Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMB > Exam 6 (no drugs) > Flashcards

Exam 6 (no drugs) Flashcards

1
Q

Demyelination causes clinical symptoms because of?

A

Conduction block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

  • describe presentation
  • diagnosis
  • treatment
  • can cause death due to to
A

DEMYELINATING PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY

  1. Presentation
    - ascending paralysis
    - loss of reflexes
  2. CSF Findings
    - elevated protein
  3. Treatment
    - IVIG
    - mechanical ventilation if required
  4. Death due to respiratory failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Multiple sclerosis epidemiology

  • age group
  • gender
  • hereditary?
  • latitude
A
  1. 95% in ages 15-50
    - 2nd most common cause of neurological deficit in the age group
  2. 2/1 = female/male
  3. Yes there’s a hereditary component
  4. Higher risk if spend adolescence in temperate zone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

MS lesions tend to cluster in which areas? significance?

A

Where white matter is in direct contact w/ CSF

Explains the vision loss, walking issues (cerebellum) and bladder dysdx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are psychiatric and behavioral changes associated w/ MS?

A

B/c it hits the frontal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Compare old vs new MS lesions on MR

A

New/active lesions - contrast enhancement

Old lesions - increased signal on T2 w/out enhancement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain internuclear ophthalmoplegia

Bilateral INO pathognomonic for?

A

Damage to the MLF
-nystagmus when abducting eye on affected side and unable to adduct the opposite eye

Bilateral INO seen in MS due to demyelination of the MLF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

List 8 clinical findings associated with MS. (Goljan)

A
  1. Sensory dysfx
  2. UMN dysfx
    - including babinski
  3. Autonomic dysfx
    - urge incontinence
    - sexual dysfx
    - bowel motility problems
  4. Optic neuritis
    - inflammation of optic nerve
    - blurry or sudden loss of vision
  5. Cerebellar ataxia
  6. Scanning speech (sound drunk)
  7. Intention tremor (nystagmus)
  8. Bilateral INO
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What test can be used to assess for evidence of primary demyelination/remyelination pathophysiology?

A

Visual evoked potentials

-delay after remyelination occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CSF findings in MS

A

ALWAYS IMAGE FIRST

  1. slight pleocytosis (10-15 lymphocytes)
  2. Elevated CSF index (>0.6) -> too much IgG present in CSF relative to plasma
  3. Oligoclonal bands
    - measure IgG spikes
    - compare to serum
    - allowed to have one more than what is present in the serum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What’s one thing you should always check for when MS exacerbation is suspected?

A

INFECTION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Central pontine myelinolysis

  • pathophys
  • cause by
  • increased risk from
  • clinical presentation
  • imaging
A
  1. Path - demyelination of ventral pons
  2. Caused by rapid correction of hyponatremia
  3. Increased risk from malnutrition and alcohol
  4. Locked in state, quadriplegia or even coma
  5. Imaging
    - Increased T2 signal in the pons
    - trident sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PML tends to attack which area of the brain? What sxs are seen? What is the time course?

A

Posterior areas

Aphasia, visual defects and hemiparesis

Subacute to chronic onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnosis for PML

  • MRI
  • CSF
  • Serum
A
  1. MRI
    - non-enhancing
    - no mass effects
  2. CSF
    - pcr for JCV virus
  3. Serum
    - Serum JC antibodies (found in 60-80% of population)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is IRIS and it’s association with PML?

A
  • Reconstituting immune system leading to intense inflammatory reaction in region of PML
  • Can cause herniation
  • Seen when AIDS patients put on triple therapy (HAART)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Acute Disseminated Encephalomyelitis

  • onset time course
  • Follows what?
  • how can it lead to death
  • MRI findings
  • CSF
  • Treatment
A
  1. Onset
    -rapid (hours to days)
    headache -> lethargy -> coma
  2. Follows viral infection or vaccination
    viral -> express Ag that cross reacts w/ myelin
    vaccination -> measles
  3. Death due to cerebral edema and mass effect if not txed
  4. MRI
    - Gadolinium enhancement of white matter
    - remember PML is non-enhancing
  5. CSF
    - moderate lymphocytic pleocytosis (50-100 cells)
    - elevated protein
    - oligoclonal bands (less common)
  6. Treatment
    - IV methylprednisolone (1000 mg)
    - hemicraniectomy may be necessary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Charcot Marie Tooth Disease

