Exam 6 Flashcards
1
Q
- All of the following are true of stuttering, except:
a. it is more common in males than females.
b. it may be accompanied by motor movements such as lip tremors or eye blinks.
c. onset is commonly around the age of 5, but frequently after the age of 10.
d. onset is commonly around the age of 5 and rarely after the age of 10.
A
- C– According to the DSM-IV, the onset of stuttering is usually between the ages of 2-7 years, with peak onset at the age of 5. In 98% of cases, onset is before age 10. Choices A and B are true: stuttering is three times more common in males, and is often accompanied by motor movements.
2
Q
- To best reduce the likelihood that a persuasive message will change a person’s mind, the person should be provided with which of the following before hearing the persuasive message?
a. weak support for his initial position
b. strong support for his initial position
c. a weak argument against his current position.
d. a strong argument against the persuasive message
A
- C– This question is referring to the notion of inoculation, which was derived from the medical usage of the term where it refers to exposing people to a weak form of a virus so that they are resistant to the virus in the future. In terms of resistance to persuasion, inoculation here refers to exposing a person to a weak argument against one’s current position.
3
Q
- In an attempt to increase motivation among employees, a company begins to pay employees based on their output. This will most likely result in:
a. increased job satisfaction and increased quality of work
b. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quality of work
c. decreased job dissatisfaction and increased quantity of work
d. increased job satisfaction and no change in quantity of work
A
- C– If a person’s pay is based on output, his or her output is likely to increase, but the quality of work will not necessarily increase. This makes sense – if you are working so fast in order to produce more so that you can get paid more, the quality of your work is likely to suffer. In addition, increased pay is likely to decrease job dissatisfaction, as predicted by Herzberg’s two-factor theory.
4
Q
- Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following?
a. sensory systems
b. motor systems
c. memory
d. mood
A
- A– Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not “shared with” the left hemisphere.
5
Q
- Which of the following individuals would agree that the acquisition of language is due largely to biologically-programmed capacities?
a. Piaget
b. Vygotsky
c. Chomsky
d. Bruner
A
- C– The belief that language acquisition relies primarily on innate biological capacities is referred to as the nativist position. Of the theorists listed, only Chomsky is classified as a nativist. He proposed the existence of an innate “language acquisition device.”
6
Q
- Limited “floor” would be the biggest problem when a test will be used to
a. distinguish between mildly and moderately retarded children.
b. distinguish between above-average and gifted students.
c. distinguish between successful and unsuccessful trainees.
d. distinguish between satisfied and dissatisfied customers.
A
- A–“Floor” refers to a test’s ability to distinguish between examinees at the low end of the distribution, which would be an issue when distinguishing between those with mild versus moderate retardation. Limited floor occurs when the test does not contain enough easy items. Note that “ceiling” would be of concern for tests designed to distinguish between examinees at the high end of the distribution (answer B).
7
Q
- Which of the following is associated with the shift in perspective from “time from birth” to “time to death”?
a. Levinson
b. Erikson
c. Neugarten
d. Freud
A
- C–From her research on the personality characteristics of adults aged 40-70, Neugarten (1968) found midlife to be characterized by this shift in perspective. This finding followed the Kansas City Study findings that people around age 50 experience a transition from active to passive mastery and outer to inner-world orientation. Levinson’s “seasons of a man’s life” and Erikson’s stages are theories of adult personality development that address developmental conflicts
8
Q
- You are working as a psychologist in a hospital with a patient suffering from head trauma. In your presence, the patient develops Delirium. In this situation, you should:
a. bring more people into the room.
b. find a physician for a medication consultation.
c. stay with the person to provide support and help him remain calm.
d. recommend ECT treatment.
A
- C– This is a difficult question because it requires you to know about clinical management of Delirium and then to choose between two choices that are not bad answers. General principles of addressing an episode of Delirium include providing environmental support, manipulating the patient’s environment in order to reduce confusion and disorientation, and giving medication if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or has insomnia. In other words, both B and C are good answers to this question. However, C is better for the following reasons: 1) Not all Delirium patients require medication; only if the patient is agitated, psychotic, or can’t sleep at night is medication necessary, and 2) choice B implies that you would leave the patient to go find a physician. You should not leave a patient with Delirium alone, and even if a nurse or somebody else were available to stay with the patient, you should avoid sudden changes in a Delirium patient’s environment.
Let’s look at the other choices. Choice A, as phrased, is not a good idea – bringing strange people into the room could increase the patient’s sense of disorientation and confusion. Having a relative or other familiar person stay with the patient is a good idea, but choice A is not specific about what people you would bring into the room. Choice D, ECT, is actually used in rare cases for patients who do not respond to environmental manipulation or medication; however, you certainly would not recommend it right away. By the way, the primary treatment of Delirium – addressing the underlying medical or substance-related disorder that is causing the symptom – is not a choice here.
9
Q
- From the perspective of Bandura’s social learning theory, “functional value” refers to:
a. external reinforcements.
b. anticipated consequences.
c. self-efficacy beliefs.
d. relationship to previous learning.
A
- B– Functional value is pretty much what it sounds like. According to Bandura, a behavior has functional value when the person anticipates that performing it will result in desirable consequences (i.e., when the behavior serves a function).
10
Q
- A baby uses his/her hand to grab a toy and then squeezes it which produces an interesting sound, and this leads to the baby repeating the action. This is an example of what Piaget described as a:
a. primary circular reaction
b. secondary circular reaction
c. tertiary circular reaction
d. reflexive circular reaction
A
- B– Most of the cognitive development that occurs during the sensorimotor stage, according to Piaget, is the result of circular reactions - wherein a child learns to do something that produces an interesting or pleasurable experience which originally had happened by chance. Primary circular reactions (a.) center around the baby’s own body and involve simple motor actions like thumb sucking. Secondary circular reactions are actions involving an other person or object and are predominate from 4 to 8 months of age. Tertiary circular reactions (c.) involve seeing what occurs when an original action is varied on an external object. This is predominate from 12 to 18 months of age. Piaget associated reflexes (d.) with cognitive development from birth to 1 month of age.
11
Q
- The ability to understand that changing an object’s appearance doesn’t change the object’s physical qualities typically develops during years:
a. 0 to 2
b. 2 to 6
c. 7 to 10
d. 11 to 13
A
- C– Conservation is the ability to understand that changing an object’s appearance doesn’t change the object’s physical qualities. For example, water poured from a tall thin glass into a short wide glass will be conserved, or understood to be the same amount of water. Conservation develops during the concrete operations stage (7 to 12 years). Note that there may be slight variations between age ranges that you have studied and the age ranges presented in test questions. In this case, the most correct choice is 7 to 10 years, which falls within the 7 to 12 year range. Choice D, 11 to 13 years, overlaps between the high end of concrete operations and the low end of formal operations (12 onward) – which is not as good a choice for the typical development of concrete operations.
12
Q
- Studies investigating the social cognition correlates of aggression in children suggest that the cognitive biases of these children tend to create a
a. self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
b. contrast effect.
c. personal fable.
d. rebound effect.
A
- A– Research by N. R. Crick and K. A. Dodge (A review and reformulation of social information-processing mechanisms in children’s social adjustment, Psychological Bulletin, 1994, 115,74-101), for example, found that aggressive children often misinterpret the ambiguous or prosocial behaviors of peers as hostile in intent and respond in aggressive ways. The peers then respond negatively, thereby, creating a self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
13
Q
- Recent research on HIV infection has examined the role of psychosocial risk factors on disease progression and prognosis. The results of studies involving infected adults has most consistently found:
a. lower intellectual functioning and younger age are related to a more rapid progression
b. higher intellectual functioning and older age are related to a more rapid progression
c. somatic symptoms of depression and younger age are related to a more rapid progression
d. somatic symptoms of depression and older age are related to a more rapid progression
A
- D– Findings of recent studies indicate that the factors of intellectual functioning, age and somatic symptoms of depression are significant predictors of HIV progression and prognosis. Specifically, lower IQ, older age and the presence of somatic symptoms of depression are associated with a more rapid progression from HIV infection to AIDS, HIV-related dementia, and death. (See: Farinpour, R., et al., Psychosocial risk factors of HIV morbidity and mortality: Findings from the Multicenter Aids Cohort Study (MACS), Journal of Clinical and Experimental Neuropsychology, 2003, 25(5), 654-670.)
14
Q
- Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when a college student is not accepted by the sorority she most wanted to join, the student will
a. blame the sorority for not being accepted.
b. blame herself for not being accepted.
c. decide that she doesn’t really want to be in the sorority after all.
d. feel depressed until an alternative sorority accepts her.
A
- C– Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when we have two conflicting cognitions (e.g., I like the club but they don’t want me”), we’ll be motivated to reduce the tension that this causes by changing one of our cognitions. Since the student can’t change the sorority’s decision in this situation, she’s likely to change her attitude toward the sorority.
15
Q
- Avoidance behavior is difficult to treat because:
a. classical conditioning models don’t apply.
b. treatments require unacceptable levels of pain or other aversive applications.
c. the feared stimulus is never presented.
d. conditioning was done originally on an intermittent schedule.
A
- C– This is a familiar question. You might have seen something like it before. Once you change the terms into “English,” it shouldn’t be difficult. Basically it says that a fear (think of a phobia) is difficult to treat because you hardly ever confront it. If someone is afraid of bridges and never travels across a river on a bridge, you can never treat the person. Remember that treatments for phobias include at some point directly confronting the fear, through direct exposure to the feared object. If we avoid the object, we never get the chance to extinguish the reaction. None of the other alternatives comes as close to answering the question. As a test-taking strategy, it’s a good idea to translate a question into “English” and give it a simple and exaggerated example. Then, find the answer that best explains your example.
16
Q
- According to the National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) findings, the median delay in getting treatment across all psychological disorders is approximately:
a. a year
b. 2-3 years
c. 6-7 years
d. a decade
A
- D– D. R.C. Kessler and colleagues surveyed 9,282 English-speaking respondents, aged 18 and older, to estimate “the severity and persistence of mental disorders, and the degree to which they impair individuals and families, and burden employers and the U.S. economy.” Results from the National Comorbidity Survey Replication (2005) indicate: half of all lifetime cases of mental illness start by age 14; at some point in their life, approximately half of Americans will meet the criteria for a DSM-IV disorder; a relatively small proportion of cases are serious cases with high comorbidity; 60 percent of those with a psychological disorder got no treatment at all over a 12 month period and the median delay in getting treatment across all mental disorders is nearly a decade. (See: Kessler, R.C., Berglund, P., Demler, O., Jin, R., Merikangas, K.R., & Walters, E.E. (2005). Lifetime Prevalence and Age-of-Onset Distributions of DSM-IV Disorders in the National Comorbidity Survey Replication. Archives of General Psychiatry. 62(6), 593-602.)
17
Q
- Marital therapy based on the principles of social learning theory most often emphasizes
a. behavioral therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
b. individual exploratory therapy for each spouse combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
c. group therapy combined with communication and problem-solving skills training.
d. group therapy combined with individual behavior-oriented therapy for each spouse.
A
- A– Social learning theory has been applied to family therapy in the area of marital therapy as well as child management. In both cases, the emphasis is on behavioral methodology as well as on communication and problem-solving skills. For example, in marital therapy based on the principles of behavioral and social learning theory, typical methods include functional analysis of the spouses’ behaviors, contracts stipulating specific behavioral changes, communication skills training, and directive advice regarding solutions to problems. Consistent with the principles of social learning theory, the therapist will often model healthy communication and interpersonal behavior for the couple.
18
Q
- While studying the use of journaling in the treatment of depression, a researcher finds only individuals with good writing ability benefit from journaling. Writing ability is a(n):
a. outcome variable
b. mediating variable
c. moderator variable
d. feedback variable
A
- C– The strength of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables is affected by a moderator variable. Writing ability is moderating the effects of journaling on the treatment of depression. Outcome variable (a.) is another term for dependent variable. A mediating variable (c.) is affected by the independent variable and affects the dependent. It is responsible for an observed relationship between an independent variable and a dependent (outcome) variable. A feedback variable (d.) is an unrelated term.
19
Q
- At the request of an attorney, a psychologist in a rural community agrees to conduct a psychological evaluation and provide treatment for the same person. This would probably be considered:
a. ethical, since both services are within the boundaries of a professional relationship
b. ethical, if the psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize any negative effects
c. unethical, since evaluation and treatment are inherently conflicting
d. unethical, since only a patient, not an attorney can request treatment services
A
- B– As a general rule, psychologists should avoid potentially conflicting relationships, which could result when conducting both an evaluation and treatment for a patient. However, according to APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), “When it is necessary to provide both evaluation and treatment services to a party in a legal proceeding (as may be the case in small forensic hospital settings or small communities), the forensic psychologist takes reasonable steps to minimize the potential negative effects of these circumstances on the rights of the party, confidentiality, and the process of treatment and evaluation.” [Law and Human Behavior, 15 (6), p.659].
20
Q
- Research on the relationship between self-esteem, biological sex and gender-role suggests:
a. biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in children
b. biological sex has a greater impact than gender role on self-esteem in males
c. a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-
esteem in males
d. a combination of masculine and feminine characteristics and preferences is associated with the highest levels of self-
esteem in children
A
- D– D. J. A. Hall and A. G. Halberstadt’s original research found gender-role identity to have a greater impact than biological sex on self-esteem in children and that androgyny (both masculine and feminine preferences and characteristics) is associated with the highest levels of self-esteem in both boys and girls (See: J. A. Hall & A. G. Halberstadt. Masculinity and femininity in children: Development of the Children’s Personal Attributes Questionnaire, Developmental Psychology, 1980, 16, 270-280]. Subsequent studies supported these findings and some have also found that masculinity, to a somewhat lesser degree, is associated with higher levels of self-esteem than femininity in both boys and girls.
21
Q
- You have been working with a couple in marital therapy for four months, with slow but notable progress. After a session one day, the wife pulls you aside and asks to make some individual appointments with you. You should
a. refer her to another therapist.
b. wait until the completion of marital therapy and then see her individually.
c. terminate with the couple and see the woman individually.
d. encourage her to discuss any relevant issues within the context of marital therapy.
A
- A– There is a potential for role conflict when a client in conjoint therapy asks you to see him or her individually. It’s possible that there may be a conflict between your considerations as a couple’s therapist and as an individual therapist. Thus, although your actions would vary depending on the parameters of the individual case, the best answer in light of the information we have is to refer the woman to another therapist for individual therapy.
22
Q
- Irving Yalom (1985) felt the most important therapeutic factors in groups were:
a. Altruism, universality, installation of hope
b. Instillation of hope, catharsis, existential factors,
c. Cohesiveness, altruism, universality
d. Interpersonal learning, cathrasis and cohesiveness .
A
- D– Yalom felt the most important factors in group process were interpersonal learning, which gave members an opportunity to learn valuable interpersonal skills, catharsis, where group members are able to openly express their feelings in front of other members, and group cohesiveness where group members feel a sense of cohesiveness and friendliness with other group members. However the importance of these factors is relative. Higher functioning group participants rate interpersonal learning and universality as more important. In lower functioning clients the instillation of hope is deemed most important.
23
Q
- In a rape case, jurors highest in their “belief in a just world” are most likely to:
a. wonder what the rape victim was wearing.
b. assume the truth will come out.
c. want to punish the defendant most harshly.
d. try to be most fair in judging the defendant.
A
- A– This may be a difficult item until one is clear about the “just world” concept. Those scoring high on the “belief in a just world” scale tend to blame the victim for crimes, out of a need to believe that bad crimes should not occur to good people. Thus, such individuals might wonder if a short skirt or make-up invited the crime. Otherwise, these people are not systematically more prejudiced, punitive, or fair in their judgments.
24
Q
- 15 year old Susan was initially diagnosed with Bulimia-Nervosa (Purging Type). Her self-evaluation is unduly influenced by her body shape and weight. She worries about gaining weight, has been binging and purging on a daily basis for almost a year and her weight has steadily dropped to less than 85% of a minimally normal level. Her therapist reassesses Susan’s diagnosis. The salient feature to consider in the differential diagnosis of Anorexia-Nervosa (Binge-Eating/Purge Type) is her:
a. fear of gaining weight or getting fat
b. cognitive distortions associated with body image
c. continuation of binging and purging despite weight loss
d. denial of seriousness of current body weight
A
- C– Individuals with Bulimia-Nervosa, unlike those with Anorexia-Nervosa, Binge-Eating/Purge Type, are able to maintain body weight at or above a minimally normal weight for height and age. Anorexia-Nervosa is characterized by a refusal to maintain a minimal normal body weight, with the threshold of underweight being less than 85% of weight expected. Susan’s weight falls below this threshold and her continuation of binging and purging despite weight loss meets the refusal criteria of Anorexia. It is also important to consider her fears of gaining weight (a.) and denial of seriousness of her current weight (d.), especially with respect to treatment planning. Disturbances in perception of body shape and weight (b.), and an over influence of weight and shape on self-evaluation are essential features of both disorders.
25
Q
- The legal basis of the Tarasoff decision was that
a. the protective privilege ends when the public peril begins.
b. psychologists have a legal and ethical responsibility to uphold the general welfare.
c. a psychotherapist’s duty to enforce the law supercedes his or her duty to protect a patient’s confidentiality.
d. a psychotherapy patient’s right to confidentiality is absolute.
A
- A– The California Supreme Court’s Tarasoff decision established the duty of a psychotherapist to protect the intended victim whenever a patient poses a serious danger of violence to another. In ruling that the need to protect the intended victim supercedes a client’s confidentiality rights, the Court wrote that “the protective privilege ends when the public peril begins.”
26
Q
- Which of the following aspects of the Type A behavior pattern, is, according to research, most strongly connected to increased risk for coronary heart disease?
a. job involvement
b. anger and hostility
c. need for achievement
d. impatience
A
- B– Friedman and Rosenman (1974) described the Type A personality as someone who is competitive, achievement oriented, highly involved in his work, active, aggressive, and urgent about time and meeting deadlines. Originally, it was hypothesized that the Type A behavior pattern (TABP) increases the risk of coronary heart disease (CHD). However, recent research suggests that some but not all aspects of the TABP increase the risk of CHD. Specifically, hostility, aggression, and anger have been found to be the primary risk factors.
27
Q
- Chronic alcoholism may cause cognitive impairments. Specifically, following prolonged, heavy drinking, a person is most likely to exhibit:
a. greater deficits in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills.
b. greater deficits in verbal skills than in visuospatial skills.
c. a comparable pattern of deficits in visuospatial and verbal skills.
d. deficits in either visuospatial or verbal skills, depending on whether the person is left- or right-brain dominant.
A
- A– Studies looking at cognitive impairment due to prolonged, heavy alcohol use have found that it is more likely to involve problems in visuospatial skills than in verbal skills.
28
Q
- Which of the following is the greatest risk factor for childhood depression?
a. parental divorce
b. a parent with a major affective disorder
c. low social class
d. poor social skill
A
- B– Children of one or more parents with depression are at a markedly higher risk for depression of their own, as well as for a variety of other disturbances, including Conduct Disorder, ADHD, Anxiety Disorders, Substance Abuse, poor social functioning, school problems, and (later in life) Bipolar Disorder.
29
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding therapist-client sexual relations is, according to research, most correct?
a. Therapists treating clients with a diagnosis of Borderline Personality Disorder, Histrionic Personality Disorder, or who
have a history of incest are more likely to become sexually involved with their patients than other therapists.
b. Therapists who become sexually involved with their patients are likely to have less formal education or to have received
less professional recognition than other therapists.
c. Therapists who have completed a personal course of therapy are less likely to become sexually involved with their patients
than therapists who have not undergone therapy.
d. Therapists who become sexually involved with a patient typically do so with a patient who is significantly younger.
A
- D– Kenneth Pope, in an appendix of his book Sexual Feelings in Psychotherapy (Washington, DC: APA, 1993), provides a review of the research in the area of client-therapist sexual relations. Only choice D reflects research findings – one study found that the average ages of therapists and clients sexually involved with each other were 43 and 33, respectively; another study found these ages to be 42 and 30. In contrast to choice A, no research supports the notion that a particular diagnosis or history places a patient at greater risk for sexual involvement with a therapist. Choice B is also incorrect – in fact, one study found that psychologists who had attained a high level of professional achievement reported a higher rate of sex with patients. Similarly, in regard to choice C, one study found that psychologists who had completed psychotherapy or psychoanalysis were more likely to have become sexually involved with a patient than those therapists who hadn’t undergone therapy. According to Pope, the best single predictor of sexual exploitation in therapy is a therapist who has exploited a patient in the past.
30
Q
- Research shows that, of the following, the most accurate predictor of future violence on the part of a patient is
a. therapists’ judgment.
b. past violent behavior.
c. psychological test results.
d. none of the above; no predictor has been found to yield an above chance level of accuracy.
A
- B– Recent meta-analyses have confirmed that past behavior alone is a better predictor of future violence than clinical judgments. Past behavior is also a better predictor than test results, including multiple predictor batteries developed on the basis of discriminant analysis. Nonetheless, violence predictions that are made by mental health professionals are significantly more accurate than chance.
31
Q
- Research investigating parental responses to an infant’s cries has found that:
a. mothers, but not fathers, respond to an infant’s cries with physiological arousal.
b. mothers and fathers both respond to all types of cries (hunger, pain, and anger) with a similar level of physiological
arousal.
c. mothers and fathers respond to all types of cries, but the infant’s pain cry produces the greatest amount of physiological
arousal.
d. first-time mothers and fathers respond with less physiological arousal to all types of cries than parents who already have
one or more children.
A
- C– You may have been able to answer this question if you think about your own responses to an infant’s cries. Although parents have a stronger physiological response to their own infants, just about everyone seems to have some response to a crying baby, although it may be of less intensity. In addition, the different kinds of cries produce different responses. Not surprisingly, a stronger response is elicited by a pain cry than by a hunger or anger cry.
32
Q
- According to cognitive dissonance theory:
a. we all have a basic need for cognitive dissonance.
b. there is no link between our attitudes and behavior.
c. we are likely to change our attitudes to match our behavior.
d. we are likely to change our behavior to match our attitudes.
A
- C– According to dissonance theory, inconsistency between our attitudes and our behavior results in a state of cognitive dissonance, which is an internal aversive state. So A and B are out, leaving C and D. Though it seems logical that our attitudes lead to our behaviors, the irony of dissonance research is that it more often finds the opposite – that our inner attitudes are adjusted to match our behaviors.
33
Q
- Which of the following is considered the emotional core of the human nervous system?
a. thalamus
b. limbic system
c. basal ganglia
d. pons
A
- B– The limbic system is considered the “emotional brain” or emotional core of the nervous system. It consists of the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus (although the hippocampus is more involved with memory than emotion). The other choices are not primarily associated with emotions: The thalamus (A) is the central switching station for sensory information; the basal ganglia (C) codes and relays information associated with voluntary movement; and the pons (D) regulates states of arousal.
34
Q
- Possible side effects of the benzodiazepines include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a. drowsiness
b. short-term memory dysfunction
c. impaired psychomotor functioning
d. impaired concept formation
A
- D– The benzodiazepines (also known as anxiolytics and “minor tranquilizers”) are anti-anxiety agents; they include drugs such as Valium, Xanax, Halcion, and Ativan. Their major side effects include drowsiness, impaired psychomotor abilities, and impaired short-term memory (particularly anterograde amnesia); more rarely, dizziness, ataxia, allergic reactions, nausea, and aggression have been reported as side effects. They are not, however, associated with impaired concept formation.
35
Q
- A forensic psychologist is asked to review and make conclusions regarding a defendant’s psychological evaluation that was conducted 4 years ago following a similar crime that the defendant is now accused of. The psychologist should:
a. refuse the request
b. comply with the request but interpret the previous findings with caution
c. reevaluate the person and disregard the previous findings
d. reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution
A
- D– According to the Forensic Specialty Guidelines, “Forensic psychologists avoid giving written or oral evidence about the psychological characteristics of particular individuals when they have not had an opportunity to conduct an examination of the individual…” And, according to Ethical Standard 9.08, psychologists also do not base their decisions on outdated results. Thus, the psychologist in this case should make a reasonable effort to reevaluate the person. However, it would probably be inappropriate to completely disregard the previous findings. The best approach would be to reevaluate the person and interpret the previous findings with caution.
36
Q
- Which of the following individuals is MOST likely to agree that the performance of the behavior depends on several factors including the characteristics of the setting and the learner’s expectations about the outcomes of performing the behavior but that the learning of a behavior can be the result of observation alone:
a. Bandura
b. Wittrock
c. Lave
d. Bruner
A
- A– According to Bandura’s observational (social) learning theory, learning can occur without being evident in performance. Wittrock (b.) is associated with the generative learning model, which proposes that learners construct meaning from the connections of previous learning and experience with new knowledge or unfamiliar experiences. Lave’s (c.) situated learning model has two principles: learning is a function of the activity, context and culture in which it occurs; and learning requires social interaction and collaboration. Bruner (d.) is associated with discovery learning, which suggests greater learning occurs when individuals engage in situations to question, explore, or experiment for themselves (i.e., information and examples are presented and inductive reasoning is employed until they “discover” the interrelationships). (See: Wittrock, M.C. (1974). Learning as a generative process. Educational Psychologist, 11, 87-95.; Lave, J., & Wenger, E. (1990). Situated Learning: Legitimate Periperal Participation. Cambridge, UK: Cambridge University Press.; and Bruner, J. (1960). The Process of Education, Cambridge, Mass.: Harvard University Press.)
37
Q
- Which of the following is most true about individuals with Moderate Mental Retardation?
a. They constitute 3-4% of the population of mentally retarded individuals.
b. They can reach up to about a sixth grade level in academic skills.
c. They can be trained to perform unskilled work in the competitive job market under close supervision.
d. They acquire little or no communicative speech during the pre-school period.
A
- C– Individuals with moderate retardation have an IQ between 35-40 and 50-55. According to the DSM, as adults, they can contribute to their own support by performing unskilled or semi-skilled tasks under supervision – in sheltered workshops or in the competitive job market. They constitute 10% of the mentally retarded population, they are unlikely to progress beyond the second grade level in academic skills, and they can talk or learn to communicate during the preschool years.
38
Q
- A young child starts to act out while waiting for the food to be served at a restaurant, according to systems theory, in order to the restore the family to its previous state of equilibrium, the parent will:
a. use negative feedback to restore homeostasis
b. use negative feedback to unbalance the system further and bring the child back into line
c. use positive feedback to restore homeostasis
d. use positive feedback to correct the child’s behavior
A
- A– In systems theory, feedback refers to information from within the system which results in changes in either the existing homeostasis or the maintenance or restoration of homeostasis. Positive feedback alters the system to accommodate novel input or a new state of equilibrium and negative feedback maintains or restores the status quo of the system. If a child misbehaves while the family is at a restaurant, negative feedback occurs when the parent corrects the misbehaving and restores homeostasis.
39
Q
- Damage to the hippocampus causes:
a. Amnesia
b. Pseudodementia
c. Weight loss
d. Tremors.
A
- A– The hippocampus appears to be responsible for memory consolidation or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Bilateral destruction of the hippocampus, amygdala and medial temporal lobes produces a severe permanent anterograde amnesia.
40
Q
- To be consistent with the Federal Educational Rights and Privacy Act (the Buckley Amendment), a school counselor must keep in mind that
a. it is necessary to obtain the signed consent of a student’s parents before releasing any information from the student’s file to
officials of another school where the student is planning to enroll.
b. student records, including identifying information, must be released to designated federal and state educational authorities
if needed in connection with the evaluation of federally-sponsored educational programs.
c. parents have the right not only to inspect and review their children’s school records but also to challenge the contents of
records.
d. all of the above.
A
- C– Only C is a requirement of the Buckley Amendment. Written consent is not needed in the situation described in choice A, as long as the parents have been notified of the transfer of records to the new school. And although the records must be supplied in the situation presented in B, identifying information must be removed from the records.
41
Q
- What is the least helpful suggestion you can give to parents when they are going through a divorce or marital conflict?
a. avoid exposing the children to any conflicts
b. allow the children to participate in decisions regarding visitation rights
c. in the long run, it is better for the children if you divorce than if you remain in an unhappy marriage
d. remarry as soon as possible
A
- D– Research has identified a number of factors associated with poorer adjustment in children whose parents divorce. For instance, rapid remarriage of one or both parents is predictive of poorer adjustment. The other suggestions are likely to be helpful (or at worst, benign): exposure to parental conflict, parental continuance of an unhappy marriage, and failure to allow children to establish a relationship with the noncustodial parent are all factors associated with poorer long-term adjustment in children of divorce.
42
Q
- Anxiety and depression share which of the following symptoms?
a. anhedonia
b. somatic arousal
c. obsessive thoughts
d. negative affect
A
- D– Several researchers have suggested that a general distress factor, sometimes referred to as “negative affect,” is a core symptom in both anxiety and depression. Anhedonia (“A”) is unique to depression and somatic arousal (“B”) is unique to anxiety disorders. Obsessive thoughts (“C”) is a characteristic of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, but it is not a universal symptom in all of the anxiety disorders or the depressive disorders. [See D. Burns, Why Are Depression and Anxiety Correlated? A Test of the Tripartite Model. Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 1998, 66 (3), 461-473].
43
Q
- A man reports that he is dissatisfied with his low-level job on an assembly line. He says that money is the only reason he is doing his work. According to Herzberg, what would be the best way to increase this person’s job motivation?
a. give him a greater number of jobs to do
b. give him more responsibility
c. give him more money
d. give him a longer lunch break
A
- B– According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, need satisfiers can be divided into two types: hygiene factors and motivators. The absence of hygiene factors (e.g., money, security) results in dissatisfaction; however, their presence does not lead to satisfaction. By contrast, the presence of motivators (e.g., responsibility, power, self-esteem) results in satisfaction; however, their absence does not lead to dissatisfaction. Therefore, to increase a worker’s motivation, one would have to add factors such as responsibility to his or her job. Increased money or security will reduce any dissatisfaction, but will not increase motivation or satisfaction.
44
Q
- Which of the following techniques will exacerbate of chronic pain rather than reduce it?
a. Religious coping
b. Cognitive therapy
c. Active coping
d. Passive coping
A
- D– Passive pain-coping strategies, a category described in Brown and Nicassio’s (1987) dichotomy of active versus passive coping strategies, are associated with worse pain and adjustment among chronic pain patients. Passive coping strategies are those that involve giving responsibility for pain management to an outside source or allowing other areas of life to be adversely affected by pain. They may also serve as psychological enforcers of pain. Examples of passive coping strategies are focusing on where the pain is and how much it hurts, restricting or cancelling social activities, or thoughts such as “ There’s nothing I can do to lessen this pain,” or “I wish my doctor would prescribe me better pain medication.” In contrast, active coping strategies entail the patient taking responsibility for pain management including attempts to control the pain or to function in spite of it. Examples of active coping strategies include engaging in physical therapy or exercise, staying busy/active, relaxation techniques, clearing distracting thoughts and attention from the pain. Cognitive (b.) and cognitive behavior therapy has been shown to be effective in reducing the experience of pain and improving positive behavior expression, appraisal and coping in individuals with chronic pain. (See: Morley S, Eccleston C, Williams A. (1999) Systematic review and meta-analysis of randomised controlled trials of cognitive behaviour therapy and behaviour therapy for chronic pain in adults, excluding headache. Pain, 80, 1-13.) Evidence supports a relationship between positive health outcomes and the use of religious coping to manage pain. Pargament (1990) identified three possible interactions between religion and coping: religion can influence the parts of the coping process (appraisal, coping activities, results, assistance, and motivation); contribute to the coping process by influencing perception (attribution of meaning and the feeling of control) and preventing certain events from happening (through a beneficiary life style); and it can be the resultant of the coping process through religious attributes. (See: Pargament, K.I. (1997) The psychology of religion and coping, Guilford, New York.)
45
Q
- Vygotsky’s work has most influenced which of the following teaching strategies?
a. computer-adaptive testing
b. reciprocal teaching
c. Montessori method
d. cognitive constructivism
A
- B– Vygotsky’s theory of cognitive development emphasized the role of social and cultural factors. He believed that learning occurs best through social interaction. His approach has influenced a teaching method known as “reciprocal teaching” in which the teacher and students take turns leading a dialogue. This approach encourages students to stretch beyond the role of simply answering questions. Computer-adaptive testing (A) refers to a computer-administered exam which adapts the level of difficulty of subsequent test items based on the examinee’s performance on previous items. The Montessori method (C) emphasizes “hands-on” learning and has been criticized for lacking enough cooperative learning and small-group opportunities. Cognitive constructivism (D) is based on Piaget’s work which proposed that humans construct knowledge through their experiences with the world. Vygotsky’s approach is similar to Piaget’s, but because of his emphasis on the social context of learning, Vygotsky’s theory is classified as social constructivism.
46
Q
- Which of the following contradicts the predictions of Herzberg’s two-factor theory?
a. Workers say the same work-related factors cause satisfaction and dissatisfaction with work.
b. Workers say they prefer leaders who show a high level of both instrumentality and consideration.
c. Job satisfaction and job performance have a reciprocal relationship.
d. Job enrichment increases satisfaction for both blue- and white-collar workers.
A
- A– As long as you remembered that Herzberg views satisfaction and dissatisfaction as separate phenomena, you should have been able to pick the right answer to this question. According to Herzberg, the factors that cause dissatisfaction (hygiene factors) are different from those that contribute to satisfaction (motivator factors), which means that a person can be satisfied and dissatisfied at the same time.
47
Q
- The director at the training agency, where you are a supervisor, has promised two new interns that they will have plenty of testing experience as part of their training. In order to meet quota, you are under a great deal of pressure to bill many hours. One intern has a great deal of previous testing experience and the other intern has very little. The majority of the testing cases are given to the more experienced intern, and as a result this intern is given the majority of your time and attention. This situation is:
a. ethical
b. unethical
c. unethical because you are exploiting the more experienced intern
d. unethical because the less experienced intern is not getting the training as it was described to him by the director of the
clinic
A
- A– There is no indication that the more experienced intern is being exploited (response “C”) and while the interns are not receiving an equal number of testing opportunities, the situation is not unethical solely because the less experienced intern is getting fewer testing cases and/or attention. The director stated the interns would have “plenty of testing experience,” not necessarily an equal amount of testing cases, time, or attention. Additionally, the definition of plenty is relative to the individual intern, their previous education, training, and experience. Another relative term in the question to consider is “majority.” It would be unethical to have the intern with very little testing experience perform more than his/her current level of competency (Standard 2.05(2): Delegation of Work to Others). Note: this intern is receiving test cases, time, and attention – just not the “majority” of cases and attention.
48
Q
- Which of the following statements is true regarding electromyograph (EMG) biofeedback?
a. It is more effective in treating tension headaches than migraine headaches.
b. It is more effective in treating migraine headaches than tension headaches.
c. It is equally effective in treating tension headaches and migraine headaches.
d. It is ineffective in treating tension and migraine headaches.
A
- A– Overall, biofeedback works equally well for tension and migraine headaches. However, a different modality of biofeedback is used for each of these conditions. EMG biofeedback, in which the person is trained to decrease muscle tension of the facial and/or neck muscles, is the most commonly used modality for biofeedback treatment of tension headaches; this is why A is the best answer. For migraine headaches, thermal hand warming biofeedback, whereby the person is trained to warm his or her hands, is the most commonly used modality.
49
Q
- You have been treating a 14-year-old female for the past year and during her final termination session she reports suicidal intent with a plan. You should:
a. attempt to make a no-suicide contract
b. immediately contact the parent(s)
c. call the police
d. not allow the client to leave your office until the risk has passed
A
- B– If a client poses an imminent danger to self, a breach of confidentiality, which could prevent the danger, is ethically and legally justified. This holds true for all clients, regardless of age. When the client is a minor, the most appropriate action would usually be to notify the client’s parent(s). If they are not immediately available, you should then consider calling the police or PET. Attempting to make a no-suicide contract (A) would not be the most prudent option when there is suicidal intent with a plan, especially during a termination session. Not allowing the client to leave your office until the risk has passed (D) is not a realistic option.
50
Q
- The differential diagnosis between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality Disorder is based on
a. degree of isolation.
b. odd behaviors.
c. self-centeredness.
d. fear of rejection.
A
- D– Schizoid Personality Disorder is characterized by a pattern of indifference to social relations and a limited range of emotional expression in social situations. Avoidant Personality Disorder is characterized by social inhibition, feelings of inadequacy, and hypersensitivity to negative evaluation. Individuals with both these disorder are likely to avoid social relationships. However, those with Avoidant Personality Disorder do so due to timidity and fear of criticism, disapproval, or rejection. Individuals with Schizoid Personality Disorder, by contrast, do so out of indifference to social relationships and a preference for solitary activities.
51
Q
- The preferred treatment for Agoraphobia is
a. implosive therapy.
b. systematic desensitization
c. in-vivo exposure with response prevention.
d. participant modeling.
A
- C– Much research supports the generally accepted conclusion that in-vivo exposure with response prevention is the preferred psychological treatment for Agoraphobia.
52
Q
- Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between environmental factors and the course of Bipolar Disorders?
a. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the early stages of the disorder.
b. Environmental factors are likely to have a greater impact during the latter stages of the disorder.
c. Environmental factors are likely to have an approximately equal impact throughout the course of the disorder.
d. Environmental factors are likely to have no impact because Bipolar Disorders are entirely due to biological factors.
A
- A– Bipolar Disorders have a strong genetic and biological component. Nonetheless, evidence suggests that environmental factors can trigger episodes. This is especially true in the early stages of the disorder; psychosocial stressors often trigger the initial mood episodes; they less frequently trigger subsequent episodes.
53
Q
- The kappa statistic is used to evaluate reliability when data are:
a. interval or ratio (continuous)
b. nominal or ordinal (discontinuous)
c. metric
d. nonlinear
A
- B– The kappa statistic is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability, or the consistency of ratings assigned by two raters, when data are nominal or ordinal. Interval and ratio data is sometimes referred to by the term metric.
54
Q
- The medication considered most effective for the treatment of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder is:
a. Lithium
b. Clomipramine
c. Disulfiram
d. Diazepam
A
- B– Most of the antidepressant drugs such as clomipramine, imipramine, as well as the SSRIs are believed to increase serotonin activity which seems to lessen the effects of OCD. Lithium is often used in treating mood disorders, (C) disulfiram is the generic name for Antabuse and (D) diazepam as well as the other “pams” are benzodiazephines– sometimes used in the treatment of anxiety.
55
Q
- An attorney contacts a psychologist requesting that his client be given a psychological evaluation prior to appearing in court. Following the evaluation the client asks that his records not be released to the court, although his attorney believes that releasing the records would be in his client’s best interest. The psychologist should:
a. release the records since there is no privilege regarding forensic evaluations
b. release the records since the attorney requested the evaluation
c. not release the records
d. seek consultation
A
- C– Since this does not appear to be a court-ordered evaluation, the examinee remains the holder of the privilege; thus, his records should not be released to the court without his consent.
56
Q
- Marfan’s syndrome and Von Willebrand’s disease are due to:
a. an X-linked dominant gene
b. an X-linked recessive gene
c. an autosomal dominant gene
d. an autosomal recessive gene
A
- C– Like Huntington’s disease, these disorders are genetic disorders caused by an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that they occur in the presence of only one gene on a chromosome that is not a sex (X or Y) chromosome. Von Willebrand’s disease, which causes blood clotting defects, is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affecting at least 1% of the population. Marfan’s syndrome affects the connective tissue and it is estimated that at least 1 in 5,000 people in the United States have the disorder.
57
Q
- Relapse by smokers who have stopped smoking is most likely to be triggered by the presence of smoking cues in one’s surroundings or
a. positive affect.
b. negative affect.
c. inactivity.
d. coffee consumption.
A
- B– According to S. Shiffman et al., the most common precipitants of relapse are the presence of smoking cues and negative affect (First lapses to smoking: Within-subjects analysis of real-time reports, Journal of Consulting and Clinical Psychology, 64(2), 366-389).
58
Q
- High levels of stress are associated with:
a. tension headaches, but not migraine headaches.
b. migraine headaches, but not tension headaches.
c. both tension headaches and migraine headaches.
d. neither tension headaches nor migraine headaches.
A
- C– As their name suggests, tension headaches are associated with stress. The psychological correlates of migraine headaches are less clear, and more than one theory has been proposed regarding this issue; however, clinical observation has suggested that stress often plays a role in their onset.
59
Q
- The authoritative style of parenting typically results in better school performance among:
a. Asians
b. Hispanics
c. African-Americans
d. Whites
A
- D– Overall, the authoritative style of parenting (as compared to the authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved styles) has the most positive outcomes in children’s growth and development – including academic achievement. However, researchers have found that the benefits of authoritative parenting are moderated by ethnicity. Specifically, Hispanics and African-Americans do not appear to benefit as much as Whites from having authoritative parenting. And, although Asian-Americans tend to do well academically, they are least likely to have authoritative parents. [See: L. Steinberg, S.M.Dornbusch, & B.B. Brown. Ethnic Differences in Adolescent Achievement: An Ecological Perspective. American Psychologist, 1992, 47 (6), 723-729].
60
Q
- As compared to children who speak one language, young children who speak a second language show
a. delayed mental abilities.
b. greater cognitive flexibility.
c. better psychological adjustment.
d. poorer peer relations.
A
- B– Research suggests that compared to their monolingual counterparts, bilingual children perform better on tests of cognitive flexibility, analytical reasoning, concept formation, and metalinguistic awareness.
61
Q
- Personal reality and common reality were defined by:
a. Ginzberg’s Stages of Career Development
b. Super’s Career and Life Development
c. Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman’s Decision Making Model
d. Gottfredson’s Theory of Career Development
A
- C– Miller-Tiedeman and Tiedeman defined personal authoritative reality as what feels right to the individual and common reality as what the individual is told they should do. This was an expansion on Tiedeman and O’Hare’s Decision Making Model. The other responses also represent stage theories of career choice. Ginzberg’s theory contains three periods (fantasy, tentative, and realistic) with sub-stages corresponding to ages preteen through the early 20’s. (See: Ginzberg, E., Ginzberg, S.W., Axelrad, S., & Herman, J.L. (1951). Occupational Choice: an approach to a general theory. New York: Columbia University Press; Ginzberg, E. (1972). Toward a theory of occupational choice: A restatement. Vocational Guidance Quarterly, 20, 169-176.) Super’s stages continue across the life-span. In Gottfredson’s theory, there are four stages of cognitive development: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness. The first stage typically begins around age 3 and the last in mid-adolescence. The theory addresses how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. (See: Gottfredson, L.S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: A developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology, 28, 545-579.)
62
Q
- You conduct a psychological assessment on a patient and then refer the patient to another psychologist. The new psychologist doesn’t understand your assessment and offers to pay you for consultation concerning the assessment. The proposed arrangement is
a. unethical, because it represents a payment for a referral.
b. unethical, because it represents a dual relationship.
c. ethical, as long as the payment is not for the referral.
d. ethical, because the current version of the APA’s ethical standards permits payment for referrals.
A
- C– According to the ethical standards, a referring psychologist can receive payment from the new psychologist, as long as the payment is “based on the services (clinical, consultative, administrative, or other) provided and is not based on the referral itself.” In this situation, it appears that the new psychologist is paying for legitimate consultative services, rather than providing you with a “kickback.” Therefore, the arrangement appears to be ethical.
63
Q
- A college student tells you she has just read that adolescent females are faced with a conflict between their own strengths and accomplishments and the stereotypic feminine roles they are expected to adopt. Apparently, this student has just read the work of:
a. Kohlberg.
b. Erikson.
c. Gilligan.
d. Ainsworth.
A
- C– You may have been able to answer this question through the process of elimination. Kohlberg, Erikson, and Ainsworth didn’t distinguish between girls and boys in their theories. That leaves Gilligan who is best known for her work on moral development in girls but has also addressed other developmental issues.
64
Q
- Which of the following accounts for the most cases of Mental Retardation?
a. pregnancy or perinatal problems
b. early abnormalities in embryonic development
c. heredity
d. social and environmental factors operating in infancy and early childhood
A
- B– According to DSM-IV, etiological factors in Mental Retardation may be primarily biological, primarily psychosocial, or a combination of both. Early alteration of embryonic development (e.g., Down’s Syndrome, prenatal use of alcohol or drugs) is the single most common contributing factor, operating in about 30% of cases. Environmental influences and other mental disorders (e.g., deprivation of nurturance, severe mental disorders such as Autism) are a predisposing factor in about 15-20% of cases. Pregnancy and perinatal problems (e.g., fetal malnutrition, hypoxia, trauma) occur in about 10% of cases, and hereditary factors (e.g., Tay-Sachs Disease, fragile X syndrome) are the cause in about 5% of cases. In about 30-40% of cases, no clear etiology for the disorder can be determined.
65
Q
- Which of the following stages in Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud’s latency stage?
a. trust versus mistrust
b. autonomy versus shame
c. initiative versus guilt
d. industry versus inferiority
A
- D– Erikson’s industry vs. inferiority stage occurs approximately between the ages of 6-11. Freud’s latency stage occurs at about the same time.
66
Q
- Likert scales are most useful for:
a. dichotomizing quantitative data
b. quantifying objective data
c. quantifying subjective data
d. ordering categorical data
A
- C– Attitudes are subject phenomena. Likert scales indicate the degree to which a person agrees or disagrees with an attitudinal statement. Using a Likert scale, attitudes are quantified – or represented in terms of ordinal scores.
67
Q
- According to recent outcome studies, which of Yalom’s therapeutic factors is the most direct indicator of group outcome success as well as growth within the individual group members?
a. catharsis
b. collusion
c. cohesion
d. universality
A
- C– Recent studies indicate cohesiveness in a group, characterized by warmth and acceptance, self-disclosure and risk-taking behavior, freedom to express feelings openly (both positive and negative) is most associated with group member improvement and outcome success. As Yalom described, the therapeutic factors do not occur in isolation - they are interdependent and group cohesion serves as a necessary precondition for the other factors. Early confrontation, later positive alliance, later affective confrontation and fewer leader interventions in later sessions are also associated with successful group outcomes. (See: Burlingame, G.M., MacKenzie K.R., Strauss B. (2004). Small group treatment: evidence for effectiveness and mechanisms of change. In: Lambert, M., editor. Bergin and Garfield’s handbook of psychotherapy and behavior change. 5th ed. New York: John Wiley and Sons Inc, 647-96.)
68
Q
- According to APA’s Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing, test results should be reported
a. only to professionals trained in the interpretation of psychological tests.
b. using only raw scores.
c. using only confidence intervals or percentile bands.
d. in clear and simple language.
A
- D– To reason this one out, you don’t really have to be familiar with the language of the applicable standard, but here it is anyway: “Those responsible for testing programs should provide appropriate interpretations when test score information is released to students, parents, legal representatives, teachers, or the media. The interpretations should describe in simple language what the test covers, what scores mean, common misinterpretations of test scores, and how scores will be used” (standard 15.10). Other standards require that the standard error of measurement be reported so confidence intervals or percentile bands (choice C) can be constructed; however, the word “only” makes C incorrect.
69
Q
- Alzheimer’s Dementia is most often associated with damage to the:
a. frontal lobe
b. parietal lobe
c. occipital lobe
d. temporal lobe
A
- D– Although it is not known whether the deficits of Alzheimer’s Dementia are caused by diffuse damage to the brain or focused in a particular lobe, most research has linked it to damage to the temporal lobe. This is consistent with the important role of the temporal lobe in long-term memory (e.g., R. Wilson, M. Sullivan, L. deToledo-Morrell, G. Stebbins, D. Bennett, & F. Morrell. Association of memory and cognition in alzheimer’s disease with volumetric estimates of temporal lobe structures. Neuropsychology, 1996, 10(4), 459-463).
70
Q
- You are using overcorrection to modify a child’s misbehavior. If the child refuses to comply with your requests during the procedure, you would most likely use which of the following?
a. participant modeling
b. withdrawal of attention
c. verbal reprimands
d. physical guidance
A
- D– Overcorrection involves two phases – restitution and positive practice – which both require the individual to perform certain corrective behaviors. If the individual doesn’t comply, he/she may be physically guided through the desired behaviors.
71
Q
- Which of the following variables is most strongly related to a preference for therapists of the same racial group in African-American psychotherapy clients?
a. education
b. IQ score
c. racial/cultural identification
d. presenting issue
A
- C– Research shows that the stronger a client’s identification is with his or her racial or cultural background, the more likely he or she is to prefer a therapist from a similar background.
72
Q
- In addition to the Vocabulary subtest, which of the following Wechsler subtests are least susceptible to brain damage and, therefore, useful for assessing premorbid intelligence?
a. Similarities and Picture Completion
b. Information and Picture Completion
c. Block Design and Object Assembly
d. Information and Arithmetic
A
- B– Although scores on the Vocabulary, Information, and Picture Completion subtests can be suppressed by certain types of brain injury, they are considered to be most resistant to brain injury and, therefore, the best indicators of premorbid intelligence.
73
Q
- Symptoms of separation anxiety usually begin to appear at approximately:
a. 5 months
b. 9 months
c. 12 months
d. 18 months
A
- B– Although separation anxiety sometimes begins as early as 5 or 6 months, it typically has its onset at 8 or 9 months of age, rises dramatically until the age of 18 months, and then gradually falls off until it becomes negligible between the ages of 24-36 months. Prior to the onset of separation anxiety, babies do not typically protest when separated from their primary caretakers, even though a number of attachment behaviors develop during this time.
74
Q
- Which of the following is NOT true regarding sensory memory?
a. It has virtually an unlimited capacity.
b. It does not retain information for more than 2 seconds.
c. It stores altered forms of the original stimulus.
d. It stores iconic, echoic, and haptic memories.
A
- C– In the three-stage model of memory, sensory memory is the first stage. It preserves a large amount of sensory information for a very brief period of time (only a second or two). Information from all the senses can be stored in sensory memory. Visual stimuli are stored as “iconic” memories; auditory stimuli are stored as “echoic” memories; and kinesthetic stimuli are stored as “haptic” memories. Contrary to Choice C, sensory memories are believed to be represented in the form of the original stimuli; that is, they are not stored in an altered form.
75
Q
- Researchers in the area of cognitive therapy have conducted studies regarding the predominant types and styles of cognition in different mental disorders. These studies have found all of the following to be distinguishing features of cognitions in depression and anxiety, except
a. in depression, cognitions about hopelessness and failure are more common than in anxiety.
b. depressed people are more likely to have absolute thoughts about negative themes; anxious people are more likely to have
questioning thoughts about the future of events.
c. anxious people tend to be self-absorbed; depressed people tend to be more absorbed with others.
d. depressed people have enhanced recall of negative feedback; anxious people have enhanced recall of threatening
situations.
A
- C– Self-absorption is characteristic of the cognitive and information processing style of both depressed and anxious individuals. The other choices about the differences between depressed and anxious individuals are true.
76
Q
- Classical psychoanalytic theory and the object-relations theories both emphasize
a. the interaction between the id, the ego, and the superego.
b. the importance of separation and individuation in childhood.
c. the need for a therapist to “re-parent” the patient.
d. the role of early childhood experiences in personality development.
A
- D– Both Freudian theory and object-relations theory stress the role of early childhood experience in personality development. Freud believed that adult personality hinges to a large extent on how conflicts (e.g., the oedipal conflict) are resolved in childhood, while the object-relations theorists posit that a child’s early experiences determine the development of his or her introjects (mental representations of self and others), which determine personality functioning as an adult. Choice A applies to Freudian theory, and choices B and C apply to object-relations theory.
77
Q
- According to Social Judgment Theory, persuasion occurs when all of the following happen EXCEPT:
a. the new information is judged to fall in the latitude of acceptance
b. the new information is an ego-involved issue
c. the new information is different from the anchor position
d. the new information, while discrepant from the anchor, isn’t assimilated or contrasted
A
- B– According to Social Judgment Theory, a person categorizes new information or positions into one of three zones or latitudes: latitude of acceptance, latitude of non-commitment, and latitude of rejection. The latitude of acceptance contains all the positions on a particular topic that a person finds acceptable. Within this latitude is the “anchor” (c.) which is the single position that a person finds the most acceptable. The latitude of non-commitment contains the positions that are neutral for the person. The latitude of rejection contains all the positions on an issue that a person rejects. The theory claims persuasion is a difficult process and cannot occur in circumstances such as: new information is judged to fall within the latitude of rejection; a person is ego-involved (b.) in the issue causing the latitude of rejection to be larger than usual and making persuasion even more difficult; and, when people tend to distort new information through assimilation and contrast diluting the persuasive potential of new information. When distortions like this occur, no persuasion will result if the new information falls within the latitude of acceptance and is close to the anchor position as the person will “assimilate” or pull the new position closer and make it seem like it is already accepted or more acceptable than it really is. However, if the new position is out of the latitude of acceptance, then a person will “contrast” or push the information farther away to the latitude of rejection and make it seem worse than it really is.
78
Q
- Form A is administered to a group of employees in Spring and then again in Fall. Using this method, what type of reliability is measured?
a. split-half
b. equivalence
c. stability
d. internal consistency
A
- C– Test-retest reliability, or the coefficient of stability, involves administering the same test to the same group on two occasions and then correlating the scores. Alternative forms reliability, or coefficient of equivalence (response “B”), consists of administering two alternate forms of a test to the same group and then correlating the scores. Internal consistency reliability (response “D”) utilizes a single test administration and involves obtaining correlations among individual test items. Split-half reliability (response “A”) is a method of determining internal consistency reliability.
79
Q
- From an organizational systems approach, positive feedback is most useful as an intervention in order to:
a. provide information which helps plan for corrective actions.
b. reinforce adaptive responses.
c. extinguish maladaptive organizational interactions.
d. establish productive work groups.
A
- A– In any system, feedback is useful to make corrections. Even our nervous system makes use of this phenomenon: as your body temperature rises on a cold morning, you stop shivering. Likewise with institutions and organizations. This question asks about positive feedback, which, in systems terminology, refers to information that encourages disruption from the status quo. In organizational consulting and family therapy, positive feedback is used to correct or change a pattern; in response to positive feedback the system deviates from homeostasis, or the status quo. This question is not about reinforcing other patterns or extinguishing maladaptive patterns, as two of the choices indicate. These terms are related to behavioral learning theory, not systems theory.
80
Q
- In dynamic assessment, “testing the limits”:
a. is done initially to determine the appropriate entry level for testing
b. is done only when appropriate norms are available
c. is done after the entire test has been administered under standardized procedures
d. is no longer recommended because it has been found to be biased against members of certain groups.
A
- C– The term “dynamic assessment” refers to a variety of procedures involving departure from standardized test administration in order to obtain additional information about an examinee. It is done after the test has been administered using standardized procedures. It is usually used in the assessment of individuals with learning disabilities or mental retardation. Testing the limits involves providing cues to see how many are needed to generate successful performance: The more cues required, the more severe the learning disability.
