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Steves Exams > Exam 5 > Flashcards

Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

For a patient undergoing bone imaging, all of the following information from the medical history is relevant to the interpretation of the bone image except?

a. gallbladder surgery a year ago
b. abdominal surgery 10 days ago
c. radiation therapy to the breast 6 months ago
d. results of previous bone imaging procedures

A

a. gallbladder surgery a year ago

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2
Q

If a patient is injected with Tc99m MAA while in an upright position, which of the following is most likely to be seen on the perfusion lung images?

a. increased tracer activity in the lung apices
b. decreased tracer activity in the lung apices
c. decreased tracer activity in the lung bases
d. decreased tracer activity throughout both lungs

A

b. decreased tracer activity in the lung apices

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3
Q

If the usual adult dosage on Tc99m MAA is 4mCi, a patient who has had a right pneumonectomy should receive what dosage?

a. 1mCi
b. 2mCi
c. 3mCi
d. 4mCi

A

b. 2mCi

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4
Q

Which of the following steps would be appropriate during a standby-assist wheelchair transfer?

a. the wheelchair should be perpendicular to the imaging table
b. the wheelchair footrests should be out of the way
c. the wheelchair should be placed parallel to the imaging table
d. the wheelchair should be unlocked

A

b. the wheelchair footrests should be out of the way

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5
Q

Patient preparation for infection imaging using tagged white blood cells include?

a. fasting for at least 4hr with a blood glucose level below 120mg/dL
b. smoking cessation for at least 24hr
c. discontinuation of certain medications
d. lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions

A

d. lab work and information concerning recent blood transfusions

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6
Q

Thyroid imaging may be performed with which of the following collimators?

a. flat field
b. pinhole
c. parallel hole
d. pinhole or parallel hole

A

d. pinhole or parallel hole

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7
Q

In performing a thyroid uptake, a technologist collects the thyroid counts 5cm from the surface of the patient’s neck and the standard counts 20cm from the surface of the neck phantom. What is the effect on the thyroid uptake value calculated from this data?

a. the uptake value will be accurate
b. the uptake value will be falsely decreased
c. the uptake value will be falsely increased
d. the results are unpredictable

A

c. the uptake value will be falsely increased

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8
Q

The percentage left ventricular ejection fraction calculated from the net counts per minute shown here:

end diastole = 2875
end systole = 2162

is approximately?

a. 13%
b. 25%
c. 33%
d. 75%

A

b. 25%

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9
Q

When a technologist cares for a patient who is not known to have a communicable disease, all of the following infection control measures should be implemented except?

a. decontamination imaging equipment with an antiseptic
b. wearing gloves when collecting a blood sample
c. handwashing before and after the nuclear medicine examination
d. using a needle recapping device

A

a. decontamination imaging equipment with an antiseptic

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10
Q

Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by which of the following?

I. 60-100bets/min
II. R wave occurs at constant intervals
III. PR interval 0.12-0.20 sec long

a. I and II only
b. I and III only
c. II and III only
d. I, II, and III

A

d. I, II, and III

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11
Q

After stress myocardium imaging with Tl201 thallous chloride, 1-1.5mCi of Tl201 thallous chloride may be administered before rest myocardial imaging to?

a. improve patient throughput
b. demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily
c. demonstrate infarct size more precisely
d. minimize visualization of attenuation artifacts

A

b. demonstrate reversible ischemia more readily

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12
Q

If the gallbladder is not visualized within 60 min during hepatobiliary imaging, which of the following may be administered?

a. cimetidine
b. morphine
c. dobutamine
d. furosemide

A

b. morphine

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13
Q

Preparation of the patient for Meckel’s diverticulum localization includes?

a. the administration of laxatives
b. fasting for at least 2hr before imaging
c. an enema immediately before imaging
d. oral or intravenous hydration

A

b. fasting for at least 2hr before imaging

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14
Q

Which of the following Tc9m labeled agents is the preferred tracer for demonstrating intermittent gastrointestinal bleeding?

a. human serum albumin
b. lidofenin
c. red blood cells
d. sulfur colloid

A

c. red blood cells

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15
Q

Furosemide is sometimes administered during renal imaging to?

a. rule out transplant rejection
b. rule out ureteropelvic obstruction
c. enhance tracer uptake in an abnormal kidney
d. increase blood flow to the kidneys