  • which type of neuropathy?
  • progression time?
  • rarely complain of?
  • inheritance?
A
  • length dependent sensorimotor peripheral neuropathy
  • progresses over years to decades
  • rarely complain of numbness or tingling
  • autosomal dominant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CMT-1 conduction velocity (slow or fast)

compare the 3 types of CMT-1

A

CMT1 has very slow conduction velocities (dysmyelinating)

CMT1A

  • PMP22 duplication
  • 75% of all CMT1

CMT1B
-myelin protein zero
20% of all CMT1

CMT1X

  • looks like CMT1 but never has male to male inheritance
  • connexin 32
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

CMT-2 conduction velocity (slow or fast)

A

normal motor conduction velocity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the most common hereditary ataxia?

A

Friedreich’s ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

  • inheritance
  • gene involved and what does it code for
  • age group
  • sx triad
  • other systems associated
  • tx
A
  1. autosomal recessive
  2. Frataxin gene deficiency (9q13)
    - trinucleotide repeat disorder
    - deficiency leads to impaired mitochondrial iron homeostasis
    - cells are more prone to apoptosis
  3. Adolescent and young adults - slow onset
  4. Triad
    - absent ankle reflexes (peripheral neuropathy)
    - bilateral babinski
    - dysmetria (ataxia)
  5. Multisystems
    - hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (major)
    - diabetes (1:4)
    - scoliosis (1:4)
6. Tx
–Treat diabetes 
–Correct scoliosis
–Manage hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
•  vigilant blood pressure control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Suspicion for Huntington’s based on?

Age of onset?

Huntington gene?

MRI findings?

Best test to dx?

How do you tx?

A

Triad

  • psychiatric/cognitive probs
  • chorea
  • dominant inheritance

Age
5-70 (usually 25-45)

Huntington gene (expanded GAG repeats; chromosome 4)

MRI - caudate atrophy/diffuse atrophy
-these occur later

GENETIC TESTING IS BEST

Treatment
-Atypical and traditional antipsychotics can help
psychosis, SSRIs depression, anxiolytics for anxiety
-No treatment effective for primary process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

ALS

  • clinical presentation
  • what’s spared
  • inheritance?
  • cognition?
  • pathogenesis
  • dx
  • treatment
A
  1. clinical presentation
    - UMN and LMN signs
    - usually starts in intrinsic muscles of the hands
  2. sensation, bladder/bowel fx and eye control are spared!
  3. 5-10% dominantly inheritance
  4. Cognition spared but subset have frontotemporal dementia
  5. Mutated or misfolded SOD1 leading to apoptosis of neurons
  6. Dx of exclusion
    - MRI
    - EMG
    - FVC
  7. Treatment
    Riluzole - glutamate antagonist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the safety margin percentage beyond which patients with alzheimer’s start to display symptoms

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

List all the histological changes associated with Alzheimer’s. What location do you expect these changes to occur? (be able to recognize the image)

A

Cerebral cortex and hippocampus

  • neuritic plaques
  • neurofibrillary tangles
  • granulovacuolar degeneration
  • congophilic angiopathy: beta amyloid
  • Hirano bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Pittsburgh compound binds to what? How is it visualized?

A

Binds to amyloid deposits

Visualized on PET scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Frontotemporal lobar degeneration often initially presents with what? Often misdxed as?

Late stage sxs?

