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Steves Exams > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult?

a. 30min
b. 1hr
c. 2-3hrs
d. 24hr

A

c. 2-3hrs

`

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2
Q

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas of increased activity on the bone images of adults?

a. anterior iliac crests
b. glenoid fossa
c. sternoclavicular joints
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased tracer activity include all those listed as well as the sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral column.

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3
Q

Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone image as a photopenic area?

a. attenuation
b. tracer infiltration
c. acute myocardial infarction
d. osteomyelitis

A

a. attenuation

A photopenic area is one in which a smaller number of photons is visualized - a “cold” spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an attenuation artifact, an area of falsely decreased tracer concentration. Jewlry, pocket contents, belt buckles, prostheses, and pacemakers are a few examples of objects that commonly cause photopenic areas on bone images. Tracer concentration is increased in the area of dose infiltration, acute myocardial infarction, and osteomyelitis.

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4
Q

It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation with MAA particles in patients with suspected pulmonary emboli because the:

a. number of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary arterioles
b. particles are made from albumin isolated from human serum
c. particles are rapidly phagocytized by lung macrophages
d. albumin is denatured before it is made into particles

A

a. number of injected particles block only a small number of precapillary arterioles

Less than 1% of the precapillary arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore, there is no adverse effect on the patient

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5
Q

A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals?

a. Kr81m gas
b. Xe133 gas
c. Tc99m pentetate
d. Tc99m macroaggregated albumin

A

c. Tc99m pentetate

A nebulizer is a device that uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne (aerosol) particles from a liquid Tc99m pentetate (DTPA) is introduced into the nebulizer in liquid form. When the nebulizer is activated, the liquid is converted into small radioactive droplets that are inhaled by the patient through tubing connected to the nebulizer.

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6
Q

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower extremities?

a. Tc99m MAA
b. Tc99m arcitumomab
c. I131 iobenguane
d. In111 oxyquinoline

A

a. Tc99m MAA

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7
Q

In performing radionuclide venography with Tc99m MAA, the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site?

a. antecubital area of either arm
b. either femoral vein
c. dorsal veins on top of each foot
d. either basilic vein

A

c. dorsal veins on top of each foot

The tracer is introduced into the deep venous system of the legs. Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of each foot.

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8
Q

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration in which of the following areas?

a. liver, lungs, and bones
b. salivary glands, stomach, and lungs
c. liver, salivary glands, and lungs
d. bladder, liver, and brain

A

b. salivary glands, stomach, and lungs

The salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric mucosa and its secretions into the intestine, and the urinary bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine. Concentrations in other sites indicate areas of functioning thyroid metastases.

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9
Q

A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. I123 sodium iodide
b. Tc99m pertechnetate
c. Tc99m sestamibi
d. Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m sestamibi

A

c. Tc99m sestamibi

Of the radiopharmaceuticals listed, only Tc99m sestamibi concentrates in the parathyroid tissue. A computer subtraction technique using Tc99m pertechnetate and Tl201 thallous chloride has been used to image the parathyroids. Tc99m pertechnetate concentrates in the thyroid, whereas Tl201 thallous chloride localizes in both thyroid and parathyroid tissue. In this technique, the Tc99m pertechnetate image is subtracted from the Tl201 image. The resulting image demonstrates concentration in the parathyroids.

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10
Q

When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera detector toward the patient’s feet separates what two structures?

a. left ventricle and aorta
b. left ventricle and left atrium
c. left and right atria
d. left and right ventricles

A

b. left ventricle and left atrium

The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta and pulmonary artery/ tilting the detector caudally visually brings the left atrium out from under these structures and separates it from the left ventricle.

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11
Q

Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary system?

a. Tc99m sestamibi
b. Tc99m exametazime
c. Tc99m medronate
d. Tl201 thallous chloride

A

a. Tc99m sestamibi

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12
Q

A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many electrodes on the patient’s body?

a. 3
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12

A

c. 10

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13
Q

Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a Tc99m Sulfur Colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of which of the following?

a. improper colloid particle size
b. insufficient tracer circulation time
c. liver dysfunction
d. overactive bone marrow

A

c. liver dysfunction

Bone marrow uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe liver dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present. In such cases, the spleen has a markedly increased concentration of tracer, and the skeleton is visualized as a result of increased tracer uptake in the bone marrow.

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14
Q

During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present?

a. common hepatic duct
b. common bile duct
c. gallbladder
d. small intestine

A

c. gallbladder

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14
Q

How long after administration of Tc99m pertechnetate does imaging begin for the localization of Meckels diverticulum?

a. immediately
b. 15-20min
c. 1hr
d. 2-3hrs

A

a. immediately

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15
Q

All of the following Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceuticals may be appropriate for performing a left-to-right cardiac shunt examination using the first-pass method except:

a. sulfur colloid
b. pentetate
c. sestamibi
d. tetrofosmin

A

a. sulfur colloid

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16
Q

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is measured with which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. Tc99m pentetate
b. Tc99m sulfur colloid
c. Tc99m gluceplate
d. Tc99m mertiatide

A

a. Tc99m pentetate

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17
Q

Radionuclide cisternography is performed by the direct method using which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. Tc99m pentetate or Tc99m medronate
b. Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m sulfur colloid
c. Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m mertiatide
d. Tc99m gluceplate or Tc99m sulfur colloid

A

b. Tc99m pertechnetate or Tc99m sulfur colloid

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18
Q

Filtered Tc99m sulfur colloid is required for which of the following examinations?

a. gastroesophageal reflux
b. gastric emptying
c. LeVeen shunt patency
d. lymphoscintigraphy

A

d. lymphoscintigraphy`

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19
Q

A patient with a nasogastric tube in place is transferred to the nuclear medicine department for an imaging procedure. The technologist should:

a. confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction required
b. remove the nasogastric tube because it will interfere with the imaging procedure
c. use the nasogastric tube to administer the radiopharmaceutical
d. cancel the study because the presence of nasogastric tube precludes any imaging procedure being performed

A

a. confirm physician orders for transfer and reestablish suction required

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20
Q

The appearance of what structure indicates the beginning of the venous phase of a cerebral blood flow study?

a. anterior cerebral arteries
b. carotid arteries
c. nasopharynx
d. superior sagittal sinus

A

d. superior sagittal sinus

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21
Q

In performing cisternography, the purpose of acquiring the first image over the lower thoracic/lumbar spine is to ascertain?

a. the site of tracer administration
b. the flow rate of the cerebral spinal fluid
c. that the tracer was not infiltrated
d. that the spinal cord was not damaged during tracer administration

A

c. that the tracer was not infiltrated

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22
Q

On Wednesday a patient has a I123 thyroid study performed; a I125 plasma volume is ordered to be performed on Thursday. Which of the following statements about the situation is true?

a. The I123 will not interfere with the plasma volume determination
b. The blood volume determination should be postponed until the I123 is decayed
c. A baseline plasma sample should be collected before performing the plasma volume
d. I131 instead of I123 human serum albumin should be used for the plasma volume determination

A

c. A baseline plasma sample should be collected before performing the plasma volume

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23
Q

Sr89 Chloride is used to treat which of the following conditions?

a. bone pain
b. polycythemia vera
c. rheumatoid arthritis
d. malignant effusions

A

a. bone pain

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24
Q

Whole-body imaging with I131 sodium iodide is optimally performed how long after tracer administration?

a. 12hr
b. 18-24hr
c. 48-72hr
d. 96hr or longer

A

c. 48-72hr

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25
Q

A patient undergoing an imaging procedure indicates to the technologist that a seizure is impending. The most appropriate action for the technologist is?

a. instruct the patient to breathe deeply to help increase oxygen levels in the brain
b. ignore the patient’s concerns because the timing of seizures cannot be predicted
c. increase the number of physical restraints on the patient to prevent patient movement and injury
d. stop the imaging procedure and have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting their head

A

d. stop the imaging procedure and have the patient lie on the floor with a pillow supporting their head

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26
Q

After administration of In111 pentetreotide, which areas of the body should be imaged?

a. anterior and posterior chest
b. anterior and posterior abdomen
c. anterior and posterior whole body
d. anterior, posterior, and laterals of head and neck

A

c. anterior and posterior whole body

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27
Q

Which of the following is the initial positioning for visualization gastrointestinal bleeding with labeled red blood cells?

a. xiphoid in middle of field of view
b. symphysis pubis in middle of field of view
c. lower border of liver and spleen at top of view
d. lower esophagus at top of the field of view

A

c. lower border of liver and spleen at top of view

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28
Q

Which of the following tracers is preferred if a first-pass stress and rest cardiac function examination is to be performed on a patient?

a. Tc99m pertechnetate
b. Tc99m medronate
c. Tc99m pentetate
d. Tc99m sestamibi

A

c. Tc99m pentetate

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29
Q

Patient preparation for breast imaging with Tc99m sestamibi includes which of the following?

a. explanation of the procedure
b. fasting for 8hr before tracer administration
c. discontinuation of any medications
d. consumption of fatty meal

A

a. explanation of the procedure

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30
Q

Historically, a Schillings test may be ordered for a patient with suspected:

a. hemolytic anemia
b. pernicious anemia
c. iron deficiency anemia
d. lymphocytic anemia

A

b. pernicious anemia

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31
Q

The proper route of administration for a lymphoscintigraphy exam is:

a. an intravenous injection
b. orally
c. an intrathecal injection
d. a subcutaneous injection

A

d. a subcutaneous injection

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32
Q

A patients plasmacrit may be determined by:

a. multiplying the patients hematocrit by 0.9
b. subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1
c. finding the ratio of plasma volume to red blood cell volume
d. dividing 1 by the decimal hematocrit

A

b. subtracting the decimal hematocrit from 1

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33
Q

During red blood cell sequestration study, counts are obtained from all of the following organs except?

a. liver
b. spleen
c. heart
d. kidneys

A

d. kidneys

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34
Q

In performing a plasma volume with I125 albumin, three blood samples are collected at varying times after tracer administration and counted. These counts vs. time are plotted on semi-log graph paper. The purpose of this graph is to?

a. give a visual representation of the data
b. obtain the half-time clearance value used in the calculations
c. correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical
d. show the decay of the radionuclide

A

c. correct for leakage of the radiopharmaceutical

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35
Q

Patient preparation for a thyroid uptake test may include discontinuation of antithyroid medications. Which of the following is one of these antithyroid drugs?

a. synthroid
b. potassium perchlorate
c. propylthiouracil
d. thyroxine

A

c. propylthiouracil

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36
Q

During a radiochromium red cell mass determination, an infusion set may be used to place a needle in the patient’s antecubital vein. To maintain the patency of the infusion set tubing, what substance should be injected into the infusion set tubing?

a. heparin
b. normal saline
c. ACD solution
d. bacteriostatic water

A

a. heparin

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37
Q

A gastric-emptying study uses which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. Tc99m medronate
b. Tc99m disida
c. Tc99m sulfur colloid
d. Tc99m MAA

A

c. Tc99m sulfur colloid

38
Q

In the case of insulinoma, which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may cause hypoglycemia?

a. In111 pentetreotide
b. Tc99m sestamibi
c. Ga67 citrate
d. F18 fluorodeoxyglucose

A

a. In111 pentetreotide

39
Q

Which of the following structures is normally visualized on an image performed with F18 FDG?

a. thyroid
b. brain
c. pituitary gland
d. pancreas

A

b. brain

40
Q

The C14 urea breath test is used to?

a. detect the presence of peptic ulcers
b. detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria
c. identify gastric cancers
d. rule out Zollinger -Ellison syndrome

A

b. detect the presence of Helicobacter pylori bacteria

41
Q

On the basis of the data shown here:

Capsule 0900 216,789 counts/min
Background 0900 92 counts/min
Thyroid 1500 94,954 counts/min
Thigh 1500 521 counts/min

what is the patient’s thyroid uptake at 1500 if a I123 sodium iodide capsule administered to the patient is used as the standard?

a. 32%
b. 44%
c. 60%
d. 87%

A

c. 60%

42
Q

If the elution efficiency of a Mo99/Tc99m generator is 96% and 11.7 MBq Tc99 is present on the column, approximately how much activity will be removed during elution?

a. 0.46MBq
b. 11.2MBq
c. 11.7MBq
d. 12.2MBq

A

b. 11.2MBq

43
Q

A dry-column generator is eluted with 5mL of saline, and the eluate containing 863mCi is collected into a 10mL evacuated vial. What is the concentration of the eluate?

a. 172.6mCi/mL
b. 86.3mCi/mL
c. 57.5mCi/mL
d. 5.79mCi/mL

A

a. 172.6mCi/mL

44
Q

If no eluate is obtained during generator elution, the technologist should next?

a. attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial
b. contact the generator manufacture
c. check the generator tubing for kinks or leaks
d. add more saline to the generator column

A

a. attempt elution with another evacuated elution vial

45
Q

According to the NRC, records of Mo99 concentration in Tc99m eluate must be maintained for how long?

a. 1 year
b. 3 years
c. 5 years
d. 10 years

A

b. 3 years

46
Q

According to the NRC, the concentration of what radiopharmaceutical impurity must be determined after the first elution of a Mo99/Tc99m generator?

a. Al
b. free pertechnetate
c. Mo99
d. a and c

A

c. Mo99

47
Q

Based on the day’s clinic schedule shown here:

Patient A Renal function study
Patient B Total-body bone imaging
Patient C Meckel’s diverticulum localization
Patient D Hepatobiliary study

the technologist should prepare or order all of the following radiopharmaceuticals except?

a. Tc99m MAA
b. Tc99m mebrofenin
c. Tc99m medronate
d. Tc99m mertiatide

A

a. Tc99m MAA

48
Q

According to the NRC regulations, records of written directives must be maintained for how long?

a. 3 years
b. 5 years
c. 10 years
d. indefinitely

A

a. 3 years

49
Q

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals should be prepared if renal function study is being performed to determine the glomerular filtration rate?

a. Tc99m gluceplate
b. Tc99m mertiatide
c. Tc99m pentetate
d. Tc99m succimer

A

c. Tc99m pentetate

50
Q

What is the final concentration of the Tc99m sulfer colloid if the maximum activity is prepared with the following reagents?

Sulfur colloid kit:
Syringe I 1.6mL acid
Syringe II 1.6mL buffer
Maximum activity to be added 400mCi
Tc99m volume to be added 1-3mL

Tc99m Pertechnetate:
concentration 75.5mCi/mL
total volume 15mL

a. 75.5mCi/mL
b. 47mCi/mL
c. 42.7mCi/mL
d. 36.5mCi/mL

A

d. 36.5mCi/mL

51
Q

Heating is required during the preparation of all the following Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceuticals except?

a. bicisate
b. mertiatide
c. sestamibi
d. sulfur colloid

A

a. bicisate

52
Q

To calculate the yield of a Mio99/Tc99m generator, in which sequence should the following steps be performed?

I. Measure the amount of Tc99m activity eluted from the generator
II. Determine the amount of Mo99 activity present on the generator at a given time
III. Calculate the fraction of Tc99m activity eluted compared with the Tc99m activity present on the generator column
IV. Determine how much Tc99m activity has formed by Mo99 decay at a given time
V. Determine the elapsed time from calibration to time

a. V, II, IV, I, III
b. II, V, I, IV, III
c. IV, II, V, III, I
d. I, V, II, IV, III

A

a. V, II, IV, I, III

53
Q

When performing radiochromatography on a radiopharmaceutical sample, the locations of the radiochemical components on the chromatography strip are as shown here. What is the Rf value of hydrolyzed reduced Tc99m if the solvent front is 12.6cm from the origin?

Hydrolyzed-reduced Tc99m 2.5cm from origin
Tc99m pertechnetate 12.6cm from origin
Tc99m labeled radiopharmaceutical 0cm from origin

a. 0
b. 0.20
c. 0.25
d. 4.8

A

b. 0.20

54
Q

All of the following units are expressions of radiopharmaceutical specific activity except?

a. uCi/mg
b. kBq/mL
c. Ci/g
d. MBq/mole

A

d. MBq/mole

55
Q

A technologist needs 1mCi In111 Chloride at 0900 on May 18. The label on the radiopharmaceutical vial contains the following information:

Total activity: 3mCi
Total volume: 3mL
Assay: 1200 May 21

What volume is required to obtain the necessary activity on May 18?

a. 2.1mL
b. 1.4mL
c. 0.69mL
d. 0.48mL

A

d. 0.48mL

56
Q

If 25uCi of a radiopharmaceutical are to be administered for each kilogram of body weight, approximately how much activity should be administered to a child weighing 15.5kg?

a. 852uCi
b. 0.39mCi
c. 0.85mCi
d. 1.6mCi

A

b. 0.39mCi

57
Q

For labeling red blood cells, the prescribed adult dosage of Tc99m pertechnetate is 925MBq plus or minus 10 %. Which of the following dose calibrator readings obtained from the syringe containing the patient dosage would verify that the prescribed activity was dispensed?

a. 21mCi
b. 28mCi
c. 20mci
d. 25.5mCi

A

d. 25.5mCi

58
Q

When red blood cells are labeled with Tc99m using the in vivo method, in what order are the reagent’s injected into the patient?

a. Stannous pyrophosphate and Tc99m pertechnetate are administered at the same time
b. Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30min before Tc99m pertechnetate
c. Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 2-3hr before Tc99m pertechnetate
d. Tc99m pertechnetate is administered 15-30min before stannous pyrophosphate

A

b. Stannous pyrophosphate is administered 15-30min before Tc99m pertechnetate

59
Q

If the following reagents are available, what volume of each reagent must be added together to prepare 20mCi of Tc99m succimer?

Succimer Kit:
2.2mL succimer reagent: Use 1 part by volume to 2 parts of Tc99m pertechnetate
Tc99m pertechnetate:
Concentration = 20mCi/mL
Total Volume = 10mL

a. 0.5mL succimer 1mL Tc99m
b. 0.75mL succimer 0.5mL Tc99m
c. 1mL succimer 2.5mL Tc99m
d. 2mL succimer 4.5mL Tc99m

A

a. 0.5mL succimer 1mL Tc99m

60
Q 
Venipuncture materials labeled with which of the following expatriations dates may be used safely on August 10, 2005?
I. July 31, 2005
II. August 31, 2005
III. September 30, 2005
IV. October 1, 2006

a. IV only
b. III and IV only
c. II, III, or IV only
d. I, II, III, or IV

A

c. II, III, or IV only

61
Q

According to NRC regulations, all of the following information must appear in the record of Mo99 concentration measurements except?

a. ratio of Mo99 to Tc99m activities
b. time and date of measurement
c. name of the individual making the measurement
d. dose calibrator make and model

A

d. dose calibrator make and model

62
Q

According to NRC, a written directive must be prepared for administration of which of the following radiopharmaceuticals?

a. 1mCi In111 oxine
b. 5mCi I131 sodium iodide
c. 10mCi Ga67 citrate
d. 30mCi Tc99m sestamibi

A

b. 5mCi I131 sodium iodide

63
Q

If Tc99m eluate needs to be diluted to prepare other Tc99m labeled products, the correct diluent is which of the following?

a. sterile saline containing 0.2% thiosulfate
b. preservative-free isotonic saline
c. bacteriostatic saline
d. distilled water

A

b. preservative-free isotonic saline

64
Q

A unit dosage of Ga67 citrate calibrated for 0800 on July 9 contains 5mCi in 2.6mL. if 3mCi are needed on July 10 at 0800, what volume should be retained in the syringe?

a. 0.7mL
b. 1.1mL
c. 1.5mL
d. 1.9mL

A

d. 1.9mL

65
Q

If a 2.5Ci Mo99/Tc99m generator is estimated to contain 268mCi of Tc99m pertechnetate, but 198mCi are eluted, what is the approximate elution efficiency of the generator?

a. 74%
b. 26%
c. 11%
d. 8%

A

a. 74%

66
Q

Which of the following federal agencies regulates the packaging and transport of radioactive materials?

a. Department of Transportation
b. Environmental Protection Agency
c. Food and Drug Administration
d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

A

a. Department of Transportation

67
Q

Which of the following exposure rates indicate that a package containing radioactive material must be labeled with a category II dot label?

a. 65mR/hr at surface and 5.5mR/hr at 1m
b. 52mR/hr at surface and 2.2mR/hr at 1m
c. 35mR/hr at surface and 1mR/hr at 1m
d. 0.5mR/hr at surface and no detectable radiation

A

c. 35mR/hr at surface and 1mR/hr at 1m

68
Q

If the radiation intensity of a point source at 0.5m measures 36mR/hr, at what distance will the intensity be halved?

a. 0.5m
b. 0.7m
c. 2.3m
d. 7.1m

A

b. 0.7m

69
Q

If the HVL of Co60 in lead is 1.25cm, what percentage of Co60 photons is absorbed from Co60 source shielded with 2.5cm of lead?

a. 25%
b. 50%
c. 75%
d. 87.5%

A

c. 75%

70
Q

According to the NRC, a written directive is required for the administration of all of the following radiopharmaceuticals except?

a. 25mCi I131 sodium iodide
b. 20mCi F18 FDG
c. 15mCi P32 sodium phosphate
d. 10mCi Sr89 chloride

A

b. 20mCi F18 FDG

71
Q

According to NRC regulations, the annual occupational dose limit to any organ or tissue other than the eye is?

a. 50mSv
b. 5mSv
c. 15rem
d. 50rem

A

d. 50rem

72
Q

According to NRC regulation, which of the following cannot be disposed of in the sewage system?

a. disposable diaper of a child who has received Ga67
b. feces from a patient who received I131 therapy
c. unused I123 sodium iodide capsules
d. urine from a renal test

A

c. unused I123 sodium iodide capsules

73
Q

In performing a room survey with an end-window G-M counter, the technologist should first?

a. measure the room background
b. perform a battery check on the counter
c. measure each area designated on the survey diagram
d. perform a wipe test on each designated area

A

b. perform a battery check on the counter

74
Q

A technologist monitors the empty carton from a shipment of I131 sodium iodide. The container measures 0.08mR/hr, and room background measures 0.07mR/hr. The technologist should next?

a. obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose of the container in regular trash
b. dispose of the container as radioactive waste
c. wipe test the container for contamination
d. notify the NRC

A

a. obliterate any radiation symbols and dispose of the container in regular trash

75
Q

According to NRC regulations, in what areas can radioxenon be administered?

a. in any room that can be closed off with doors
b. only in rooms that have xenon alarm system
c. only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressured
d. in any room where G-M detector is available for use

A

c. only in imaging rooms that can be negatively pressured

76
Q

When can a decay factor be used to calibrate a unit dosage in place of measuring the dosage in a dose calibrator?

a. a dose calibrator must be used to measure every dosage
b. only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration
c. only if the dosage contains Tc99m
d. only if the dosage contains less than 1mCi activity

A

b. only if a unit dosage was not manipulated after preparation and calibration

77
Q

A patient received 5mCi of I131 sodium iodide for treatment of hyperthyroidism. The patient should adhere to all of the following instructions except?

a. minimize close contact with others
b. wash hands after using the toilet
c. remain at home at least 30 days
d. drink plenty of water

A

c. remain at home at least 30 days

78
Q

After a Tc99m spill, decontamination procedures have not been able to remove all of the spilled material. if the current exposure rate is 32mR/hr, how long will it take for the exposure rate to drop to 2mR/hr?

a. 16hr
b. 18hr
c. 24hr
d. 30hr

A

c. 24hr

79
Q

If a patient must be hospitalized in isolation after receiving a high activity of I131, which of the following signs must be placed on the door of the isolation room?

a. “authorized personnel only”
b. sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room
c. “reverse isolation procedures required”
d. sign-in sheet to record name and age of each visitor

A

b. sign noting the length of time a visitor may stay in the room

80
Q

How soon after a medical event has occurred must the NRC be notified?

a. telephone notification no later than following calendar day
b. telephone notification within 72hr
c. written report within 5 regular workdays
d. written report within 30 calendar days

A

a. telephone notification no later than following calendar day

81
Q

According to the NRC, written instructions must be provided to a patient who has received radionuclide therapy when?

a. the patient is a female of childbaring age
b. the patient resides with children younger than 18 years of age
c. another individual may receive an exposure greater than 0.1rem from the patient
d. every patient must receive instructions, regardless of dosage

A

c. another individual may receive an exposure greater than 0.1rem from the patient

82
Q

Which of the following statements about the shielding method of performing a dose calibrator linearity test is true?

a. when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy
b. only a few microcuries of radioactivity are needed to perform the test
c. linearity must be tested more frequently if this method is used
d. a different source activity is required for each shield combination

A

a. when the shields are first used, the decay method must be used to confirm their accuracy

83
Q

The following dose calibrator constancy test results were obtained with a Co57 reference source:

Co57: Measured Value = 56.6uCi Calculated Value = 57.8uCi
Tc99m: Measured Value = 59.2uCi Calculated Value = 58.7uCi
I123: Measured Value = 46.9uCi Calculated Value = 51.7uCi
Tl201: Measured Value = 47.9uCi Calculated Value = 53.5uCi

Which of the following measured values falls within the limits according to the standard of practice?

a. Co57, Tc99m, I123, Tl201
b. Co57, Tc99m, I123
c. Tc99m, I123, Tl201
d. Co57, Tc99m

A

b. Co57, Tc99m, I123

84
Q

To perform a constancy test on a dose calibrator that is used in a general nuclear medicine imaging department, the best choice of radionuclide settings on which to count the reference standard would include which of the following?

a. I1223, I125, I131
b. I125, Co57, Cs137
c. Tc99m, Tl201, I123
d. Co57, Cs137, I131

A

c. Tc99m, Tl201, I123

85
Q

The following data were obtained during a dose calibrator accuracy test:

Co57 Calculated Value = 80.6uCi Measured Value = 71uCi
Cs137 Calculated Value = 62.3uCi Measured Value = 55.9uCi

On the basis of these results, which of the following statements is true?

a. The wrong nuclides were used to perform the test
b. Insufficient radioactivity was used to perform the test
c. The instrument should be repaired or replaced
d. The instrument accurately measures radionuclides of different energies

A

c. The instrument should be repaired or replaced

86
Q

Which of the following filters is a high-pass filter?

a. Butterworth
b. Hanning
c. Parzen
d. Ramp

A

d. Ramp

87
Q

In quantitating scintillation camera detector uniformity, the central field of veiw (CFOV) is defined as the diameter of the useful field of view (UFOV) times?

a. 0.75
b. 0.5
c. 0.33
d. 0.25

A

a. 0.75

88
Q

When the heart rate is 95beats/min, what is the length of an average R-R interval?

a. 0.5sec
b. 0.63sec
c. 1sec
d. 1.6sec

A

b. 0.63sec

89
Q

To perform pixel calibration, two capillary sources are placed on the camera surface 15cm apart. From an image acquired using a 128 x 128 matrix, an activity profile is generated on the computer. If the profile shows that there are 45 pixels between the two activity peaks, the pixel size is?

a. 0.02cm
b. 0.33cm
c. 3cm
d. 42cm

A

b. 0.33cm

90
Q

Coincidence loss is likely to occur when using a well counter if the?

a. energy of the radionuclide is below 50keV
b. energy of the radionuclide is above 50keV
c. activity of the source is below 1uCi
d. activity of the source is above 2mCi

A

d. activity of the source is above 2mCi

91
Q

To assure a maximum error of 2% at the 95% confidence level, all samples that are measured in a well counter should be counted for a time interval that produces at least?

a. 10,000 counts
b. 5,000 counts
c. 1000 cpm
d. 500 cpm

A

a. 10,000 counts

92
Q

If a Cs137 source used to determine constancy of a dose calibrator was originally calibrated to contain 200uCi on June 1, 1998, what would be the expected activity of the source on June 1, 2002 (1 year decay factor of 0.977; 2-year decay factor of 0.955)?

a. 195.4uCi
b. 191uCi
c. 186.6uCi
d. 182.4uCi

A

d. 182.4uCi

93
Q

It has been determined that a correction factor of 1.15 must be used when a 5mL syringe containing about 25mCi is measured in a particular dose calibrator. If a unit dosage activity reads 26.2mCi, what is the true activity?

a. 22.7mCi
b. 25.1mCi
c. 27.4mCi
d. 30.1mCi

A

d. 30.1mCi

Steves Exams (9 decks)

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