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Steves Exams > Exam 7 > Flashcards

Exam 7 Flashcards

1
Q

According to the NRC, survey meters must be calibrated _________ and following any repairs?

a. semiannually (twice a year)
b. biannually (every other year)
c. yearly (once a year)
d. monthly (once a month)

A

c. yearly (once a year)

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2
Q

The difference between a direct and wipe check radiation survey is that?

a. there is no difference
b. one is qualitative and one is not
c. one is quantitative and one is not
d. one gives an instant reading and one does not

A

d. one gives an instant reading and one does not

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3
Q

An occupational worker has received 14,000 mrem of exposure to the eyes in 1 year on his/her dose dosimeter; which of the following course of action would be appropriate?

a. recommend eye chelation therapy
b. review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they have exceeded their annual eye dose limit
c. review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they are close to exceeding their annual dose limit
d. recommend they use leaded eyeglasses to reduce exposure

A

c. review ALARA standards to reduce exposure because they are close to exceeding their annual dose limit

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4
Q

A nuclear medicine department has an action level of 500 mrem per month whole-body exposure. If you were the NRC inspector, what would your recommendations to this site be?

a. nothing, everything is fine
b. need to reduce their action level to at least 450 mrem per month to be in compliance with annual possible levels of exposure
c. need to increase their action level to 5000 mrem per month
d. need to reduce their action level to at least 410 mrem per month to be compliant with annual possible levels of exposure

A

d. need to reduce their action level to at least 410 mrem per month to be compliant with annual possible levels of exposure

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5
Q

The allowed dose of ionizing radiation to a declared pregnant woman’s embryo/fetus is?

a. 10% of the standard occupational workers whole-body dose per year
b. 1% of the standard occupational workers whole-body dose per year
c. 10% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period
d. 1% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period

A

c. 10% of the standard yearly occupational dose for the gestation period

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6
Q

In doing a room survey you discover that a therapy patient’s room has removable contamination above acceptable levels. What is the acceptable level?

a. <200Bq/100cm squared
b. <200MBq/100cm squared
c. <12,000Bq/100cm squared
d. <3.33Bq/100cm squared

A

d. <3.33Bq/100cm squared

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7
Q

In calibrating your survey meter for your nuclear medicine department, you discover that it has a 12% error. What is your next course of action to remain in compliance with NRC regulations?

a. use the survey meter as you normally would
b. throw it away
c. replace the batteries
d. recommend that it be serviced

A

a. use the survey meter as you normally would

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8
Q

You suspect that a low-level beta emitter has been spilled on a countertop. Which of the following survey techniques would be best?

a. pancake probe G-M type meter
b. scintillation probe type meter
c. wipe check with a G-M type meter
d. wipe check with a SCA/MCA type meter

A

d. wipe check with a SCA/MCA type meter

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9
Q

An unrestricted nuclear medicine waiting room is on the other side of the wall from a hiot lab. G-M meter readings in the hot lab read 50mR/hr. What is the minimum number HVLs of Pb that are required in the wall to bring the waiting room reading down into compliance with NRC regulations?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

d. 4

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10
Q

A G-M meter has a scale of 1-5mR/hr. If a deflection on the meter reads 4.5 and the meter is set on the x0.1 setting, what is the reading?

a. 40.5mR/hr
b. 4.5mR/hr
c. 0.45mR/hr
d. 0.045mR/hr

A

c. 0.45mR/hr

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11
Q

In operating a G-M meter on a daily basis, what is the first thing you should always do?

a. use a check source to make sure the meter is working correctly
b. check the batteries
c. insert the batteries
d. set it to the most sensitive scale/setting

A

b. check the batteries

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12
Q

Form X or NRC form 3 includes all of the following except?

a. the employer is not required to post any notices of violations of the regulations involving radiological working conditions
b. the worker is required to become familiar with the regulations and operating procedures for the worker engaged in
b. the worker and employer must abide by the state and federal regulations
d. the employer will make available to the worker a copy of all applicable state and federal regulations, license, and operating procedures pertaining to the work

A

a. the employer is not required to post any notices of violations of the regulations involving radiological working conditions

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13
Q

The triblade radiation symbol must be which of the following colors on a yellow background?

a. pink
b. purple
c. red
d. brown

A

b. purple

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14
Q

Which of the following radiation signs would be required if a survey meter reading were 40mR/hr at 60cm from a source in the room?

a. “Caution: Radioactive Material”
b. “Caution: Radiation Area”
c. “Caution: High Radiation Area”
d. “Grave Danger: Very High Radiation Area”

A

c. “Caution: High Radiation Area”

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15
Q

A DOT II radioactive label is on a package that reads 9mR/hr at 1 m. What is the appropriate action to take?

a. log in the package as you normally would
b. Contant the regional office of the NRC
c. inform the vendor that the wrong label was on the container
d. notify the DOT that a “shipment event” has occurred

A

c. inform the vendor that the wrong label was on the container

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16
Q

The average energy required to create an ion pair in air is?

a. 60eV
b. 30keV
c. 5eV
d. 34eV

A

d. 34eV

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17
Q

The ionization of the entire fixed volume of a gas due to secondary ionization is known as the?

a. townsend avalanche
b. geiger effect
c. proportional effect
d. internal amplification

A

b. geiger effect

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18
Q

How do the sizes of the pulses produced by the collection of ions in the proportional region compare to those produced by an instrument that operates in the ionization region of the gas curve for radiation detectors?

a. the pulses are larger
b. the pulses are smaller
c. the pulses are the same size
d. the pulses are in resonance

A

a. the pulses are larger

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19
Q

Gas amplification is a phenomenon associated with instruments that operate in the ______ region of the gas curve for radiation detectors?

a. recombination
b. ionization
c. proportional
d. continuous discharge

A

c. proportional

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20
Q

The output pulse-height of a gaseous detector is, in most cases, dependent upon what?

a. the numbers of ions produced in the gas
b. the quantity of radiation that passes through the gas
c. the volume of gas in the detector
d. the pressure of the gas in the tube

A

a. the numbers of ions produced in the gas

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21
Q

Which of the following is used for SPECT system performance?

a. high count flood
b. COR offset measurements
c. PLES phantom
d. Jaszczak phantom

A

d. Jaszczak phantom

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22
Q

Which of the following operations would help in improving the image contrast after display?

a. use a smoothing filter
b. use an edge enhancement filter
c. use windowing
d. use a formatter

A

c. use windowing

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23
Q

Which SPECT cardiac slice is used to generate a polar plot?

a. SA
b. HLA
c. VLA
d. transverse

A

a. SA

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24
Q

For the majority of studies, “cold” spots are areas on the image display that indiciates?

a. increased activity
b. mistuned PMTs
c. necrotic tissue
d. nonlinearity

A

c. necrotic tissue

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25
Q

Correction tables are used for?

a. COR correction
b. detector misalignment correction
c. uniformity correction
d. linearity correction

A

c. uniformity correction

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26
Q

Total combined energy of the two annihilation photons originating from an annihilation reaction is?

a. 500keV
b. 511keV
c. 1 MeV
d. 1.02MeV

A

b. 511keV

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27
Q

The path between the two detectors in PET is referred to as?

a. line of origin
b. line of action
c. line of response
d. line of flight

A

c. line of response

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28
Q

The chance detection of photons from unrelated annihilation events within the coincidence timing window is called?

a. true coincidence
b. scatter coincidence
c. random coincidence
d. prompt coincidence

A

c. random coincidence

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29
Q

A “blank scan” is performed in PET?

a. hourly
b. daily
c. weekly
d. with every patient study

A

b. daily

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30
Q

In nuclear medicine, “windowing” (choosing a linear scale with threshold) is used primarily for?

a. background subtraction
b. background normalization
c. image normalization
d. image reconstruction

A

b. background normalization

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31
Q

Which of the following is the correct method to calculate gall bladder ejection fraction?

a. (net min GB counts - net max GB counts) / net min GB counts all multiplied by 100
b. (net max GB counts - net min GB counts) / net min GB counts all multiplied by 100
c. (net max GB counts - net min GB counts) / net max GB counts all multiplied by 100
d. net max GB counts / (net max GB counts - net min GB counts) all multiplied by 100

A

c. (net max GB counts - net min GB counts) / net max GB counts all multiplied by 100

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32
Q

For SPECT acquisition, a reasonable choice for pixel size would be?

a. 3.12mm squared
b. 1/3 FWHM of detector resolution or smaller
c. equal to 3 FWHM
d. equal to 2 FWHM

A

a. 3.12mm squared

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33
Q

The star artifact during SPECT reconstruction can be reduced by?

a. increasing the time per projection
b. decreasing the time per projection
c. increasing the number of projections
d. decreasing the number of projections

A

c. increasing the number of projections

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34
Q

Which one of the following will not give information on left ventricular function?

a. gated equilibrium radionuclide angiography
b. gated tomographic myocardial perfusion imaging
c. ungated first-pass study
d. ungated myocardial SPECT

A

d. ungated myocardial SPECT

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35
Q

When performing a thyroid uptake, the nonthyroidal body background measurement is obtained over the?

a. stomach
b. skull
c. thigh
d. lumbar spine

A

c. thigh

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36
Q

To prepare a patient for a thyroid uptake, the technologist performs a baseline thyroid count and measures radioactivity in the neck that is twice background counts. Which of the actions listed below is the most appropriate for the technologist to follow?

a. cancel the exam: this is a contraindication for ever performing it in this patient
b. administer I131 sodium iodide instead on I123 sodium iodide for the uptake
c. subtract the baseline counts from the thyroid counts collected at a later time
d. calculate a thyroid uptake using only the baseline counts

A

c. subtract the baseline counts from the thyroid counts collected at a later time

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37
Q

The therapeutic effectiveness of I131 in treating hyperthyroidism results from the delivery of energy to thyroid tissue from?

a. alpha particles
b. beta particles
c. gamma rays
d. x rays

A

b. beta particles

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38
Q

Fever, dehydration, and slightly elevated white cell count are all symptoms of?

a. nontoxic goiter
b. hyperthyroidism
c. hypothyroidism
d. benign thyroid goiter

A

b. hyperthyroidism

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39
Q

In a normally functioning system, an increase in circulating thyroid hormone will cause TSH secretion to?

a. decrease
b. increase
c. remain the same
d. vary unpredictably

A

a. decrease

40
Q

Which of the following would not normally appear as an area of increased activity on the bone image of an adult?

a. anterior iliac crests
b. epiphyseal plates
c. sacroiliac points
d. nasopharyngeal area

A

b. epiphyseal plates

41
Q

For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging (“spot” views) be most appropriate?

a. rule out avascular necrosis of the right femoral head
b. rule out bone metastases
c. determine extent of Paget’s disease
d. history of child abuse; rule out occult fractures

A

a. rule out avascular necrosis of the right femoral head

42
Q

It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with symptoms of pulmonary emboli because?

a. the number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles
b. the particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum
c. the particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages
d. the albumin is denatured before it is made into particles

A

a. the number of injected particles is very small compared to the number of available precapillary arterioles

43
Q

If tracer concentration is visualized in the stomach, thyroid, and salivary glands on a bone image, the most liekly explanation is that?

a. there is pathology in those areas
b. the patient did not drink sufficient fluids
c. the tracer contained unbound Tc99m pertechnetate
d. the patient was imaged too soon to allow adequate blood clearance of the tracer

A

c. the tracer contained unbound Tc99m pertechnetate

44
Q

Which of the following phrases describes the sensitivity and specificity of bone imaging?

a. sensitive and specific
b. sensitive but not specific
c. not sensitive but specific
d. neither sensitive or specific

A

b. sensitive but not specific

45
Q

Ischemia means?

a. necrotic tissue
b. decreased blood flow
c. infarction
d. the superior portion of the pelvis

A

b. decreased blood flow

46
Q

To confirm a referring physician’s request for a nuclear medicine therapeutic procedure, a technologist should?

a. confer with the nuclear medicine physician
b. ask the patient why he/she came to nuclear medicine
c. telephone the referring physician for confirmation
d. locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient’s medical record

A

d. locate the written directive for the therapy in the patient’s medical record

47
Q

All of the following statements about three- or four- phase bine imaging are true except?

a. this study includes both dynamic and static images
b. the last phase is performed 24hr post-tracer administration
c. the patient is positioned under the camera prior to tracer administration
d. no special instructions are given to the patient prior to the injection

A

c. the patient is positioned under the camera prior to tracer administration

48
Q

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of a child vs. an adult?

a. ribs
b. femur
c. costochondral junctions
d. sternoclavicular joints

A

c. costochondral junctions

49
Q

Nonreactivity toward a particular antigen is called?

a. autoimmunity
b. immunity
c. immunogenicity
d. tolerance

A

d. tolerance

50
Q

The ability of an antibody to react with one and only one antigen is known as its?

a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. avidity
d. affinity

A

a. specificity

51
Q

The property whereby an antibody reacts with two or more antigens of similar structure is known as?

a. sensitivity
b. avidity
c. cross-reactivity
d. immunoreactivity

A

c. cross-reactivity

52
Q

The major antibody class found in normal human serum is?

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgD

A

a. IgG

53
Q

All of the following PET radionuclides must be produced very close to the site where they are administered except?

a. F18
b. C11
c. O15
d. N13

A

a. F18

54
Q

For what reason is a patient’s blood glucose level checked prior to F18 FDG administration?

a. FDG tends to increase blood glucose levels that may already be elevated
b. The blood glucose level may need to be increased to ensure good tracer uptake
c. Hyperglycemia reduces tumor uptake of the tracer
d. FDG administration is contraindicated in diabetic patients

A

c. Hyperglycemia reduces tumor uptake of the tracer

55
Q

Preparation of patients undergoing PET images for an oncologic clinical indication include all of the following except?

a. twelve-lead ECG monitoring
b. installation of IV line
c. hydration
d. fasting

A

a. twelve-lead ECG monitoring

56
Q

Yttrium-90 ibritumomab tiuxetan is used for therapy of which type of cancer?

a. breast
b. prostate
c. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
d. liver

A

c. non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

57
Q

The size of the spleen can best be determined using which view of a Tc99m sulfur colloid image?

a. anterior
b. posterior
c. right lateral
d. left lateral

A

b. posterior

58
Q

If 4mCi of Tc99m sulfur colloid is administered intravenously, approximately how much activity will be concentrated in the spleen of a normal subject (biodistribution is 80, 15, and 5% to different parts of the body)?

a. 4mCi
b. 3.2mCi
c. 0.6mCi
d. 0.2mCi

A

c. 0.6mCi

59
Q

Significant visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m sulfur colloid liver/spleen image is most likely due to which of the following?

a. improper colloid particles that are too large
b. insufficient circulation time of the radiopharmaceutical
c. liver dysfunction
d. overactive bone marrow

A

c. liver dysfunction

60
Q

Which of the following diagnostic tests should not be performed immediately before liver/spleen imaging with Tc99m sulfur colloid?

a. gallbladder examination with ultrasound
b. chest radiograph
c. thyroid uptake with I123 sodium iodide
d. radiographic upper GI series

A

d. radiographic upper GI series

61
Q

In a normal hepatobiliary study, excretion of the tracer into the intestine should occur no longer than by how many minutes following tracer administration?

a. 5min
b. 15min
c. 30min
d. 60min

A

c. 30min

62
Q

If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60min during hepatobiliary imaging, which of the following may be administered?

a. cimetidine
b. morphine
c. dobutamine
d. furosemide

A

b. morphine

63
Q

Very increased serum bilirubin levels will most likely cause which of the following to be visualized on hepatobiliary images?

a. colon
b. kidneys
c. lungs
d. spleen

A

b. kidneys

64
Q

Which of the following framing rates would be most appropriate for a renal functioning study?

a. 0.1sec/frame for 260 frames
b. 20sec/frame for 78 frames
c. 2min/frame for 13 frames
d. framing rate is not a relevant consideration for this study

A

d. framing rate is not a relevant consideration for this study

65
Q

For the detection of liver hemangioma, all of the following imaging is routinely performed except?

a. blood flow images
b. immediate blood pool images
c. delayed imaging as late as 3hr following tracer administration
d. 24hr delayed imaging

A

d. 24hr delayed imaging

66
Q

Advantages of using Tc99m sestamibi for myocardial perfusion imaging include all of the following except?

a. acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose
b. acquisition of ventricular function information
c. completion of stress and rest imaging on the same day
d. flexibility in the time of imaging following tracer administration

A

a. acquisition of stress and rest images with one tracer dose

67
Q

Which of the following agents used for pharmacologic stress imaging has the longest plasma half-life?

a. adenosine
b. dipyridamole
c. dobutamine
d. nitroglycerin

A

b. dipyridamole

68
Q

Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents should not be administered to patients with asthma or bronchospastic disease?

a. adenosine
b. dipyridamole
c. dobutamine
d. both adenosine and dipyridamole

A

d. both adenosine and dipyridamole

69
Q

Dobutamine is contraindicated for stress testing in patients with all of the following conditions except?

a. severe aortic stenosis
b. unstable angina
c. ejection fraction below 15%
d. blood glucose above 200mg/dL

A

d. blood glucose above 200mg/dL

70
Q

Which of the following is cited as an advantage of Tc99m tetrofosmin over Tc99m sestamibi for myocardial imaging?

a. faster tracer clearance from the GI system
b. one-day stress-rest protocol can be used
c. higher activities may be administered
d. stress and rest images can be obtained with one tracer dose

A

a. faster tracer clearance from the GI system

71
Q

Treatment of the heart rate of 90beats/min, how many beats are there per second?

a. 0.011 beat
b. 0.016 beat
c. 0.67 beat
d. 1.5 beats

A

d. 1.5 beats

72
Q

Which agent is preferred for acute myocardial infarction imaging?

a. Tl201 Cl
b. Tc99m pyrophosphate
c. Tc99m sestamibi
d. Tc99m tetrofosmin

A

b. Tc99m pyrophosphate

73
Q

Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents indirectly affects adenosine receptor sites on cell membrane?

a. dobutamine
b. adenosine
c. dipyridamole
d. esmolol

A

c. dipyridamole

74
Q

Which of the following pharmacologic stress agents would be contraindication for severe aortic stenosis?

a. dobutamine
b. adenosine
c. dipyridamole
d. esmolol

A

a. dobutamine

75
Q

Sr89 and Sm153 are used for which of the following indications?

a. cardiac imaging
b. bone palliation therapy
c. bone scan to assess metastasis
d. liver/spleen metastatic disease

A

b. bone palliation therapy

76
Q

It is best not to administer Sr89 and Sm153 directly via syringe because?

a. the syringe cannot be adequately shielded
b. the radiation dose to the technologist’s hands from the beta emissions is great
c. there is no means of controlling the rate of radiopharmaceutical administration
d. there is an increased possibility of local irradiation of soft tissue due to infiltration

A

d. there is an increased possibility of local irradiation of soft tissue due to infiltration

77
Q

A patient scheduled for PET imaging with F18 FDG should avoid which of the following foods in the last meal before fasting?

a. steak and mushrooms
b. blackened fish and spinach salad
c. spaghetti and garlic bread
d. eggs and bacon

A

c. spaghetti and garlic bread

78
Q

When reporting a medical event to the NRC, which of the following information should not be included?

a. identity of the patient
b. licensee’s name
c. description of the event
d. remedial action

A

a. identity of the patient

79
Q

If a physician prescribes a radiopharmaceutical according to the patient’s body weight, approximately how much activity should a 185lb patient receive if 55uCI/kg is prescribed?

a. 1.6mCi
b. 4.6mCi
c. 9.6mCi
d. 46mCi

A

b. 4.6mCi

80
Q

Which of the following is/are medical event (s) according to the NRC?

a. I131 sodium iodide (15mCi) is prescribed for therapy, but 19mCi are administered
b. Tc99m DTPA for renal function imaging is requested by the referring physician, but Tc99m mertiatide is prescribed by the nuclear medicine physician
c. a second dose of Tc99m MAA is administered after the first is inadvertently infiltered
d. a myocardial perfusion dose is given to a therapy patient by mistake

A

a. I131 sodium iodide (15mCi) is prescribed for therapy, but 19mCi are administered

81
Q

A syringe that contains 50mCI of a Tc99m labeled compound at 0600 will contain how much activity at 1000?

a. 1169kBq
b. 116.9MBq
c. 1.17GBq
d. 11.7GBq

A

c. 1.17GBq

82
Q

According to the NRC, departmental records of “medical events” must include all of the following pieces of information except?

a. identity of the patient
b. referring physician’s name
c. nuclear medicine staff involved in the medical event
d. estimated dose to personnel involved

A

d. estimated dose to personnel involved

83
Q

Methods to decrease personal radiation exposure when preparing patient doses for injection include all of the following except?

a. working as quickly as possible
b. preparing all necessary materials in advance
c. holding the radiopharmaceutical as close to the eye as possible
d. using syringe shields

A

c. holding the radiopharmaceutical as close to the eye as possible

84
Q

During the IV injection of unit doses, all of the following practices are standard aseptic technique except?

a. wearing sterile gloves
b. using disposable equipment before its expiration date
c. aseptically cleaning the venipuncture site prior to injection with an alcohol swab
d. uncapping the needle immediately prior to the injection

A

a. wearing sterile gloves

85
Q

The prescribed unit dose range for a radiopharmaceutical is 5-8mCi. The unit dose assayed in a dose calibrator is 19.2mCI. Which of the following actions is the best for the technologist to pursue?

a. do not use the dose and call the radiopharmacy for a replacement dose
b. administer the unit dose to the patient
c. question whether the right pharmaceutical has been prepared
d. delay the radiopharmaceutical administration unit the unit dose has decayed

A

a. do not use the dose and call the radiopharmacy for a replacement dose

86
Q

How many microcuries must be placed in each I123 sodium iodide capsule to provide approximately 220uCi at the time of calibration 29hr following preparation (DF for 1hr = 0.9488)?

a. 264uCi
b. 704uCi
c. 800uCi
d. 1009uCi

A

d. 1009uCi

87
Q

Which of the following is not one of the factors that affect daily planning needs for a nuclear medicine department?

a. types and numbers of each nuclear medicine procedure
b. unit dosages or dosage ranges for each procedure
c. time interval between radiopharmaceuticals preparation and administration
d. percentage of “no shows”

A

d. percentage of “no shows”

88
Q

The following studies are ordered for the next day: total-body bone image, Meckel’s diverticulum localization, and a hepatobiliary study. Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is not needed?

a. Tc99m MAA
b. Tc99m mebrofenin
c. Tc99m medronate
d. Tc99m Tco to the -4 pertechnetate

A

a. Tc99m MAA

89
Q

Bioavailability refers to what, concerning pharmacology?

a. fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of administration
b. fraction of a drug that is excreted from the body
c. fraction of a drug that is delivered to body based on weight
d. fraction of a drug that reaches the heart

A

a. fraction of a drug that reaches systemic circulation after a particular route of administration

90
Q

All IV contrast agents have a greater osmolality than plasma. The osmolality of plasma is ______ mOsm/kg?

a. 75
b. 435
c. 285
d. 525

A

c. 285

91
Q

Which of the following is not a route of administration of a radiopharmaceutical?

a. inhalation
b. intravenous
c. intrathecal
d. intraarterial

A

d. intraarterial

92
Q

If a concentration equals 25mCi/mL at 0700 but a dose of 30mCi needs to be drawn at 0200, what volume needs to be drawn if the DF equals 1hr = 0.985?

a. 1.52mL
b. 1.11mL
c. 0.77mL
d. 0.52mL

A

b. 1.11mL

93
Q

Which of the following is most characteristic of a neutron activation product produced from an (n,p) reaction?

a. decay by electron capture
b. can be made nearly carrier free
c. relatively low specific activity
d. more expensive than cyclotron products

A

b. can be made nearly carrier free

94
Q

Which of the following statements about the determination of aluminum contamination in Tc99m eluate is true?

a. the eluate sample is compared to a standard solution with an aluminum concentration of zero
b. the test for aluminum breakthrough needs to be performed only after the generator has been eluted 10-12 times
c. the USP states that the aluminum concentration in Tc99m eluate is not to exceed 10ug/mL of eluate
d. an excessively increased aluminum concentration indicates that the elution volume exceeds the capacity of the generator

A

c. the USP states that the aluminum concentration in Tc99m eluate is not to exceed 10ug/mL of eluate

95
Q

In practice, carrier-free specific activity means that?

a. the sample contains no chemical contaminants
b. no stable forms of the radioisotope are in the sample
c. all nuclei in the sample will always remain radioactive
d. only stable forms of an isotope are present

A

b. no stable forms of the radioisotope are in the sample

96
Q

If no eluate appears in the collection vial during generator elution, the technologist should first?

a. add more elution solvent to the column
b. contact the manufacturer for advice
c. change the generator tubing
d. attempt to eluate the generator with a difference (new) collection vial

A

d. attempt to eluate the generator with a difference (new) collection vial

97
Q

A (n) _________ contrast material may be described as one that does not dissociate or divide into charged particles in solution?

a. ionic
b. nonionic
c. oral
d. osmolar

A

b. nonionic

Steves Exams (9 decks)

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