A

EARLY
Personality and behavior changes
-Misdxed as psychiatric disorder

LATE

  • gradual reduction in speech
  • akinesia and rigidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Highlight some of the differences b/w (there are 2)

A

FTD

  • earlier onset compared to AD
  • at an early stage, do not cause the memory loss and visuo-spatial disorientation that are so characteristic of AD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cortical areas are affected with FTD (there are 5)

A
  1. ACC
  2. Frontal insula
  3. Frontal pole
  4. Orbitofrontal cortex
  5. Temporal pole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Pick’s disease

  • age of onset
  • inheritance
  • clinical course
  • area of brain affected
  • compensatory mechs
  • tx
A
  • age around 60
  • sometimes autosomal dominant
  • clinical course 2 - 5 years (dead)
  • Extreme frontotemporal atrophy (knife like gyria)
  • compensatory hydrocephalus
  • no tx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Huntington’s disease

  • inheritance
  • age range
  • late manifestations (decade of life)
  • early changes
  • late changes
A
  1. Inheritance
    - autosomal dominant
  2. Age range
    - 20 to 50
  3. Late manifestations
    - 4th to 5th decades
  4. Early changes
    - personality and depression
  5. Choreiform movements, jerking and dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Huntington’s genetics

  • which chromosome affected
  • type of mutation
A
  • chromosome 4

- expanded unstable trinucleotide (CAG) repeat -> more repeats = earlier onset of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which regions of the brain are damaged in Huntington’s?

What’s the structural consequence of these changes?

A

Marked atrophy of the caudate nucleus

  • loss of small to medium sized neurons
  • fibrillary gliosis (astrocytosis)

Putamen and cortical atrophy
-variable

Ex vacuo dilations of the anterior horns of lateral ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ALS

  • UMN or LMN?
  • Males vs females
  • age
  • breakdown of sporadic vs familial
  • Which chromosome (what does it code for)
A
  1. Both UMN and LMN
    - UMN -> prefrontal cortex
    - LMN -> CN nuclei and anterior horn cells of SC
  2. Males > females
  3. Age > 40
  4. 90% sporadic; 10% familial
  5. Chromosome 21q
    - codes for superoxide dismutase
    - toxic action of mutated enzyme -> decreased zinc binding capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ALS clinical presentation

A

Initial presentation - asymmetrical weakness

LMN: muscle atrophy, weakness, fasciculations

UMN: weakness and spasticity

Progressive w/ loss of all voluntary movement; death from respiratory failure or sepsis

Intellect unimpaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ALS variants

  • progressive bulbar palsy
  • progressive muscular atrophy
  • primary lateral sclerosis
A
  1. Cranial nerve involvement
    - dysarthria, dysphagia and respiratory compromise
  2. Predominant LMN involvement
    - spinal cord anterior horn involvement
  3. Confined to the corticospinal tract
    - UMN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

  • inheritance
  • mutation (which chromosome/type)
  • function of the gene
A
  1. autosomal dominant
  2. Chromosome 9
    - trinucleotide (GAA) expansion on gene coding for frataxin
    - results in low levels of the protein
    - frataxin plays a role in iron homeostasis in the mitochondria
    - get mitochondrial iron accumulation
    - cells are more prone to apoptosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

-sites of degeneration (from goljan = 5)

A
  • DRG
  • Posterior columns
  • Spinocerebellar tracts
  • lateral corticospinal tracts
  • large sensory peripheral neurons
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

-clinical findings (5)

A
  • progressive
  • gait ataxia to ataxia of all extremities
  • loss of tendon reflexes, cerebellar dysarthria
  • impaired joint position, vibration
  • pes cavus: arches feet, claw toes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Friedreich’s ataxia

-associated with (from goljan = 2)

A
  • hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

- DM1 (10%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the most useful diagnosis for CJD?

A

EEG - Slow (1-2 cycles/sec) generalized triphasic periodic sharp wave complexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How does FLAIR MRI work? What is it good for?

A
  • facilitates the visualization of ABNORMAL parenchymal water content resulting from pathology
  • great for edema generating pathology and white matter lesions (such as MS)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the signature feature seen on microscopy with acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM)

  • what’s lost?
  • infiltrates?
A

narrow cuffs or sleeves of myelin loss around small veins

-cellular infiltrates in demyelinated areas are composed of macrophages

44
Q

Is level of consciousness affected with dementia?

A

NOOOOOO

45
Q

What’s the single most important treatable cause of dementia?

A

Pseudo-dementia secondary to DEPRESSION

46
Q

Peripheral neuropathy with myelopathy suggests?

