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Steves Exams > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Static bone imaging is performed several hours after tracer administration to permit?

a. maximum tracer uptake in the skeleton
b. blood clearance of excess tracer
c. tracer clearance from sites of infiltration
d. tracer clearance from normal bone tissue

A

b. blood clearance of excess tracer

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2
Q

For which of the following clinical indications would limited bone imaging (“spot” views) be most appropriate?

a. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain
b. evaluate Padget’s disease
c. rule out skeletal metastases
d. history of child abuse; rule out occult fractures

A

a. evaluate temporomandibular joint pain

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3
Q

Three or four phase bone imaging is particularly useful when which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. skeletal metastases
b. osteoporosis
c. osteomyelitis
d. stress fracture

A

c. osteomyelitis

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4
Q

The standard views performed in a lung perfusion study are?

a. anterior and posterior only
b. posterior and obliques only
c. anterior, posterior, and lateral of the affected lung
d. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques

A

d. anterior, posterior, laterals, and obliques

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5
Q

Upon completion on an imaging procedure, the patient sits up quickly and complains of dizziness and feeling faint. The most appropriate action for the technologist would be to?

a. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply
b. check vital signs
c. have the patient lie down again
d. have the patient stand and walk around the room

A

a. talk with the patient and have the patient breathe slowly and deeply

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6
Q

All of the following statements about performing a lung ventilation study with Tc99m pertechnetate aerosol are true, except?

a. multiple projections may be obtained with one dose of tracer
b. the patient is disconnected from the nebulizer after inhalation of the aerosol
c. the patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer
d. the face mask, tubing, and nebulizer must be disposed of as radioactive waste

A

c. the patient is imaged while inhaling particles from the nebulizer

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7
Q

The purpose of wrapping the legs with elastic bandages before performing radionuclide venogram with Tc99m MAA is to?

a. distend the veins in the feet
b. suppress superficial circulation
c. prevent blood clots from traveling to the lung
d. trap the tracer in the lower extremities

A

b. suppress superficial circulation

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8
Q

When the radiation level coming from a radioiodine therapy patient in isolation is measured, it should be measured?

a. every day
b. every day at the same time
c. at the same distance from the patient each time
d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time

A

d. every day and at the same distance from the patient each time

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9
Q

The function of a draw sheet is to provide?

a. warmth to the patient during the procedure
b. support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer
c. protection from infectious disease
d. patient privacy during an imaging procedure

A

b. support for the patient during a stretcher to bed transfer

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10
Q

A gated equilibrium ventricular function study can be performed with which of the following Tc99m labeled tracers?

a. pentetate
b. medronate
c. pyrophosphate
d. human serum albumin

A

d. human serum albumin

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11
Q

Stress-rest myocardial imaging performed with Tcc9m sestamibi requires two administrations of tracer, because the tracer?

a. dose not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium
b. rapidly washes out of the myocardium after administration
c. has too short a half-life to permit delayed imaging
d. must be administered immediately after its preparation

A

a. dose not redistribute once it has been taken up by the myocardium

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12
Q

In a normal hepatobiliary study, which of the following structures will not be visualized?

a. liver
b. spleen
c. common bile duct
d. gallbladder

A

b. spleen

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13
Q

In preparation for hepatobiliary imaging, patients are required to fast to?

a. prevent renal uptake of the tracer
b. enhance liver uptake of the tracer
c. avoid stimulating the gallbladder
d. minimize the risk of radioactive emesis

A

c. avoid stimulating the gallbladder

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14
Q

To determine the patency of a LeVeen shunt, the radiopharmaceutical is administered to?

a. a vein
b. the peritoneal cavity
c. the intrathecal space
d. the shunt tubing

A

b. the peritoneal cavity

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15
Q

Which of the following is the correct patient/camera positioning for imaging a transplanted kidney?

a. patient upright and camera anterior
b. patient upright and camera posterior
c. patient supine and camera anterior
d. patient supine and camera posterior

A

c. patient supine and camera anterior

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16
Q

In peforming an effective renal plasma flow determination, the injection site should be imaged to?

a. quantitate the amount of tracer deposited at the injection site
b. rule out tracer infiltration
c. calculate the amount of injected activity
d. correct the kidney transit time of the tracer