A

b. rule out ureteropelvic obstruction

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16
Q

Which of the following events is a normal response when furosemide is administered near the end of a renal function study?

a. radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder
b. radioactivity is taken up into the renal cortex
c. mechanical blockages in the renal collecting system are cleared
d. the peak transit time of the radiopharmaceutical is shortened

A

a. radioactivity is cleared from the renal pelvis into the bladder

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17
Q

Early (6hr after injection) Ga67 imaging should be performed if which of the following conditions is suspected?

a. sarcoma
b. osteomyelitis
c. lymphoma
d. bronchogenic carcinoma

A

b. osteomyelitis

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18
Q

The most effective way of controlling the spread of infectious disease in a hospital setting is for the technologist to ?

a. stay home when ill
b. wear gloves, mask, and hospital gown at all times
c. wash hands before and after patient contact
d. maintain distance from each patient

A

c. wash hands before and after patient contact

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19
Q

In111 pentetreotide normally localizes in all of the following sites except?

a. pituitary glands
b. salivary glands
c. spleen
d. thyroid glands

A

b. salivary glands

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20
Q

SPECT brain imaging may begin how soon after the administration of Tc99m exametazime?

a. immediately
b. 15-20 mins
c. 1-2 hours
d. 24hrs

A

c. 1-2 hours

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21
Q

Radioactivity is visualized in all of the following areas during a normal cisternography study except?

a. cerebral convexities
b. basal cisterns
c. lateral ventricles
d. central canal

A

c. lateral ventricles

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22
Q

Patient preparation for instilling colloidal P32 chromic phosphate into the peritoneal cavity includes which of the following?

a. surgical placement of a LeVeen shunt to remove excess peritoneal fluid
b. introducing Tc99m sulfur colloid into the cavity to confirm that the P32 will disperse evenly
c. instructing the patient about isolation requirements
d. fasting for 8-12 hours before radiopharmaceutical administration

A

b. introducing Tc99m sulfur colloid into the cavity to confirm that the P32 will disperse evenly

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23
Q

Patient preparation for post-thyroidectomy I131 whole-body imaging for metastases may include all of the following except?

a. discontinuation of replacement thyroid hormone
b. administration of exogenous TSH
c. administration of 600-100mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging
d. following a low-iodine diet for 1-2 weeks before imaging

A

c. administration of 600-100mg of potassium perchlorate 2hr before imaging

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24
Q

The administration technique for Tc99m bicisate includes which of the following?

a. direct venous stick
b. infusion at peak cardiac stress
c. bolus injection technique
d. minimize environmental stimuli

A

d. minimize environmental stimuli

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25
Q

Which of the following instructions should be given to patients after administration of F18 FDG for PET imaging?

a. the patient may leave the imaging area and return in approximately 90min
b. the patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins
c. the patient may read or watch television until imaging begins
d. the patient should consume a fatty meal to clear excess tracer from the hepatobiliary system

A

b. the patient should rest quietly in a designated waiting area until imaging begins

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26
Q

In performing a gastric-emptying study, imaging should begin?

a. 15min after meal consumption, then every 15min for 1 hour
b. 1hr after meal consumption, then every 15min for the next hour
c. immediately after first meal consumption, then every 5 min for at least 1 hour
d. immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2hr

A

d. immediately after meal consumption, then every 15 min for at least 2hr

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27
Q

A patient with a chest tube arrives in the nuclear medicine department for an imaging study. The technologist should?

a. cancel the procedure because the chest tube apparatus will interfere with the study
b. place the chest tube’s external apparatus on a level lower than the patient’s chest
c. place the chest tube’s external apparatus on the imaging table next to the patient
d. hang the chest tube’s external apparatus from an IV pole and raise it above the patient’s chest

A

b. place the chest tube’s external apparatus on a level lower than the patient’s chest`

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28
Q

The following studies are ordered for a patient:

I. GFR determination Tc99m pentetate
II. Schilling’s test Co57 0.5uCi
III. Thyroid uptake I123 sodium iodide

In which order should the studies be performed so that they do not interfere with one another and so that they can be accomplished in the shortest amount of time?

a. I, II, III
b. II, III, I
c. II, I, II
d. III, II, I

A

b. II, III, I

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29
Q

To help clear the thyroid, liver, and bowel when performing a cardiac perfusion study with sestamibi, a technologist should give what prior to imaging?

a. a fatty meal
b. a glass of cold water
c. dextrose intravenously
d. adenosine

A

b. a glass of cold water

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30
Q

A contraindication for performing a myocardial perfusion resting study is?

a. fasting for 4-12 hours prior to the study
b. drinking cold water prior to the study
c. having a nitroglycerin drip
d. being NPO for 4-12 hour prior to the study

A

c. having a nitroglycerin drip

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31
Q

A post surgery patient is in the nuclear medicine department for a study. The technologist notices that the patient’s surgical dressing shows signs pf drainage. The most appropriate action for the technologist is to?

a. remove the old dressing and replace it with a fresh one
b. reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel
c. terminate the study and transport the patient back to his/her room
d. complete the nuclear medicine procedure and ignore the dressing

A

b. reinforce the dressing with additional gauze and notify the appropriate medical personnel

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32
Q

If the hematocrit is 40% and a plasma-volume determination, performed with I125 human serum albumin, is 3900mL, what are the derived red cell and whole blood volumes, in milliliters?

a. 1,560mL Red cell volume and 2,340mL Whole blood volume
b. 2,340 Red cell volume and 6,240mL Whole blood volume
c. 2,600 Red cell volume and 6,500 Whole blood volume
d. 5,850 Red cell volume and 9,750mL Whole blood volume

A

c. 2,600 Red cell volume and 6,500 Whole blood volume

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33
Q

During a red blood cell survival study, the first blood sample is taken 24hr after the injection of the labeled cells. This 24hr time period is needed to allow?

a. the radiochromium to decay to a level compatible with the scintillation camera
b. removal of any cells damaged during the labeling process
c. patient recovery from the radiopharmaceutical injection
d. uniform mixing of the labeled cells throughout the vascular system

A

b. removal of any cells damaged during the labeling process`

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34
Q

If an anticoagulant is added to a blood sample, the fluid portion of the blood sample is known as?

a. plasma
b. serum
c. antiserum
d. blood complement

A

a. plasma

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35
Q

In a hospital setting, CPR cannot legally be administered to a patient in cardiac arrest when the?

a. patient has an infectious disease
b. patient’s chart indicates DNR
c. patient is hallucinating
d. patient’s chart indicates a terminal illness

A

b. patient’s chart indicates DNR

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36
Q

Pentagastrin is commonly used in which of the following scans?

a. gastric emptying
b. deep vein thrombosis
c. LeVeen shunt patency
d. Meckel’s diverticulum

A

d. Meckel’s diverticulum

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37
Q

Data collected from a red cell survival procedure are plotted on what type of graph paper?

a. linear
b. semilog
c. log-log
d. logit-log

A

b. semilog

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38
Q

Which of the following is not recommended during HMPAO/ECD administration?

a. dim the lights
b. inject using and IV line
c. talk calmingly to the patient while injecting
d. ask the patient to keep eyes and ears open

A

c. talk calmingly to the patient while injecting

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39
Q

If a 1:50 dilution of a solution with a tracer concentration of 50uCi/mL is prepared, followed by a 1:200 dilution of the 1:50 dilution, what is the final dilution?

a. 1:20
b. 1:50
c. 1:1,000
d. 1:10,000

A

d. 1:10,000

40
Q

Which of the following medical history is relevant to In111 capromab pendetide imaging?

a. breast-feeding schedule
b. mammogram results
c. PSA level
d. pregnancy status

A

c. PSA level

41
Q

On the basis of the data shown here:

Cardiac ROI = 28,503 total counts and 417 pixels
Background ROI = 1,859 total counts and 88 pixels

what are the net counts in the cardiac regions of interest?

a. 28,065
b. 26,644
c. 19,694
d. 15,463

A

c. 19,694

42
Q

If a Mo99/Tc99m generator is eluted at 0700 and again at 1300, the next day’s Tc99m yield at 0700?

a. will be decreased
b. will be unaffected
c. will be increased
d. cannot be predicted

A

a. will be decreased`

43
Q

One 127mCi is equivalent to how many GBq?

a. 0.003GBq
b. 4.70GBq
c. 3,430GBq
d. 4,699GBq

A

b. 4.70GBq

44
Q

All of the following factors affect the amount of Tc99m eluted from a Mo99/Tc99m generator except?

a. the amount of Mo99 activity present on the column\
b. the time elapsed since the last elution
c. the elution efficiency of the generator
d. the saline volume used for the elution

A

d. the saline volume used for the elution

45
Q

According to the NRC, the maximum allowable Mo99 concentration in Tc99m eluate at the time of administration to the patient must not exceed?

a. 0.15uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m
b. 1uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m
c. 5uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m
d. 5uCi in a unit dose

A

a. 0.15uCi Mo99/mCi Tc99m

46
Q

An eluate of Tc99m pertechnetate is assayed for Mo99 contamination with the following results:

Mo99 = 45uCi
Tc99m = 275mCi

On the basis of this assay, the technologist should?

a. wait for the Mo99 to decay to an acceptable level
b. use the eluate only for studies requiring other Tc99m labeled agents
c. use the eluate for only the next 12hr
d. discard the eluate

A

d. discard the eluate

47
Q

If a new generator is eluted several times and each time the amount of aluminum in the eluate exceeds the USP limit, the technologist should?

a. increase the elution volume
b. use the eluate for patients
c. contact the generator manufacturer
d. prepare kits with an additional oxidation agent

A

c. contact the generator manufacturer

48
Q

Which of the following Tc99m labeled agents is approved for perfusion brain imaging?

a. apcitide
b. exametazime
c. succimer
d. tetrofosmin

A

b. exametazime

49
Q

The shelf life of most Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceuticals is?

a. 4-6hrs
b. 6-8hrs
c. 10-12hrs
d. 16-18hrs

A

b. 6-8hrs

50
Q

If the following reagents are available:

Disofenin kit:
Maximum Tc99m activity to be added = 100mCi
Reconstituting volume = 0.5-3mL

Tc99m Pertechnetate:
Concentration = 25mCi/mL
Total volume = 8mL

What volume of Tc99m must be added to the kit to prepare the maximum amount of Tc99m disofenin from one kit?

a. 8mL
b. 4mL
c. 3mL
d. 2.5mL

A

c. 3mL

51
Q

One advantage of the in vivo method of Tc99m red cell tagging is that?

a. all circulating red cells are labeled with tracer
b. no incubation times are required at any step in the process
c. no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required
d. smaller amounts of stannous chloride are required

A

c. no manipulation of blood samples outside the body is required

52
Q

Boiling a Tc99m sulfur colloid preparation for too long will result in colloidal particles that are?

a. too small
b. too large
c. optimal size
d. chemically unstable

A

b. too large

53
Q

Which of the following components is a Tc99m medronate preparation is a radiochemical purity?

a. aluminum
b. Mo99
c. Tc99m pertechnetate
d. 0.9% NaCl

A

c. Tc99m pertechnetate

54
Q

Which of the following image findings is most consistent with chromatography results of a Tc99m oxidronate sample demonstrating 65% radiochemical purity?

a. well-defined bone uptake
b. lung uptake
c. stomach and thyroid uptake
d. gastrointestinal tract activity

A

c. stomach and thyroid uptake

55
Q

If 740kBq of a radiopharmaceutical is to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity (in megabecquerels) should be administered to a patient who weighs 172 pounds?

a. 9.5MBq
b. 58MBq
c. 78MBq
d. 280MBq

A

b. 58MBq

56
Q

50mCi of Tc99m MAA are available at 0700. How many lung perfusion imaging studies can be performed if the administered dose is 5mCi and one patient is injected every hour beginning at 0730?

a. 6
b. 7
c. 10
d. 20

A

a. 6

57
Q

For cardiac first-pass studies, the prescribed adult dosage of Tc99m pentetate is 925MBq plus or minus 10%. On the basis of the vial label information shown here for Tc99m pentetate, what is the maximum volume that should be administered to the patient at 0800 on January 5?

Total activity = 3.7MBq
Total volume = 2mL
Concentration = 1.85GBq/mL
Calibration = 0600 January 5

a. 0.57mL
b. 0.63mL
c. 0.69mL
d. 1mL

A

c. 0.69mL

58
Q

In labeling red blood cells with Cr51, the final step before reinjecting the labeled red blood cells into the patient is to?

a. add Cr51 to the patient’s blood sample
b. wash the labeled red cells to remove excess Cr51
c. separate the red blood cells from the plasma
d. add ascorbic acid to the tagged blood

A

d. add ascorbic acid to the tagged blood

59
Q

In what way does the modified in vivo method of labeling red blood cells with Tc99m pertechnetate differ from the in vivo method?

a. The modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient’s blood
b. The modified method “pretins” only a small volume of the patient’s blood
c. The modified method uses a smaller activity of Tc99m pertechnetate
d. The modified method requires a smaller amount of stannous pyrophosphate

A

a. The modified method mixes Tc99m pertechnetate with only a small volume of the patient’s blood

60
Q

Which of the following statements about the modified in vivo method for labeling red blood cell with Tc99m pertechnetate is true?

a. only a sample of the patient’s blood is incubated with the reconstituted stannous pyrophosphate
b. excess Tc99m pertechnetate is removed from the blood sample
c. a sample of the patient’s “pretinned” blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient
d. red cell labeling takes place only within the patient’s circulatory system

A

c. a sample of the patient’s “pretinned” blood is incubated with Tc99m pertechnetate outside of the patient

61
Q

According to NRC regulations, which of the following unit dosages may be administered to the patient?

a. 10mCi prescribed dose and 13.5mCi measured dosage
b. 15mCi prescribed dose and 12.5mCi measured dosage
c. 8-10mCi prescribed dose and 10.9mCi measured dosage
d. 20-25mCi prescribed dose and 18.7mCi measured dosage

A

b. 15mCi prescribed dose and 12.5mCi measured dosage

62
Q

In the radiochromium labeling process, ascorbic acid is used as which of the following?

a. anticoagulant
b. radiotracer
c. oxidizing agent
d. reducing agent

A

d. reducing agent

63
Q

If a vial of Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceutical contains 4.56MBq in 3.5mL at 0800, what is the concentration at 0930?

a. 1.33MBq/mL
b. 1.12MBq/mL
c. 0.90MBq/mL
d. 0.75MBq/mL

A

b. 1.12MBq/mL

64
Q

If a unit dosage of Tc99m pertechnetate is calibrated to contain 25mCi in 0.8mL at 1400, what volume should be removed from the syringe to retain 15mCi in the syringe at 1200?

a. 0.20mL
b. 0.32mL
c. 0.42mL
d. 0.48mL

A

c. 0.42mL

65
Q

If an MAA kit containing 4.5million particles is prepared by adding 30mCi in 2.5mL, how many particles are contained in 3mCi?

a. 150,000
b. 180,000
c. 216,000
d. 450,000

A

d. 450,000

66
Q

Of the following syringes, which size would be best for withdrawing 1mL of radiopharmaceutical from a multidose vial?

a. 1mL
b. 2.5mL
c. 3mL
d. 5mL

A

b. 2.5mL

67
Q

According to NRC regulations, which of the following signs should be posted in unrestricted areas?

a. no posting is required
b. “Authorized Personnel Only”
c. “Caution: Radioactive Materials”
d. “Caution: Radiation Area”

A

a. no posting is required

68
Q

A package containing radioactive material is monitored and found to produce 12mR/hr at the surface and 0.9mR/hr at 1m from the surface. Which DOT label must be affixed to the outside of the package?

a. “Category I”
b. “Category II”
c. “Category III”
d. No DOT label is required

A

b. “Category II”

69
Q

According to the NRC, decay in storage records must include the date that the radioactive material was?

a. calibrated
b. received
c. dispose of
d. placed in storage

A

c. dispose of

70
Q

All of the following statements about the HVL are true except?

a. One HVL reduces the radiation intensity to half its original value
b. One HVL od lead will absorb the same amount of radiation as one HVL of aluminum
c. One HVL absorbs 50% of the photons emitted from a radiation source
d. One HVL of lead is the same thickness as one HVL of aluminum

A

d. One HVL of lead is the same thickness as one HVL of aluminum

71
Q

If a patient receives 20mCi of I131 sodium iodide instead of the prescribed dosage of 15mCi for therapy pf hyperthyroidism, which of the following individuals/agencies must be notified?

a. NRC
b. NRC and FDA
c. referring physician
d. NRC and referring physician

A

d. NRC and referring physician

72
Q

According to NRC regulations, the annual whole-body occupational dose limit (TEDE) for adults is?

a. 5000mrem
b. 50mrem
c. 50rem
d. 15rem

A

a. 5000mrem

73
Q

A “sharps” container reads 50mR/hr when it is placed in storage. It contains only Tc99m waste. According to NRC regulations, when can the container be disposed of as nonradioactive biohazardous waste?

a. when the exposure rate drops to 1/10 of the original exposure rate
b. when the exposure rate drops to 1/100 of the original exposure rate
c. when the container gives only background reading with a survey meter
d. when the container gives only a background reading with a wipe test

A

c. when the container gives only background reading with a survey meter

74
Q

According to the NRC, areas where therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals are prepared or administered must be surveyed?

a. weekly
b. monthly
c. at the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered
d. after each therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered

A

c. at the end of each day a therapeutic dosage is prepared or administered

75
Q

According to the NRC, the NRC and the final delivery carrier must be notified if the exposure rate at the surface of a package containing radioactive material exceeds?

a. 100mR/hr
b. 200mR/hr
c. 1000mR/hr
d. 2000mR/hr

A

b. 200mR/hr

76
Q

Contamination on the surface of the skin is best removed by?

a. flushing the area with hot water
b. cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent
c. scrubbing the area with a stiff brush
d. rubbing the area with an abrasive cleanser

A

b. cleansing the area with lukewarm water and detergent

77
Q

According to NRC regulations, which of the following concerning restricted areas is true?

a. Patient rooms become restricted areas after the patient has received a radiopharmaceutical
b. Only areas where radiopharmaceuticals are stored must be designated restricted areas
c. Restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present
d. Radiation area monitors are required in restricted areas

A

c. Restricted areas must be locked when authorized personnel are not present

78
Q

According to NRC regulations, radioactive waste can be decayed in storage if?

a. the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5mR/hr at the surface
b. the exposure rate at the time of storage is less than 5R/hr at the surface
c. it has a physical half-life of less than 120days
d. it has a physical half-life of less than 1 year

A

c. it has a physical half-life of less than 120 days

79
Q

If the ambient exposure rate in a hot lab is determined to be 1.2 mrem/hr, what will be the radiation dose to a technologist as a result of 3hr work in the lab?

a. 0.06mrem
b. 0.4mrem
c. 3.6mrem
d. 40mrem

A

c. 3.6mrem

80
Q

Which of the following must be performed before a package containing radioactive materials can be returned to a vendor?

a. confirm that the exposure rate does not exceed background levels?
b. perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination
c. cover each individual vial with a waterproof covering
d. notify the NRC that a shipment id being made

A

b. perform a wipe test to assure there is no surface contamination

81
Q

Which of the following is a primary source of radiation exposure to the technologist with performs PET imaging?

a. compton scatter from the patient
b. positrons escaping from the patient
c. gamma rays from the long-lived source used for transmission scanning
d. electromagnetic radiation from the PET camera

A

a. compton scatter from the patient

82
Q

Which of the following personnel monitors would be appropriate for use when monitors are changed at 3month intervals?

a. film badge
b. TLD
c. OSL
d. TLD or OSL

A

d. TLD or OSL

83
Q

A linearity test was performed on a dose calibrator, and the following data were collected:

Day 1 @ 0700 the calculated activity was 20mCi and the measured activity was 20mCi
Day 1 @ 1300 the calculated activity was 10mCi and the measured activity was 9.5mCi
Day 1 @ 1900 the calculated activity was 5mCi and the measured activity was 4.75mCi
Day 2 @ 0700 the calculated activity was 1.26mCi and the measured activity was 1.20mCi
Day 2 @ 1300 the calculated activity was 0.63mCi and the measured activity was 0.60mCi
Day 2 @ 1900 the calculated activity was 0.32mCi and the measured activity was 0.30mCi
Day 3 @ 0700 the calculated activity was 0.08mCi and the measured activity was 0.076mCi
Day 3 @ 1300 the calculated activity was 0.04mCi and the measured activity was 0.0.038mCi
Day 3 @ 1900 the calculated activity was 0.02mCi and the measured activity was 0.019mCi

Based on these results, which of the following statements is true?

a. the instrument consistently measures higher than expected
b. the instrument measures higher activities more accurately than lower activities
c. the instrument measures lower activities more accurately than higher activities
d. according to the standard of practice, the instrument is operating within limits

A

d. according to the standard of practice, the instrument is operating within limits

84
Q

A dose calibrator accuracy test may be performed with which of the following radioactive sources?

a. 100mCi Tc99m
b. 60uCi Tc99m
c. 75uCi Cs137
d. 25uCi Cs137

A

c. 75uCi Cs137

85
Q

Extrinsic uniformity is performed daily on a scintillation camera with a Co57 sheet source and a low-energy all-purpose parallel-hole collimator. From the data shown here:

June 1 took 240 secs to collect 2 million counts
June 2 took 241 secs to collect 2 million counts
June 3 took 245 secs to collect 2 million counts
June 4 took 242 secs to collect 2 million counts
June 5 took 560 secs to collect 2 million counts

all of the following may have caused the decreased sensitivity seen on June 5 except?

a. incorrect photopeak/window setting
b. incorrect collimator
c. incorrect acquisition matrix
d. a cracked crystal

A

c. incorrect acquisition matrix

86
Q

According to standards of practice, how often must the accuracy of a dose calibrator be determined?

a. annually
b. quarterly
c. monthly
d. daily

A

a. annually

87
Q

The following center of rotation values were obtained on a SPECT camera:

1 October = 32.52 COR value
8 October = 32.59 COR value
15 October = 32.48 COR value
22 October = 32.38 COR value
29 October = 32.58 COR value

On October 29, the most appropriate action for the technologist to?

a. transfer any SPECT studies to a different computer terminal for processing
b. arrange for camera service
c. acquire SPECT studies using the October 29 value
d. acquire SPECT studies using the October 22 value

A

c. acquire SPECT studies using the October 29 value

88
Q

How frequently should linearity and spatial resolution tests be performed on a scintillation camera?

a. daily
b. weekly
c. monthly
d. quarterly

A

b. weekly

89
Q

If a Ga67 static image is acquired into a 128 x 128 byte mode matrix using the photopeak’s at 93, 185, and 300keV, how much computer memory is required to store the image?

a. 16kB
b. 32kB
c. 64kB
d. 128kB

A

a. 16kB

90
Q

Which of the following techniques is used to help eliminate the “star” effect created during tomographic reconstruction?

a. center of rotation offset correction
b. filtered backprojection
c. oversampling
d. uniformity correction

A

b. filtered backprojection

91
Q

A technologist performs a linearity test on a dose calibrator. The expected activity at a given time is 28.2uCi, and the actual reading is 27uCi. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. the instrument should be repaired and replaced
b. the instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range
c. a correction factor of 0.96 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range
d. a correction factor of 1.04 should be applied when measuring activities in the microcurie range

A

b. the instrument can be used to measure activities in the microcurie range

92
Q

Which of the following instruments is most appropriate for detecting low-level accidental contamination?

a. thermoluminescent dosimeter
b. Gieger-Mueller counter
c. cutie pie 9ionization chamber)
d. pocket dosimeter

A

b. Gieger-Mueller counter

93
Q

Image noise can be decreased during dedicated PET imaging by?

a. scanning for a longer time
b. using 2D mode
c. decreasing the dosage activity
d. decreasing the distance between the patient and the detectors

A

a. scanning for a longer time

94
Q

What is the standard maximum acceptable % energy resolution measured with Cs137 for NaI (Tl) scintillation detector?

a. 8%
b. 12%
c. 20%
d. 22%

A

b. 12%

95
Q

A 10% window for 662keV is set on a spectrometer with a lower-level discriminator (LLD) and an upper-level discriminator (ULD). If each increment on the discriminator dial equals 1 keV, what should be the settings for the LLD and the ULD?

a. LLD = 596: ULD = 728
b. LLD = 629: ULD = 695
c. LLD = 652: ULD = 672
d. LLD = 657: ULD = 667

A

b. LLD = 629: ULD = 695

96
Q

Which of the following radiation monitoring devices is best suited to survey a patient who has received 150mCi of I131 for therapy?

a. pocket ionization chamber
b. portable ionization chamber
c. Gieger-Mueller counter
d. dose calibrator

A

b. portable ionization chamber

Steves Exams (9 decks)

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