A

B-12 deficiency

-combination of increased and absent reflexes

47
Q

Risk 3 causes of metabolic dementia

A
  1. Hypothyroidism
  2. DM
    - repeated episodes of hypoglycemia
    - risk factor for multi-infarct dementia
  3. B-12 deficiency
    - surgery
    - anemia
48
Q

Describe the spontaneous movements seen with the following diseases?

  1. Parkinsons
  2. Huntingtons
  3. Prions
A
  1. Tremors
  2. Chorea
  3. Myoclonus
49
Q

Triad for normal pressure hydrocephalus

Describe the CSF

A

Triad
-dementia, gait apraxia, incontinence

CSF is normal (including pressure)
-no papilledema

50
Q

List 4 risk factors for multi-infarct dementia

A
  • HTN
  • diabetes
  • cardiac disease
  • age
51
Q

Nucleus basalis of Meynert

  • affected in which disease?
  • which NT produced here?
A
  • Alzheimer’s

- cholinergic

52
Q

List 3 brain pathologies that are more likely to occur in alcoholics

A
  • subdural hematoma
  • closed head injuries
  • chronic meningitis
53
Q

Which drug sometimes given to Parkinson’s disease patients causes dementia?

A

Cogentin (benztropine) -> anticholinergic

54
Q

What are the initial sxs seen with dementia w/ Lewy bodies

what’s spared initially?

what follows the cognitive changes?

A
  • visual hallucinations
  • REM sleep disorders
  • delirium
  • memory initially spared (frontal and executive fxs affected)
  • Parkinsonism follows
55
Q

Frontotemporal dementia

  • common as Alzheimer’s in which age group?
  • what precedes memory probs?
  • extrapyramidal findings?
  • sparing of?
A
  1. 50 - 70
  2. Frontal lobe dysfx
    - disinhibition, apathy, compulsion
    - impaired judgement, planning and lack of insight
  3. axial rigidity and dystonia
  4. Sparing of cholinergic system
56
Q

DSM-IV classification for mental illness requires what 3 conditions?

A
  • present distress
  • disability
  • increased risk of pain, death, disability or an important loss of freedom
57
Q

Define the five axes used to classify diagnoses in the DSM-IV

What needs to be ruled out before axis I dx can be made?

Which one doesn’t have a pharmacological intervention?

A

Axis I - diagnoses for all major psychiatric disorders
-axis III must be ruled out first

Axis II - Diagnoses of personality or developmental disorders
-no pharm intervention

Axis III - diagnoses of other medical illnesses

Axis IV - current stresses

Axis V - level of functioning

58
Q

Diagnostic criteria for major depressive disorder

SIG E CAPS

A

Episodes lasting 6-12 months.
Episodes = 5/9 of the following sxs for at least 2 weeks

  • Sleep disturbance
  • Loss of Interest (anhedonia)
  • Guilt or feelings of worthlessness
  • Loss of Energy
  • Loss of Concentration
  • Appetite/weight changes
  • Psychomotor retardation or agitation
  • Suicidal ideations
  • Depressed mood
59
Q

What are 4 key domains of development?

A
  • gross motor
  • fine motor
  • speech
  • social
60
Q

Childhood febrile seizures - key points

  • Age
  • how common
  • recurrence risk
  • epilepsy risk
A

Age -> 6 months to 5 years

Fairly common

Recurrence risk - 1/3

Epilepsy risk - 2%

61
Q

What’s an important difference b/w workup of simple febrile seizure vs non-fibrile seizure

A

Do imaging and get EEG with non-febrile

62
Q

2 lesion causes that may cause focal seizures

A

Cysticercosis and AVM

63
Q

Non-febrile seizures in children - key points

  • Common
  • Recurrence risk idiopathic
  • Recurrence risk symptomatic
  • Treat
  • Safety
A
  • Common - yes
  • Recurrence risk idiopathic - 30%
  • Recurrence risk symptomatic(e.g. lesion) - 70%
  • Treat - not if it’s there first
  • Safety
64
Q

Describe focal seizure presentation

A

staring seizure w/ automatic behaviors (e.g. lip smacking) followed by ictal phase

65
Q

Offset seen with absence epilepsy

A

Abrupt - child returns to normal awareness and activity

66
Q

The term developmental delay is reserved for kids up until what age?