A

b. rule out tracer infiltration

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17
Q

Radionuclide cystography performed by the direct method requires which of the following?

a. intravenous injection of the tracer
b. use of a renal agent
c. catheterization of the patient
d. administration of furosemide

A

c. catheterization of the patient

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18
Q

All of the following conditions may demonstrate uptake of In111 labeled leukocytes except?

a. osteomyelitis
b. dental abscess
c. pulmonary embolism
d. ostomy site

A

c. pulmonary embolism

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19
Q

Signs/symptoms that a patient is going into anaphylactic shock include all of the following except?

a. hot, dry skin
b. pallor
c. restlessness
d. tachycardia

A

a. hot, dry skin

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20
Q

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals crosses the intact blood-brain barrier?

a. Tc99m bicisate
b. Tc99m gluceplate
c. Tc99m pentetate
d. Tc99m pertechnetate

A

a. Tc99m bicisate

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21
Q

The patency of ventriculoperitoneal shunts may be assessed with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. In111 chloride
b. Tc99m pertechnetate
c. Tc99m bicisate
d. Tc99m MAA

A

b. Tc99m pertechnetate

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22
Q

According to the FDA, written informed consent must be obtained to administer which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. I123 sodium iodide
b. Tc99m sestimibi
c. Tc99m bicisate
d. any IND

A

d. any IND

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23
Q

Patient preparation for Sr89 chloride therapy includes all of the following except?

a. nuclear medicine bone imaging
b. complete blood count
c. discontinuation of pain medicine
d. renal function studies

A

c. discontinuation of pain medicine

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24
Q

Patient preparation for I131 therapy for thyroid cancer includes all of the following except?

a. ruling out pregnancy
b. administering oral potassium iodide
c. reviewing isolation requirements
d. discontinuing breast feeding

A

b. administering oral potassium iodide

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25
Q

One verification method used to ensure that the correct radiopharmaceutical is being administered is to check the label found on the vial. The best times to check this label would include all the following except?

a. before the vial is removed from the shelf
b. before the radiopharmaceutical is dispensed
c. after the vial is placed back on the shelf
d. after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient

A

d. after the radiopharmaceutical is administered to the patient

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26
Q

When dual-radionuclide myocardium perfusion imaging is performed, which of the following tracers is used for stress and which for rest?

a. Tc99m Sestamibi for stress and Tl201 Thallous Chloride for rest
b. Tl201 Thallous Chloride for stress and Tc99m Sestamibi for rest
c. Tc99m Sestamibi for stress and Tc99m Teboroxime for rest
d. Tc99m Sestamibi for stress and Tc99m red blood cells for rest

A

a. Tc99m Sestamibi for stress and Tl201 Thallous Chloride for rest

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27
Q

If Tc99m Sulfur colloid is administered to demonstrate gastrointestinal bleeding, the bleeding can be visualized how long after the radiopharmaceutical is administered?

a. 10-15min
b. 20-30min
c. 45min-1hr
d. anytime up to 24hr

A

a. 10-15min

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28
Q

Which of the following areas is the recommended injection site for a cardiac first-pass study?

a. medium basilic vein
b. cephalic vein
c. axillary vein
d. dorsal vein

A

a. medium basilic vein

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29
Q

Patient preparation for I131 therapy includes?

a. having a low-iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy
b. having a high iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy
c. consuming a low-carbohydrate diet for 3 days prior to the therapy
d. not consuming any salt for 1 week prior to the therapy

A

a. having a low-iodine diet for 1 week prior to the therapy`

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30
Q

For a Ga67 infection imaging, the proper route of administration of the radiopharmaceutical is what?

a. intravenously
b. intramuscularly
c. orally
d. by inhalation

A

a. intravenously

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31
Q

Which of the following statements(s) best describes the preferred injection and blood sampling sites(s) when performing a plasma volume?

a. A butterfly placed in an antecubital vein should be used for injection of the radiopharmaceutical and subsequent blood sampling
b. Intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from the same vein
c. Intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from a different antecubital vein in the same arm
d. Intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein in one arm, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm

A

d. Intravenous injection should be performed in an antecubital vein in one arm, and subsequent blood samples should be obtained from an antecubital vein in the opposite arm

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32
Q

When administering an intravenous injection, the needle should be inserted into the vein at an angle of?

a. 90 degrees
b. 45 degrees
c. 15 degrees
d. 5 degrees

A

c. 15 degrees

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33
Q

When counting Cr51 red blood cell samples in a scintillation well counter, the window should be set around the photopeak at?

a. 81keV
b. 159keV
c. 320keV
d. 511keV

A

c. 320keV

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34
Q

Which tomographic plane of the heart displays all walls of the left ventricle?

a. horizontal long axis
b. short axis
c. transaxial
d. vertical long axis

A

b. short axis

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35
Q

When performing a radioiodine thyroid uptake with an uptake probe, the most appropriate collimator to use is a?

a. low-energy, high-sensitivity parallel-hole collimator
b. converging collimator
c. straight-bore collimator
d. flat-field collimator

A

d. flat-field collimator

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36
Q

Which of the following would not be in accordance with electrical safety guidelines?

a. use of three-pronged plugs and outlets
b. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord
c. keeping walk areas free from electrical cords
d. not using frayed or kinked cords

A

b. disconnecting an electrical plug from the wall by pulling on the cord

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37
Q

When using F18 FDG for PET imaging a consideration must be made for which of the following being a contraindication for performing the study?

a. blood glucose level of 200mg/dL
b. blood glucose level of 120mg/dL
c. high-iodine diet within past week
d. low-iodine diet within past week

A

a. blood glucose level of 200mg/dL

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38
Q

A 1:25 dilution of a solution with a concentration of 10uCi/mL is prepared. What is the tracer concentration in the dilution?

a. 0.04uCi/mL
b. 0.25uCi/mL
c. 0.4uCi/mL
d. 2.5uCi/mL

A

c. 0.4uCi/mL

39
Q

In preparation for F18 FDG imaging, patients are required to fast to?

a. prevent hypoglycemic episodes
b. enhance cardiac uptake
c. maximize tumor uptake
d. eliminate the need for lazatives

A

c. maximize tumor uptake

40
Q

Which of the following steps is performed before the administration of Y90 ibritumomab tiuxetan therapy?

a. determine PSA level
b. fasting 8hrs
c. whole-body imaging with In111 ibritumomab tiuxetan
d. intravenous hydration for 4hr

A

c. whole-body imaging with In111 ibritumomab tiuxetan

41
Q

The size of a Mo99/Tc99m generator is expressed as the total activity of?

a. Mo99 on the column
b. Tc99m on the column
c. Tc99m eluate from the column
d. decay-corrected Tc99m available at time of elution

A

a. Mo99 on the column

42
Q

If 1.2Ci of Tc99m are eluted from a generator in a 5.7mL volume, what is the concentration of the eluate?

a. 210mCi/mL
b. 475mCi/mL
c. 32.4MBq/mL
d. 5.7GBq/mL

A

a. 210mCi/mL

43
Q

If 633mCi are expected to be eluted from a wet-column generator, what volume evacuated vial should be used to obtain an eluate concentration of approximately 30mCi/mL?

a. 5mL
b. 10mL
c. 15mL
d. 20mL

A

d. 20mL

44
Q

The maximum allowable limit of Al in Tc99m eluate is set by the?

a. Nuclear Medicine Commission
b. U.S. Pharmacopeia
c. Environmental Protection Agency
d. U.S. Department of Transportation

A

b. U.S. Pharmacopeia

45
Q

If the following measurements were obtained from an assay of Tc99m eluate:

Mo 8uCi
Tc99m 625mCi

then the Mo99 concentration in 1mCi of Tc99m is?

a. 81.5uCi/mCi
b. 8uCi/mCi
c. 0.012uCi/mCi
d. 0.000012uCi/mCi

A

c. 0.012uCi/mCi

46
Q

Increased levels of Al in Tc99m eluate used to prepare Tc99m sulfur colloid may cause the tracer to concentrate in the?

a. liver
b. lungs
c. red blood cells
d. thyroid

A

b. lungs

47
Q

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be ordered to treat bone pain by bony metastases?

a. I131 sodium iodide
b. In111 oxine
c. P92 chromic phosphate
d. Sm153 lexidronam

A

d. Sm153 lexidronam

48
Q

According to NRC regulations, reports of medical events sent to the NRC must include all of the following information except?

a. whether the patient or a relative was notified
b. a description of the incident
c. the referring physician’s name
d. the patient’s name

A

d. the patient’s name

49
Q

All of the following radiopharmaceuticals are prepared with reduced Tc99m pertechnetate except?

a. Tc99m sulfur colloid
b. Tc99m oxidronate
c. Tc99m MAA
d. Tc99m lidofenin

A

a. Tc99m sulfur colloid

50
Q

What is the approximate final concentration of the Tc99m sulfur colloid if 125mCi are prepared using the following reagents?

Reaction vial: 0.5mL acid
Syringe A: 1.1mL thiosulfate micture
Syringe B: 2.1mL buffer
Maximum activity to be added: 400mCi
Tc99m volume to be added: 0.5-5mL

Tc99m pertechnetate concentration = 26.7mCi/mL and total volume = 8mL

a. 14.9mCi/mL
b. 15.8mCi/mL
c. 21.3mCi/mL
d. 33.8mCi/mL

A

a. 14.9mCi/mL

51
Q

On the basis of the USP criteria, which of the following statements about the particle size of MAA preparations is true?

a. no particles should exceed 90um in diameter
b. some particles may be smaller than 10um
c. all particles have the same diameter
d. up to 10% of the particles may exceed 150um in diameter

A

b. some particles may be smaller than 10um

52
Q

An eluate of Tc99m pertechnetate is assayed for Mo99 contamination immediately after elution. If the Mo99 breakthrough is determined to be 0.035uCi Mo99/Tc99m and the shelf life of the eluate is 12hr, for how many hours after elution can the Tc99m pertechnetate by administered to patients?

a. 6hr
b. 8hr
c. 12hr
d. 18hr

A

c. 12hr

53
Q

The radiochemical purity of a radiopharmaceutical is determined using a solvent/support media combination with the Rf values shown here:

Radiopharmaceutical: 0
Radiochemical impurity: 1

After the radiochromatography strip is developed and cut in half, the solvent front half of the strip counted 15,345cpm and the origin half of the strip counted 55,632cpm. What is the radiochemical purity of the sample?

a. 21.6%
b. 27.6%
c. 72.4%
d. 78.4%

A

d. 78.4%

54
Q

On the basis of the radiopharmaceutical vial labeled information shown here, which of the preparations should the technologist administer on July 9 at 0800 to perform three-phase bone imaging?

a. Tc99m bicisate assayed 0700 9 July and expires 1900 9 July
b. Tc99m medronate assayed 0600 8 July and expires 1400 8 July
c. Tc99m oxidronate assayed 0600 9 July and expires 1400 9 July
d. Tc99m pertechnetate assayed 0600 9 July and expires 1800 9 July

A

c. Tc99m oxidronate assayed 0600 9 July and expires 1400 9 July

55
Q

The standard adult dosage of I123 sodium iodide is 400uCi plus or minus 10 percent. On the basis of the vial labeled information shown here:

Total activity = 1mCi
Number of capsules = 10
Activity/capsule = 100uCi/capsule
Calibration = 1200 Oct 5

how many I123 sodium iodide capsules should be administered to the patient at 0800 on Oct 5?

a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. the capsules may not be administered until 1200

A

b. 3

56
Q

A technologist needs 185MBq I131 sodium iodide solution on Nov 3. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information:

Total activity = 740MBq
Total volume = 10mL
Assayed at 1200 Oct 28

What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on Nov 3?

a. 0.42mL
b. 1.5mL
c. 4.2mL
d. 4.6mL

A

c. 4.2mL

57
Q

In labeling red blood cells with Cr51 sodium chromate, which of the following reagents is used to prevent the blood sample from coagulating?

a. ACD solution
b. EDTA
c. heparin
d. sodium fluoride

A

a. ACD solution

58
Q

All of the following medications has been shown to interfere with in vivo Tc99m labeling of red blood cells except?

a. doxorubicin
b. heparin
c. penicillin
d. lidocaine

A

d. lidocaine

59
Q

Tc99m pentetate was prepared using the following reagents:

Pentetate Kit:
Reconstituting volume = 1-8mL Tc99m pertechnetate
Activity range = 3-160mCi

Tc99m Pertechnetate:
Concentration = 25mCi/mL
Total Volume = 5mL

Which of the following dose calibrator readings would verify that the maximum activity of Tc99m pentetate was prepared from the reagents available?

a. 100mCi
b. 125mCi
c. 160mCi
d. 200mCi

A

b. 125mCi

60
Q

If Tc99m exametazime is prepared at 0900 to label white blood cells, it should be used no later than what time?

a. 0930
b. 1100
c. 1300
d. 1500

A

a. 0930

61
Q

Upon visual inspection, a vial of Tc99m medronate appears to be white and slightly turbid. Which of the following actions should be the technologist perform next?

a. prepare unit doses from the vial
b. adjust the pH of the preparation
c. prepare another vial of Tc99m medronate
d. filter the preparation with a membrane filter

A

c. prepare another vial of Tc99m medronate

62
Q

If a 290uCi/kg dose is needed, approximately how many millicuries should a 95lb patient receive?

a. 5.8mCi
b. 11.5mCi
c. 12.5mCi
d. 20mCi

A

c. 12.5mCi

63
Q

Of the following needles, which size is the most likely to cause coring of the rubber closure of a medication vial?

a. 27 gauge 3/8in length
b. 25 gauge 3/4in length
c. 22-gauge 1in length
d. 16 gauge 1.5in length

A

d. 16 gauge 1.5in length

64
Q

According to NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted on the door of a radiopharmacy labatory in which radiation levels have been measured to be 7.5mR/hr?

a. no posting is required
b. “Caution: Radioactive Materials”
c. “Caution: Radiation Area”
d. “Caution: High Radiation Area”

A

c. “Caution: Radiation Area”

65
Q

To determine the transportation index for a package containing radioactive material, the package must be monitored at?

a. the surface of the package
b. 6in from the surface
c. 1m from the surface
d. 2m from the surface

A

c. 1m from the surface

66
Q

To comply with NRC regulations, personnel radiation exposure records must be maintained?

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. indefinitely

A

d. indefinitely

67
Q

If a point source produces an exposure rate of 50mR/hr at a distance of 1ft, at which distance from the source will the exposure rate be reduced to 2mR/hr?

a. 5ft
b. 5.5ft
c. 10ft
d. 25ft

A

a. 5ft

68
Q

An occupationally exposed worker who is required to wear a personal radiation monitor must wear it at work except when?

a. the worker leaves the nuclear medicine department
b. the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure
c. badge readings are likely to exceed allowable limits
d. radiation exposure results from patients who had radioactive materials administered at another facility

A

b. the worker is personally undergoing a radiographic or nuclear medicine procedure

69
Q

According to the NRC, a written directive for the administration of 15mCi of I131 sodium iodide must include the following information?

a. dosage
b. patient’s thyroid uptake value
c. patients birth date
d. lot number of the radiopharmaceutical

A

a. dosage

70
Q

According to the NRC, the annual radiation exposure to members of the general public must be limited to no more than?

a. 500mrem
b. 100mrem
c. 50mrem
d. 2mrem

A

b. 100mrem

71
Q

Which of the following materials is the best choice for shielding P32?

a. lead
b. plastic
c. tungsten
d. no shielding is required for P32

A

b. plastic

72
Q

During a routine room survey for radioactive contamination, a technologist identifies an area on the floor that exceeds the trigger level. Which of the following should the technologist do next?

a. determine the identity of the radionuclide present in the contaminated area
b. ascertain the source information
c. perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable
d. cover the area until it has decayed to background level

A

c. perform a wipe test to determine if the contamination is removable

73
Q

In the case of a radioactive spill that involves contamination and life-threatening injuries to personnel, which of the following actions should be given priority?

a. decontamination of the victim
b. confinement of the radioactive spill
c. medical treatment of the seriously injured
d. notification of the radiation safety officer

A

c. medical treatment of the seriously injured

74
Q

Nurses caring for I131 therapy patients who require isolation should be advised that the major sources of contamination include the patients?

a. feces, urine, and blood
b. urine, saliva, and perspiration
c. blood and urine
d. sputum and blood

A

b. urine, saliva, and perspiration

75
Q

According to the NRC regulations, a technologist cannot use a diagnostic dosage that exceeds 20% of the dosage prescribed by the authorized user unless?

a. there is no other radiopharmaceutical available
b. the patient weighs more than 20% over the standard reference weight
c. the authorized user approves the individual dosage
d. the patient’s physician approves the individual dosage

A

c. the authorized user approves the individual dosage

76
Q

If a woman who is breast-feeding needs I131 therapy for treatment of thyroid cancer, how long must she suspend breast-feeding?

a. 48hr
b. 1 week
c. she may not resume it with this child
d. suspension of breast-feeding is not necessary in this case

A

c. she may not resume it with this child

77
Q

According to the NRC, wipe tests results must be reports as?

a. cpm
b. dpm
c. mR/hr
d. mrem/hr

A

b. dpm

78
Q

15mrem is equivalent to how many mSv?

a. 0.0015
b. 0.015
c. 0.15
d. 1.5

A

b. 0.015

79
Q

A package containing radiopharmaceuticals is delivered before the nuclear medicine department opens. According to NRC, the package must be checked and monitored?

a. as soon as the department opens
b. within 3hr after the department opens
c. withing 6hr after the department opens
d. within 24hr of the time of delivery

A

b. within 3hr after the department opens

80
Q

On the basis of the following data:

Wipe test count = 375cpm
background count = 120cpm

and a well-counter efficiency of 45%, the results of the wipe test in dpm are?

a. 49dpm
b. 115dpm
c. 255dpm
d. 567dpm

A

d. 567dpm

81
Q

An energy resolution test is performed on a scintillation spectrometer using Cs137. If the full width at half maximum is determined to be 53keV and the photopeak energy is 662keV, what is the percentage energy resolution of the intrument?

a. 0.08%
b. 8%
c. 1.3%
d. 12.5%

A

b. 8%

82
Q

If a dose calibrator linearity test begins by assaying 50mCi of Tc99m pertechnetate, for how long should the test be carried out?

a. 24hr
b. 48hr
c. 66hr
d. 72hr

A

c. 66hr

83
Q

If a PLES transmission phantom is used, how many images must be acquired to assess linearity over the entire field of view of a scintillation camera?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

84
Q

According to NRC, all dose calibrator quality control results must be retained for?

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. the life of the instrument
d. as long as the facility’s license is in affect

A

b. 3 years

85
Q

What is the effect of changing the order of a Butterworth filter from 3 to 5?

a. the image will be smoother
b. the image will be sharper
c. the image will appear unchanged
d. the star artifact will be eliminated

A

b. the image will be sharper

86
Q

a 256 x 256 matrix requires how much more computer memory than a 64 x 64 matrix?

a. 2 times
b. 4 times
c. 8 times
d. 16 times

A

d. 16 times

87
Q

Which of the following statements about an image acquired with zoom is true?

a. background counts are increased
b. image resolution is increased
c. more memory is required
d. contrast is decreased

A

d. contrast is decreased

88
Q

If a Tc99m medronate bone image and a In111 tagged white blood cell image are acquired simultaneously with a 128 x 128 word mode matrix, how much computer memory is required to store the images?

a. 16kB
b. 32kB
c. 64kB
d. 128kB

A

c. 64kB

89
Q

An uptake probe would be used for which of the following studies?

a. plasma volume test
b. red cell mass
c. red cell survival
d. splenic sequestration

A

d. splenic sequestration

90
Q

How much memory will be needed for a gated-equilibrium cardiac function examination that is acquired in 30 frames with a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix?

a. 491,520 bytes
b. 16,384 bytes
c. 3,830 bytes
d. 546 bytes

A

a. 491,520 bytes

91
Q

What energies will be accepted by a 15% window placed around a centerline of 159keV?

a. 135-183keV
b. 144-174keV
c. 147-171keV
d. 151-197keV

A

c. 147-171keV

92
Q

A SPECT study is acquired using 60 projections over a 360-degree rotation. Each projection is acquired for 0.5min. If the counting rate is 144,000cpm, how many counts will be collected for the total acquisition?

a. 1,036,800
b. 4,320,000
c. 8,640,000
d. 25,920,000

A

b. 4,320,000

93
Q

Using a 125uCi source, 30,500cpm were collected during a camera scintillation determination. If the background count is 1,200cpm, what is the sensitivity of the instrument?

a. 234cpm/uCi
b. 244cpm/uCi
c. 29,300 cpm
d. 3, 662, 500 cpm

A

a. 234cpm/uCi

Steves Exams (9 decks)

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