagen fibers

Aligned fibers = Lamellar = encircle vessels = Haversian System

Hypertrophic Chondrocytes = Endothelial GF

Blood vessels break thru perich. bringing in Osteoprogenitor cells, apoptosis of hypertrophic cartilage cells = calcified matrix strands

Above used by blasts to deposit Osteoid then calcified

Appositional growth occurring; perichondrium = periosteum

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66
Q

What are the Zones in the growth plate/epiphyseal plate?

A

Zone of Proliferation

zone of hyper trophy

zone of calcification

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67
Q

FAG Proteins

Fibrinogen

Albumin

Globulin

A

Fibrinogen - Clotting, target for thrombin made in liver

Albumin - major protein component in blood, made in liver

Globulin - Immunoglobulin

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68
Q

What are the hematopoietic GFs? (3)

A

Colony Stimulating Factors

Erythropoietin and Thrombopoietin

Cytokines

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69
Q

Characteristics of a stem cell niche

A

Area of a tissue that provides a specific microenvironment, in which stem cells are present in an undifferentiated and self-renewable state. Cells of the stem-cell niche interact with the stem cells to maintain them or promote their differentiation.

70
Q

Stroma of Bone Marrow

A

The framework/background for growth/development of blood cells

Fibroblasts, adipose tissue, endothelial cells

Synthesizes and secretes Hematopoietic GFs

Stroma = Secretes

71
Q

Parenchyma of Bone Marrow

A

Various lineages of hematopoietic cells in different stages of differentiation

Para = different…differentiation

72
Q

Sinusoids in Bone Marrow

A

Endothelial-lined spaces that connect arterial and venous vessels

Provides access for mature blood cells to move into circulation

73
Q

Hematopoietic cords of Bone Marrow

A

Bands of parenchyma and stroma lying b/w sinusoids

74
Q

What are the components of bone marrow histology? SHSP

A

Sinusoids

Hematopoietic cords

Stroma

Parenchyma

75
Q

What are the 3 major CFUs?

A

All derived from Myeloid SCs = Pluripotent

Colony Stimulating Factors - G-CSF, M-CSF, SFC (stem cell factor)

Erythropoietin and Thrombopoietin

Cytokines

76
Q

What do Erythroid CFUs give rise to? Cellular lineage

A

Proerythroblast via Erythropoietin

“ProBPOREos”

Oreos are Pro for high BP

Proerythroblast - mitotic

Basophilic erythroblast - mitotic, blue

Polychromatophilic - mitotic

Orthochromatic

Reticulocytes - circulation (blue; RER remnants, nucleus lost)

Erythrocyte - circulation

77
Q

What do Megakaryocyte CFUs give rise to?

A

Megakaryocytoblast via Thrombopoietin

MMP - mighty muthafuckn problems

Megakaryocytoblast

Megakaryocyte (big nucleus) - remain in stroma bc too large

Platelet - circulation

78
Q

What do Basophilic and Eosinophil CFUs give rise to? Lineage?

A

Myeloblast; Bands will make her dance

MProMMetaBandE/B

Mr. Pro Mighty Meta Band E/B

Myeloblast - mitotic

Promyelocyte - mitotic

Myelocyte - mitotic

Metamyelocyte

Band Cell - Circulation

Eosinophil/Basophil

79
Q

Colony CFUs clinical relevance

A

After patients undergo radiation, may develop neutropenia (low neutrophils), GM-CSF/G-CSFs used during radiation/chemo therapy

80
Q

Erythropoietin Clinical relevance

A

Erythropoietin is released in polycythemia (high RBC); sometimes due to smoking or tetralogy of fallot - HARMFUL

Produced in kidney during hypoxia = decrease oxygen saturation

81
Q

Thrombopoietin Clinical Usage

82
Q

Cytokines Clinical Use

A

Primarily Interleukins

Signaling pathways

Mediate cellular quiescence, apoptosis, proliferation, differentiation

83
Q

What do Eosinophil CFUs give rise to? Lineage?

A

Myeloblast

MPMetaBE

Bands Will make her dance

84
Q

Lineage of Granulocyte-CFU

SAME AS BASOPHIL AND ESINOPHIL

A

MProMMetaBandN

Myeloblast - mitotic, no granules

Promyelocyte - mitotic, primary granules, red/magenta

Myelocyte - mitotic, primary & specific granules

Metamyelocyte

Band cell - circulation

Neutrophil - circulation

85
Q

What do Granulocyte-Macrophage CFUs give rise to? Lineage?

A

Neutrophils via G-CSF

and

Monoblasts via M-CSF

86
Q

Hierarchichal Structure of skeletal muscle

A

Muscle Fasicle surrounded by Epimysium (bundle of myofibers)

Perimysium in between Fasicles (fibroblasts & Type I)

MyoFiber w/ Sarcolemma surrouned by Endomysium (bundle of myofibrils) Basal Lamina

Myofibril with sarcomeres

87
Q

Thick Filament components

A

Myosin; dimeric protein w/ two heads and two tails

Myosin Head - actin, ATP, light chain binding region

Light chain stabilizes myosin head

Myosin Tail - 2 tails; maintains stability of myosin II

88
Q

Which components of the sarcomere move during contraction?

A

HI!!!

A band - myosin; thick

I band - actin thin filaments

89
Q

Thin Filament Components

A

G Actin

2 polymers in alpha helix w/ (+) end connected to Zdisc and (-) end towards H band

Troponin

Tropomyosin

90
Q

Alpha Actinin

A

Attaches thin filaments to Z line

91
Q

Alpha-beta Crystallin

A

Heat shock protein that protects desmin from mechanical stress

92
Q

Desmin Intermediate Filaments

A

Surrounds Z-line and extends into each sarcomere

Links myofibrils laterally and to sarcolemma

93
Q

Dystrophin

A

Links alpha-actinin/desmin complex to cytoplasmic side of sarcolemma

Anchors actin to sarcolemme

Reinforces sarcolemma during muscle contractions

94
Q

Dystroglycan complex

A

Links dystrophin (ICM) to laminin-2 (ECM)

95
Q

Nebulin

A

Act right for the Nubian Queen

Template to regulate length of actin filament

Extends from Z disk to end of actin filament

96
Q

Plectin

A

Binds desmin filaments

97
Q

Titin

A

Connects ends of thick filaments to Z line

Extends from Z disk to H band

Provides myosin w/ elasticity, large fibrous protein

98
Q

Function & Characteristics of Satellite cells

A

Attach to myotubes before basal lamina is laid down

Generally quiescent

Function as stem cells

Become mitotic in times of stress

C-Met receptor binds HGF

Gives rise to myogenic precursor cells which replace damaged muscle by proliferating, fusing, and differentiation into skeletal muscle fibers

99
Q

What is a common unique characterstics of both cardiac and smooth muscle cells?

A

Both contain gap junctions

and are mononucleated

100
Q

Common characterstic between skeletal and cardiac muscle cells

A

Sarcomere arrangement

101
Q

Explain the contractile apparatus of smooth muscle, what are the differences b/w that and skeletal?

A

Plasma membrane dense bodies and cytoplasmic dense bodies bind actin-myosin bundles which zig-zig thru cell

Contain Dense bodies rather than Z lines which connect actin filaments together and to cell membrane - alpha actinin

Caveolae and lipid rafts contain the pinocytic vesicles that detach and participate in vesicular traffiking

102
Q

What type of cells are within the ventricular/epemdyma zone and intermediate zone? What do they contain?

A

Pseudostratified epithelium

Ventricular Zone - ventricular cells

Intermediate zone - apoptosis of excess neurons

103
Q

What does the cortical plate contain (mantle layer)?

A

Postmitotic neurons

Future gray matter; cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons

104
Q

What does the marginal layer contain?

A

Axons

Future white matter; myelinated axons

105
Q

What is the origin of neuroblasts and what do they give rise to?

A

Derived from Neuroepithelial cells from embryonic neuroectoderm

Give rise to neurons of the CNS (brain and spinal cord)

106
Q

Where are glial cells derived from?

A

Cortical plate

107
Q

Cell Body Characteristics of a motor neuron

A

Nucleus

Nissl bodies w/ RER & free ribosomes

Mitochondria

Microtubules & Neurofilaments

Lipofucsin granules that accumulate w/ age (old neurons)

ligand gated channels and local potentials

108
Q

Dendrite Characteristics

A

Conduct impulses (local potentials)

Nissle substance

Mitochondria

No Golgi body

Dendritic spines w/ increase SA for contact

Ligand gated channels and local potentials

109
Q

2 major differences of neuron cell bodies and dendrites

A

Cell body contains the nucleus

Cell body has Golgi structures

110
Q

Axon Hillock and Axon Characteristics

A

Hillock - site for origin of axon

NO NISSL SUBSTANCE

AP generation

Axon - v.g. channels

Mitochondria and microtubules

Lacks RER, ribosomes, Golgi

Terminates in branching telodendrites which contain synaptic vesicles & related proteins and form presynaptic membranes

111
Q

What are the three ways to classify motor neurons?

A

Axon length

Function

Number of Processes

112
Q

How do you classify neurons according to function?

A

Sensory - afferent

Interneuron - processes information within CNS between sensory and motor

Motor - efferet, somatic and autonomic; skeletal muscles, cardiac and smooth muscles (sym. and parasymp.)

113
Q

How do you classify neurons according to the numbers of processes? 3

A

Bipolar - single axon extends from either side of cell body giving off multiple dendrites Special Sensory = eye, olfactory, auditory, vestibular

Multipolar - single axon giving off multpile dendrites

Pseudounipolar - single axon extends from cell body and shortly bifurcates into a central and peripheral process w/ dendrites in periphery

Sensory ganglia of cranial & spinal nerves

114
Q

How do you classify neurons according to axon length?

A

Golgi Type I - long axons that leave grey matter of which they part

Golgi Type II - neurons with short axons which ramify thru grey matter

115
Q

Define Nerve

A

Bundle of axons in the PNS

116
Q

Define Ganglion

A

Cell body and dendrite aggregates in the PNS

117
Q

Define tract

A

Bundle of axons in the CNS

118
Q

Define nucleus (neuronal)

A

Cell body and dendrite aggregates in the CNS

119
Q

List the layers of a neuron

A

Epineurium - covers entire nerve (supplied by blood and lymphatic vessels) Type I & fibroblasts

Perineurium - covers bundles of axons/fasiscles within nerve Dense CT

Endoneurium - surrounds individual fascicles and Schwann cells Thin layer of reticular CT, Type III (receptors and ion channels)

120
Q

Define Anterograde and what protein does it utilize?

A

Movement from cell body toward distal end of axon

Kinesin

Slow; 1-6mm/day SCa; microtubules, neurofilaments (slow component a) SCb (enzymes, actin, clathrin)

Intermediate; 50-100mm/day (mito.)

Fast; 400mm/day (NTs, Synaptic vesicles)

121
Q

Define Retrograde Movement, what protein does it involve and what does it carry?

A

Movement from Axon toward the cell body

Dynein

Endocytosed materials and recycled proteins

100-300mm/day

122
Q

List the Glial Cells (5)

A

Astrocytes

Ependymal

Microglia

Oligodendrites

Schwann cells

123
Q

Astrocytes; origin, location, function, major characteristics

A

CNS

Functions: structural support, blood brain barrier = exchange of nutrients & metabolites b/w blood and neurons (pediceles; feet on pia mater and blood vessels)

Potassium sink, uptake/metabolism of NTs

Fibrous Astrocyte - white matter

Protoplasmic Astrocyte - grey matter

124
Q

What are the components of the blood brain barrier?

A

Continous basal lamina of endothelial capillaries

End feet of astrocytes

Tight Junctions

125
Q

Microglia; origin, location, function, major characteristics

A

Macrophages

Derived from BM as MO precursors

Phagocytic in PNS, Hyperactivated = neurodegenerative diseases

126
Q

Schwann Cells; origin, location, function, major characteristics

A

PNS

Can also surround unmyelinated axons

One cell myelinates a single axon at a time

127
Q

Oligodendrites; origin, location, function, major characteristics

A

CNS

Satellite cells in grey matter

Myelinates serveral axons at a time in the CNS

128
Q

Ependymal Cells; origin, location, function, major characteristics

A

Function in transport

Ciliated cuboid cells; lines ventricles and central canal of spinal cord

Contain Tanycytes - cells in the 3rd ventricle that place end feet on blood vessels

Satellite cells = insulators for protection derived from neural crest

129
Q

Describe the process of myelination in the PNS

A

Schwann cell plasma membrane wraps around axon.

Schwann cell cytoplasm is “squeezed” out, leaving behind concentric layers of membranes.

130
Q

Define External mesaxon

A

Also known as the outer point of fusion

Creates the intraperiod line which is an electron dense line (extracellular spaces)

Close but non-fused outer leaflefts

131
Q

Define Internal Mesaxon

A

Also known as the inner point of fusion

Major dense line are the inner leaflefts with cytoplasmic space remnants with CLOSE opposition; thinner line

132
Q

Define Intraperiod dense lines

A

The line thats created by the external mesaxon/outer point of fusion

Non-fused; electron dense line

133
Q

Define Major dense line

A

Formed from the internal mesaxon/inner point of fusion containing cytoplasmic space remnants

Thinner line than the intraperiod line

134
Q

Define Schmidt-Lanterman clefts (incisures)

A

Residual areas of cytoplasm within the major dense lines

Contain tight junctions and Connexin 32

135
Q

Define MPZ

A

Myelin Protein Zero

PNS

Synthesized by schwann cells and interacts w/ one another to stabilize apposed plasma membranes as homotetramers

Intracellular tail contains a signaling function

136
Q

Define MBP

A

Myelin Basic Protein

Located in Both CNS and PNS

137
Q

Define PLP

A

Proteolipid Protein

In CNS protein which stabilizes adjacent stacks of membranes of oligodendrites

138
Q

Differences b/w CNS and PNS myelin

A

CNS

contain astrocyte end foot in Node of Ranvier

Cytoplasmic processes of adjacent oligos DO NOT interdigitate

PNS

Cytoplasmic processes of adjacent cells interdigitate with tight junctions

139
Q

List major differences between presynaptic membrane and postsynaptic membrane

A

Presynaptic: (signal delivery)

V.g. Ca2+ channels

Synaptic vesicles; synapsins

Postsynaptic: (signal response)

NT receptors; ligand gated

EPP

Local potential

140
Q

What are the 6 types of synapses?

A

Axosomatic - axon terminal synapses w/ neuron cell body

Axoaxonic - terminal synapses w/ another axon terminal

Axodendritic - terminal synapses w/ a dendrite

Axospinous - terminal synapses w/ a dendritic spine

Excitatory - contain a more (+) EPP (closer to threshold)

Inhibitory - has a more (-) ERR (further from threshold)

141
Q

List the layers of the meninges

A

DAP

Epidural Space

Dura Mater - encases brain

Subdural Space

Arachnoid Mater

Sub Arachnoid Space - CSF circulation

Pia Mater - directly lines brain and spinal cord

142
Q

Arachnoid Characteristics

A

Connect to pia mater via arachnoid trabeculae

Contain Arachnoid villi (CSF enters; arachnoid barrier cells) that extend out to venous sinus allowing CSF flow from subarachnoid space into dural sinuses

Blood does not flow from venous sinus to subarach. space

143
Q

Define choroid plexus

A

Produces 80-90% of CSF

Contain Ependymal cells

144
Q

Sensory (dorsal root) ganglia characteristics

A

Capsule of CT = epineurium

Pseudounipolar neurons within capsule

Myelinated

Satellite cells

145
Q

Autonomic Ganglia Characteristics

A

Capsule of epineurium

Clustered multipolar neurons

Myelinated postganglionic axons

Satellite cells

146
Q

List the 3 layers of the eye (tunics; outer to inner)

A

Outer: Sclera & Cornea

Middle: Choroid, Ciliary Body, & Iris

Inner: Retina

147
Q

Components of the ScLEra (SLE)

A

Sclera Proper - tendon for muscle attachment

Lamina cribrosa - pass thru optic nerve fibers

Episclera Layer - vascular, attaches eyelid lining to sclera, loose collagen and elastic fibers

148
Q

Components of the Cornea

Triple C Boobs Do (it for me)

A

Corneal Epithelium - stratified non-k squamous

Corneal stroma - thickest portion

Corneal Endothelium - single layer of squamous

Bowman’s membrane - acellular

Descemets Membrane - acellular

Triple C Boobs, Do it for me

149
Q

Function of aqueous humor

A

Maintains pressure needed to inflate the eye and provide nutrition for central cornea and lens

150
Q

What is the pathway of aqueous humor?

A

Posterior to Anterior chamber

Major escape route from ciliary body = Canal of Schlemm, where it reaches the sclera and is drained by veins and lymphatics

151
Q

Location of the anterior and posterior chambers?

A

Anterior (ACL): between the lens and the cornea

Posterior (PIL): between the iris and the lens

152
Q

Location of the iris? Layers?

IOC

A

Between anterior and posterior chambers, surrounds the pupil

Contains melanocytes

Inner, outer, and concentric layers contain myofilaments

Inner = pigmented

Outer = dilater

Concentric = Constrictor

153
Q

Contents of the Inner and Outer segments of rods and cones

A

Outer - rhodopsin-containing lamellae (foldings of cell membrane w/ photo sensitive molecules)

Inner - rods and cones w/ mito, RER, Golgi, Glycogen

154
Q

Contents of the outer and inner nuclear layer

A

Outer - cell bodies of rods and cones (1st order neurons)

Inner - cell bodies of bipolar cells (2nd order), horizonal cells, amacrine cells, Mueller cells

155
Q

Contents of the outer and inner plexiform layers

A

Outer - synapses b/w axons of rods and cones and dendrites of bipolar neurons and horizontal cells

Inner - synapses b/w axons of bipolar cells and dendrites of ganglion cells

156
Q

Contents of Ganglion cell layer

A

Eye

Cell bodies of ganglion cells (3rd order neurons)

157
Q

Contents of Optic nerve layer

A

Axons of ganglion cells

158
Q

What are the cells of the retina? (6)

A

“A Bipolar Guy Humps Many People”

Amacrine - interneurons; connect ganglion cells & bipolar neurons

Bipolar - conducting neurons synapse w/ rods & cones

Ganglion - conducting neurons whose axons form fibers of optic nerve

Horizontal - Interneurons that interconnect rods and cones w/ each other & w/ bipolar

Muller - neuroglial cells extend thruout retina

Pigmented - Synthesize Melanin; Esterify Vit A

159
Q

Define Macula lutea

A

Yellow region surrounding the fovea

Highest visual acuity

160
Q

Define fovea centralis

A

Middle of Macula lutea

Highest density of cone cells

Lacks rod cells & capillaries

161
Q

Optic disc components

A

Lacks photoreceptors

Point where ganglion cells turn into optic nerve = blind spot

162
Q

What are the types of photoreceptors

A

Rods = Rhodopsin as photopigment, sensitive to low-light intensity Black & White vision, discontinuous lamellae

Cones = 3 different types of Iodopsins as photopigment

Sensitive to high intensity light; continuous lamellae

Contain: Inner segment; Mito

Cell body; nucleus & short axon

Outer segment; cilium

Disks

163
Q

What are the components of the lens?

A

“If you stare too hard, you’ll tear your ACL”

Anterior epithelium - simple cuboidal, gives rise to cells that become “lens fiber”

Capsule - encloses lens substance, glycoproteins & type IV

Lens Nucleus - no nucleus & organelles, filled w/ crystalline proteins (decrease w/ age = cataracts)

164
Q

Eyelid components

A

Anterior Surface - covered w/ skin, Glands of Zeiss (sebaceous glands), Glands of Moll (sweat glands)

Palpebral conjunctive - stratified columnar/squamous epi w/ goblet cells, lines inner surface of eyelids, continuous w/ bulbar conjunctiva (covers eyeball)

Palpebral fascia - fibrous core of eyelids; Meibomian glands (sebaceous glands not associated w/ hair follicles);

165
Q

Components of the Outer Ear?

A

EAT

External Auditory Meatus

Auricle - hair follicles

Tympanic Membrane - ear drum, vascularized

166
Q

Middle ear components?

A

Tympanic Cavity; Bones

MIS

Malleus - attaches to tympanic membrane

Incus - intermediate

Stapes - inserts into oval window

167
Q

Inner Ear Components? (4)

A

Men Are Very Boring

Membranous Labyrinth

Auditory Organ - Cochlear duct, Organ of Corti

Vestibular Organ - patches of sensory structures that respond to changes in position, cristae ampullaris of semicircular canals, stereocilia = w/ afferent nerve endings

Bony Labyrinth - Fluid filled w/ Na+ perilymph

Semicircular Canals

Cochlea

Scala vestibuli

Scala tympani

168
Q

Muscles of the Middle Ear (2)

A

Responds to loud noises to dampen ossicle vibrations

Tensor Tympani

Stapedius

169
Q

What does the Bony Labyrinth of the Inner Ear consist of?

A

Cochlea

Semicircular canals

Scala vestibuli

Scala tympani

170
Q

What is the Organ of Corti? Where is it located, function?

A

Located in Scala media

Produces nerve impulses in response to sound vibrations

Sensory receptors = hair cells

KCUMB Histology (13 decks)

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