A

5 or 6

67
Q

Head circumference in child indicative of CNS prob

A

2 SD below normal

CHECK IN KIDS UNDER 3

68
Q

Diagnosis of delirium

A

Confusion assessment method
-requires 1 AND 2 and either 3 OR 4

○  #1 Acute and Fluctuating course 
○  #2 Inattention
○  #3 Disorganized thinking
○  #4 Altered L.O.C.

69
Q

3 regions of the brain involved with delirium

A
  1. Prefrontal cortex
  2. anterior thalamus
  3. nondominant parietal and fusiform cortex
70
Q

Mechanism of delirium

A
  • cholinergic deficiency
  • serotonin deficiency
  • GABA and DA
  • inflammation via cytokines (IL-2 or TNF)
71
Q

List 4 predisposing risk factors for delirium

A
  1. Advanced age
  2. Preexisting dementia
  3. Functional impairment in ADL
  4. High medical comorbidities
    - sever heart failure
72
Q

Precipitating risk factors for delirium

I WATCH DEATH

A

• Infection:
-especially urine and respiratory tract

• Withdrawal:
-benzodiazepines, alcohol, lack of sensory input (poor vision, hearing)

• Acute metabolic:
-medication side effects, especially sedating or anticholinergics

• Trauma:

• CNS Pathology:
-intracranial hemorrhage, stroke, tumor

• Hypoxia:
-Acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, CHF or COPD exacerbation

• Deficiencies:
-B12, folate

• Endocrinopathies:

• Acute Vascular:
-stroke

• Toxins

• Heavy Metals (lead, mercury)


73
Q

Identify 4 key steps in the management of delirium

A
  1. Identify and treat reversible contributors
  2. Maintain behavioral control
  3. Anticipate and prevent or manage complications
  4. Restore function in delirious pts.
74
Q

2 drugs most likely to be the cause of delirium?

A

Alcohol and benadryl

75
Q

Autonomic system activated in appetitive vs consummatory phases

A

Appetitive
-activation of motor behavior and sympathetic nervous system

Consummatory
-involves rest, sedation and activation of the parasympathetic nervous system

76
Q

What is the pleasure center in the brain

  • integration site for what structures?
  • interface b/w which systems?
A

NUCLEUS ACCUMBENS (Pleasure center)

• Integration site for cortical (prefrontal cortex) and subcortical (VTA, amygdala) input

• Critical interface between limbic and motor
systems thus linking motivation and action

77
Q

Common output pathway for drug reward is from nucleus accumbens to motor areas via the?

A

Ventral pallidum

78
Q

Reward deficiency syndrome cause?

A
  • due to a genetic deficiency in D2 DA receptor

- A1 allele carries -> 74% of developing on the the disorders associated with this syndrome

79
Q

2 mechanisms through which alcohol mediates its effects?

-which receptor systems

A

Enhances action of inhibitory GABA receptor complex

DECREASES the actions of the excitatory NMDA receptor

80
Q

Alcohol pharmacokinetics

  • absorption
  • metabolism
  • elimination
A

ABSORPTION

  • 1/4 through stomach
  • rest through small intestines

METABOLISM
-liver

ELIMINATION

  • 90% by oxidation in the liver
  • 10% through lungs and kidneys
81
Q

Alcohol pharmacodynamics

  • basic MoA
  • list the neurochemical targets
A

Basic MoA
-acts on membrane proteins and disrupts membrane functioning at high doses

Neurochemical targets

  • GABA
  • GLUTAMATE
  • DA
  • 5-TH
  • OPIOIDS
82
Q

Alcohol use disorder genetics

  • how much do genetics play a role?
  • number of genes involved?
  • inheritance pattern
A
  1. 50%
  2. multiple
  3. male to male
83
Q

Alcohol w/drawal

-time frame for seizures and delirium tremens

A

SEIZURES

  • first 48 hours
  • need to admit and tx

DELIRIUM TREMENS

  • highest risk on days 3 to 5
  • Symptoms in order of appearance: autonomic system hyperactivity (tachycardia, tremors, anxiety, seizures), psychotic symptoms (hallucinations, delusions), confusion.
  • Treatment: benzodiazepines.
84
Q

Acute vs chronic tolerance with nicotine use

A

Acute - activation and desensitization of NAChRs in CNS

Chronic - upregulation of NAChRs

85
Q

5 A’s for brief intervention in nicotine users

-effect on quit rate?

A

• ASK-identify all nicotine users at every visit
• ADVISE-urge all nicotine users to quit
• ASSESS-determine willingness to make a
quit attempt
• ASSIST-Aid the patient in quitting
• ARRANGE-Schedule follow-up contact

• Repeated use → doubles quit rate

86
Q

5 R’s to motivate nicotine users to quit

A

RELEVANCE

RISKS

REWARDS

ROADBLOCKS

REPETITION

87
Q

Test for detecting heavy alcohol use in the past 4-7 days

A

Carbohydrate deficient transferrin (CDT)

88
Q

Most sensitive way to determine alcohol in system

A

CDT + GGT

89
Q

Probs with urinary drug screen when checking for opioid use

A

• Might not catch the synthetics – oxycodone, hydromorphone

• Fentanyl and methadone don’t show up typically
-May need to do an assay

90
Q

craniosynostosis

A

-premature closure causes abnormal shape in skull as underlying brain grows

91
Q

Muscles derived from the pharyngeal arches and nerves

A

Arch 1

  • muscles of mastication
  • V

Arch 2

  • muscles of facial expression
  • VII

Arch 3

  • stylopharyngeus
  • IX

Arch 4

  • muscles of pharynx
  • X (superior laryngeal nerve)

Arch 6

  • muscles of larynx
  • X (recurrent laryngeal nerve)
92
Q

Sensory innervation for:

  • oral and nasal cavities
  • pharynx
  • larynx

(think cranial to caudal)

A
  • -CN V is GSA for oral and nasal cavities
  • -CN IX is GVA for pharynx
  • -CN X is GVA for larynx
93
Q

Physical signs of first arch syndromes

which syndrome included?

A

Low set ears and small jaw

Treacher Collins

94
Q

Tongue develops from which arches?

A

Parts of 1 - distal tongue bud

3 and 4 - hypopharyngeal eminence

95
Q

Sensory innervation to mucosa of the tongue

A
  • -CN V supplies sensory for anterior 2/3 of tongue (GSA)
  • -CN IX supplies posterior 1/3 (GVA)
  • -CN X supplies epiglottis (GVA)
96
Q

Which tongue skeletal muscle is not innervated by hypoglossal?

A

Palatoglossus (CN X)

97
Q

Thyroid gland develops as growth from

A

foramen cecum

98
Q

Thyroglossal cyst

A

–cysts are remnants of thyroglossal duct

–on midline, associated with hyoid bone

–surgical removal includes removal of midline hyoid bone (Sistrunk procedure)

99
Q

Derivatives of pharyngeal pouches

A

1st - middle ear

2nd - palatine tonsils

3rd - Thymus and inferior parathyroid gland

4th - superior parathyroid gland

100
Q

C-cells of thyroid gland formed from

A

ultimobranchial body (neural crest)

101
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

  • signs
  • which pouches
  • organ systems
  • defect in
A
  • micrognathia (small jaw)
  • agenesis of 3rd and 4th pouch derivatives (no thymus or PTHs)
  • cardiovascular anomalies
  • caused by defect in, or abnormal migration of, neural crest cells
102
Q

Holoprosencephaly

A

syndrome resulting from improper development of the forebrain, causes facial anomalies

Fetal alcohol syndrome

103
Q

Embryological separation of primary and secondary palate

A

incisive fossa

104
Q

Pierre robin syndrome

3 things

A

micrognathia, cleft palate, glossoptisis

105
Q

foster kennedy syndrome

  • most common cause
  • signs and sxs
A

-meningioma

signs and sxs

  • ipsilateral anosmia -> olfactory bulb
  • ipsilateral optic atrophy -> optic nerve
  • contralateral papilledema -> inc ICP
106
Q

Medial medullary syndrome

  • infarct of which artery
  • causes
A
  • penetrating branches of anterior spinal artery

- alternating hypoglossal hemiplegia

BMB (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions