Exam 5 Flashcards

Question

25. Which of these pairs is most similar? a. posttraumatic amnesia and retroactive inhibition. b. retrograde amnesia and proactive inhibition. c. anterograde amnesia and proactive inhibition. d. anterograde amnesia and retroactive inhibition.

Answer 1

25. C-- To answer this you need to know two concepts in forgetting: one related to neuropsychological functioning, and the other related to cognitive psychology. If amnesia starts from a time of trauma and extends forward into new experiences (e.g., the person can't remember anything occurring after a head trauma), it's anterograde. If the amnesia extends backwards into experiences before the trauma, it's retrograde. So keep this in mind: anterograde for new experiences, retrograde for past experiences. Now let's move to cognitive psychology and compare memory inhibitory processes. Retroactive inhibition occurs when new learning interferes with previous learning. Proactive inhibition occurs when previous learning interferes with new learning. Now, if we make a comparison between the two sets of terms, we will combine proactive inhibition with anterograde amnesia. This is because, in proactive inhibition, the forgetting is for information occurring after a particular event, and in anterograde amnesia, the person cannot retain any information that occurs after a trauma. Retroactive inhibition and retrograde amnesia are analogous for similar reasons, except that the word "before" rather than "after" applies.

Answer 2

26. B-- Ethical Standard 10.02(b) states, "If it becomes apparent that psychologists may be called on to perform potentially conflicting roles (such as family therapist and then witness for one party in divorce proceedings), psychologists take reasonable steps to clarify and modify, or withdraw from, roles appropriately." Although the patient's father has indicated that he does not want a report or testimony from the psychologist, it would be more prudent to clarify the psychologist's role with the attorneys of each of the parents. Having the parents sign an agreement as suggested in "A" does imply a clarification of the psychologist's role, but it may not be legally binding or in the child's best interests and is not as good a choice as "B." Choice "C" is incorrect because although it is necessary to evaluate all members of a family before making recommendations regarding child custody, in this case, it is therapy that is requested, not a custody evaluation. Finally, "D" is incorrect because psychologists must maintain adequate records.

Answer 3

27. C-- In this situation, the laws regarding breach of confidentiality vary from state to state and are inconsistent. Some states have laws that prohibit practitioners from notifying the partners of HIV/AIDS clients, and some state laws require practitioners to inform the partners.

Answer 4

28. D-- This question is based upon research conducted by Masters and Johnson, which found that increasing age causes only relatively minor changes in female sexuality. The research found that sexual desire and the ability to reach orgasm do not decrease in females as they grow older. In fact, in DSM-IV, it is noted that female orgasmic capacity increases with age and that, as a result, Female Orgasmic Disorder may be more common in younger women. Answer A is incorrect because Masters and Johnson found that the amount of lubrication diminishes in women as they grow older. This may make sexual intercourse uncomfortable for older women. In DSM-IV, it says "sexual stimulation that is not adequate in focus, intensity, and duration" may be a cause of female sexual problems. This applies to women of any age, so answer B is also incorrect. And C is not correct because after menopause the vaginal walls become thinner, as well as smoother and more fragile. This too may make sexual intercourse less comfortable for older women.

Answer 5

29. C-- Interpersonal psychotherapy (IPT) is a manualized psychotherapy first designed for the treatment of nonbipolar, nonpsychotic major depression with the focus on the problems of depression and interpersonal distress. IPT focuses on interpersonal aspects of depression and uses the biopsychosocial model which frames depression as a medical illness occurring in a social context The goal of IPT is to alleviate symptoms with interpersonal relationships as a point of intervention. IPT has been found to be effective for the treatment of depression patients from adolescence to late life, for women with postpartum depression and for patients with medical comorbidity (See: Weissman, M.M., Markowitz, J.W., Klerman, G.L. (2000). Comprehensive guide to interpersonal psychotherapy. New York, Basic Books.)

Answer 6

30. D-- The different leadership styles defined by Hersey and Blanchard involve different combinations of task and relationship orientation. A high task, low relationship orientation defines the telling leadership style. Answer A is a delegating leader; B is a participating leader, and C is a selling leader.

Answer 7

31. A-- In the words of the DSM-IV, "Learning Disorders are diagnosed when the individual's achievement on individually standardized tests in reading, mathematics, or written expression is substantially below that expected for age, schooling, and level of intelligence." In other words, they involve a discrepancy between what the person has achieved and what would be expected given the person's potential to achieve, or aptitude.

Answer 8

32. A-- The results of a meta-analysis on gender differences concluded that females (across all age groups) have a higher level of general anxiety than males. Males scored very slightly higher than females in level of social anxiety, although this difference was not significant (A. Feingold, Gender Differences in Personality: A Meta-Analysis. Psychological Bulletin, 1994, 116(3), 429-456).

Answer 9

33. C-- Neurotransmitters can have an excitatory or inhibitory effect on postsynaptic cells, either increasing or decreasing the likelihood that an action potential will occur. Some neurotransmitters act as "neuromodulators" that increase or decrease the sensitivity of neurons to the effects of other neurotransmitters.

Answer 10

34. A-- Bill's symptoms meet the criteria for Schizophrenia, Paranoid Type. He has one or more delusions and auditory hallucinations. He does not have the symptoms of Disorganized Type (answer B), which requires a prominence of disorganized speech, disorganized behavior, and flat affect. His symptoms have lasted for more than one month which rules out Brief Psychotic Disorder (answer C).

Answer 11

35. C-- The medial temporal lobe (limbic system) contains the hippocampus, amygdala, and other structures which have recently been associated with the ability to generate mental images (G. Kreiman, C. Koch, & I. Fried, Category-specific visual responses of single neurons in the human medial temporal lobe. Nature Neuroscience, 2000, 3, 946-953).

Answer 12

36. D-- There are four current theoretical explanations for the relationship between intensity (i.e., anxiety, arousal, nervousness) and athletic performance: Inverted-U Hypothesis (Yerkes & Dodson, 1908); Individual Zones of Optimal Functioning Model (Hanin, 1986); Catastrophe theory (Hardy & Fazey, 1987), and Reversal theory (Kerr, 1987). The Inverted-U theory (a.) is the most popular explanation of the relationship of intensity and athletic performance and is often referred to as the Yerkes-Dodson Law. It purports moderate intensity is optimal for all athletes, theorizing as intensity increases from low to moderate levels there is an associated improvement in performance and performance worsens once intensity levels either exceed or fall below this moderate range. The Individual Zones of Optimal Function (IZOF) model (b.), proposes that the optimal level of intensity may vary, ranging from very low to very high for different individuals, and that a multitude of inter-individual differences exist across athletes and sport settings. Catastrophe theory (c.), suggests that physiological arousal is dependent upon the level of cognitive intensity of the individual athlete and that cognitive, somatic and self-confidence aspects exert an interactive three-dimensional influence on performance. Reversal theory states how an athlete interprets his or her own intensity levels, whether as positive or negative, influences performance. The theory also suggests for successful performances to occur, athletes must view their own intensity level as positive and that perceptions of intensity are dynamic and constantly changing throughout the course performance. (See: Taylor, J., & Wilson, G.S. (2002). Intensity regulation and sport performance. In J. Van Raalte & B. Brewer (Eds.) Exploring Sport and Exercise Psychology (2nd ed.) (pp. 99-130). Washington, D.C.: American Psychological Association.)

Answer 13

37. A-- The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression, they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.

Answer 14

38. D-- Erikson is among those developmental psychologists who postulate qualitatively different stages we pass through from birth to senescence. Erikson's final stage is called integrity versus despair. That is, in the last stage we look at our life and say "I did the best I could" or, alternatively, "I regret what I did."

Answer 15

39. A-- Research on the validity of selection measures generally finds the cognitive ability tests and biodata are 1-2 in terms of predictive validity. Although validity coefficients will vary from study to study, the most widely accepted conclusion is that general ability tests are the best overall predictors.

Answer 16

40. B-- For Piaget, cognitive adaptation to the environment is achieved via the dual processes of assimilation and accommodation. Piaget proposed children's cognitive structures and processing strategies direct both what is noticed, selected, or accommodated to, in the environment and how what is accommodated to is assimilated or interpreted.

Answer 17

41. B-- The situation described in the question refers to competence to stand trial.

Answer 18

42. C-- Variables that affect the validity of a test are moderator variables. When a moderator variable is present a test is said to have differential validity--meaning there would be a different validity coefficient for the New Zealanders group than for the others.

Answer 19

43. B-- Most of the studies on the long-term effects of early attachment have focused on secure attachment. However, there is some evidence that insecure and disorganized-disoriented attachment patterns are associated with negative outcomes. For example, the disorganized-disoriented pattern (which is associated with child abuse) predicts hostile behavior toward other children at age five. See K. Lyons-Ruth et al., Disorganized infant attachment classification and maternal psychosocial problems as predictors of hostile-aggressive behavior in the preschool classroom, Child Development, 1993, 64, 572-588.

Answer 20

44. B-- The effects of visitation on children's adjustment following divorce are dependent upon several factors, including the quality of the relationship between the divorced parents and certain attributes and behaviors of the noncustodial parent. Specifically, frequent visitation with the noncustodial father has been found to result in fewer behavioral problems and higher academic achievement, especially in boys, when the father was supportive, authoritative, and lacked any significant problems in adjustment, and when the child was not exposed to high levels of conflict between the parents [See: E. M. Hetherington, An overview of the Virginia Longitudinal Study of Divorce and Remarriage with a focus on early adolescence, Journal of Family Psychology,7(1), 1993, 39-56].

Answer 21

45. D-- In the context of item response theory, differential item functioning (DIF), or item bias analysis, refers to a difference in the probability of individuals from different subpopulations making a correct or positive response to an item, who are equal on the latent or underlying attribute measured by the test. The SIBTEST or simultaneous item bias test, Mantel-Haenszel, and Lord’s chi-square are statistical techniques used to identify DIF. Cluster analysis is a statistical technique used to develop a classification system or taxonomy. This method wouldn’t detect item bias or differences.

Answer 22

46. C-- This question is actually about social psychology as much as it is about group therapy. Research in social psychology has illustrated that we are more likely to talk openly about ourselves after someone else opens up about him or herself. This phenomenon has been termed "self-disclosure reciprocity."

Answer 23

47. B-- In cluster sampling, naturally occurring groups of subjects, rather than individual subjects, are randomly selected for participation in research. For instance, if a researcher wants to use elementary school students in an educational study, he or she could randomly choose a school from the schools in his state, and use all the students in that school as participants in the study. That's cluster sampling. A variation of cluster sampling, known as multistage cluster sampling, involves selecting a large cluster (group) and then selecting selectively smaller clusters. For example, the researcher studying elementary school students could randomly select a school district, then randomly select a school from the chosen school district, and then randomly select a classroom from the chosen school. In this case, both forms of cluster sampling would be more practical than the alternative of simple random sampling. That would involve randomly selecting individual elementary school students from across the state.

Answer 24

48. C-- In the context of group therapy, a moral responsibility to respect confidentiality extends beyond the therapist to each group participant. However, while there may be a moral obligation to maintain confidentiality, there isn’t an ethically enforceable obligation. The Ethics Code, Standard 4.02, addresses the limitations of confidentiality and Standard 10.01, Informed Consent in Therapy, addresses the need to discuss the limits of confidentiality at the beginning of (group) therapy. In group work agreements, therapists clearly define confidentiality and the parameters for the specific group being entered, explain the importance, and discuss the difficulties related to confidentiality involved in group therapy. Since confidentiality cannot be guaranteed by the therapist, group members have provided “implied consent” to the release of the information by voluntarily agreeing to participate. In most states, group members are not legally obligated to maintain confidences.

Answer 25

49. B-- Reactive Attachment Disorder occurs in children below the age of 5 and is characterized by disturbed social relatedness. There are two subtypes: inhibited and disinhibited type. This question is about the former, which involves inhibition, hypervigilance, and ambivalent responses in social situations. The other subtype, disinhibited type, involves indiscriminate attachments and sociability (e.g., familiarity with strangers, lack of selectivity in choice of attachment figures). In both subtypes, evidence of pathogenic care (e.g., disregard for the child's basic physical or emotional needs) must be present before the diagnosis can be made.

Answer 26

50. C-- The DSM-IV-TR reports prevalence rates for Panic Disorder of 1 to 2% in community samples and states that “approximately one-third to one-half of individuals diagnosed with Panic Disorder in community samples also have Agoraphobia” (p. 436).

Answer 27

51. C-- The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for memory consolidation, or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Sensory memory (A) is thought to be stored at the sense organs. Short-term memory (B) is associated with the prefrontal cortex. And implicit memory (D), although a type of long-term memory, is less affected by damage to the hippocampus than other types of long-term memory.

Answer 28

52. D-- Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the U.S. (31%) when all age groups, races, and sexes are combined. Cancer is the second leading cause of death (23%), followed by stroke (7%). Suicide is the 8eighth leading cause (1.3%). [See S.L. Murphy, Deaths: Final data for 1998, National Vital Statistics Report, 2000, 48(11). Hyattsville, MD: National Center for Health Statistics. DHHS Publication No. (PHS) 2000-1120].

Answer 29

53. B-- Solution-focused therapy is a form of brief therapy that focuses on solutions rather than problems or their causes. Underlying this approach is the assumption that clients possess the resources needed to achieve their goals. However, contrary to Choice B, a solution-focused therapist would not likely tell clients to solve the conflict by themselves. Rather, the therapist would work with them to generate solutions to their problem (C). Solution-focused therapists also use direct and indirect compliments (A) and future-oriented questions (D) -- such as the miracle question.

Answer 30

54. A-- Bipolar II Disorder is diagnosed when the person has a history of at least one major depressive episode and at least one hypomanic episode. By definition, the person has never had a manic or mixed episode (otherwise, the diagnosis would be Bipolar I Disorder).

Answer 31

55. A-- The Wisconsin Card Sorting Test (WCST) is used primarily to assess perseveration and abstract reasoning. However, it has also been found to be a useful measure of executive (frontal lobe) functioning and in discriminating between frontal and non-frontal lesions. Subjects must sort 64 cards using different strategies, for example, by color, form (triangle, star, star, and circle) or number of items on the cards.

Answer 32

56. B-- To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.

Answer 33

57. D-- Bass (1985) suggested that transformational leadership contains the interrelated components of idealized or charisma influence (attributed or behavioral), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration. In truly transformational leadership, high morals and ethical standards characterize charismatic or idealized influence. In research by Podsakoff, MacKenzie, Moorman and Fetter (1990), trust was found to be the single most important variable moderating the effects of transformational leadership on the performance, attitudes, and satisfaction of the followers. Inspirational motivation (b.) provides followers with meaning and challenges for engaging in undertakings and shared goals. Intellectual stimulation (a.) helps followers to question assumptions and to generate more creative solutions to problems. Individual consideration (c.) treats each follower as an individual and provides coaching, mentoring and growth opportunities. (See: Bass, B. (1985). Leadership and performance beyond expectations. New York: The Free Press. Bass, B. (1998). Transformational leadership: Industry, military, and educational impact. Mahwah, NJ: Lawrence Erlbaum Associates, Inc. and Podsakoff, P. M., MacKenzie, S. B., Moorman, R. H., & Fetter, R. (1990). Transformational leader behaviors and their effects on followers’ trust in leader, satisfaction, and organizational citizenship behaviors. Leadership Quarterly, 1, 107––142.)

Answer 34

58. D-- The question is describing Super's Life-Career Rainbow. Super also emphasized the role of self-concept (answer A), suggesting that people will choose an occupation that allows them to express their self-concept. Answer B refers to Super's Arch of Career Determination which illustrates the psychological and socioeconomic variables that shape one's career.

Answer 35

59. C-- A test's reliability sets an upper limit on its criterion-related validity. Specifically, a test's validity coefficient can never be higher than the square root of its reliability coefficient. In practice, a validity coefficient will never be that high, but, theoretically, that's the upper limit.

Answer 36

60. A-- According to the DSM-IV, Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder and Learning Disorders are all associated more with children with Tourette's Disorder. However, Generalized Anxiety Disorder is not identified as such.

Answer 37

61. A-- The behavioral technique described in this question is referred to as "paradoxical intention" and is similar in form to the paradoxical techniques used by family therapists, but differs in terms of its theoretical underpinnings. As used by behavior therapists, paradoxical intention is based on the assumption that a person avoids a certain behavior because of the anticipatory anxiety the behavior arouses. When a person deliberately engages in the behavior, a condition of incompatibility is set up and this condition serves to eliminate the anticipatory anxiety. The idea is that engaging in the behavior (or a wish to engage in the behavior) is incompatible with fear of that behavior and, consequently, the fear is neutralized.

Answer 38

62. C-- Alzheimer's Disease is a type of Dementia, which, as defined in DSM-IV, involves memory impairment and other cognitive deficits. In contrast, Korsakoff's Syndrome is categorized in DSM as an Amnestic Disorder, and it is marked by memory loss that may be accompanied by confabulation and unsteady gait and other physical signs.

Answer 39

63. C-- The “amount of variability accounted for” is assessed by a squared correlation coefficient. Eta squared is the square of the correlation coefficient (i.e., the correlation between the treatment and the outcome) and is used as an index of effect size. Alpha (a.) is the level of significance set by a researcher prior to analyzing the data. Cohen’s d (b.) is used as an index of effect size, but it is a measure of the mean difference between two groups. The F-ratio (d.) is the statistic calculated when using the analysis of variance.

Answer 40

64. B-- This is a straightforward question requiring you to be familiar with the DSM-IV diagnostic criteria for Tourette's Disorder. For this diagnosis, DSM requires the presence of multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics for at least one year.

Answer 41

65. C-- This is a good example of a conflict between ethical and legal obligations. Your ethical obligation is to serve the best interests of the child, but legally, you cannot proceed with treatment if the custodial parent does not give you consent to do so. The Ethics Code is instructive in such situations: Standard 1.02 states that “If psychologists' ethical responsibilities conflict with law, regulations, or other governing legal authority, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict. If the conflict is unresolvable via such means, psychologists may adhere to the requirements of the law, regulations, or other governing legal authority." Thus, you could not just terminate without attempting to advocate for the patient; you also could not continue to treat the child without the mother's consent, because violating the law is not consistent with resolving the conflict in a responsible manner. Thus, your best option is to explain to the mother why you believe that immediate termination could harm the child and urge her to let you continue seeing the girl for a few more sessions.

Answer 42

66. B-- The Lie Scale is one of the original MMPI validity scales, which were designed to evaluate test-taking attitudes. A high Lie Scale score may indicate a lack of insight into one’s own behavior, denial, an attempt to create a favorable impression, or the tendency to answer items “false.” A low Lie Scale score may be the result of answering items as “true” (a.). Inconsistent responding (c.) is suggested by a high score on the VRIN scale. Acute psychological distress (d.) is associated with an extremely low score on the K (Correction) Scale.

Answer 43

67. A-- Kohlberg believed that the three levels of moral reasoning reflect different levels of cognitive development, which encompasses changes in social perspective-taking. At the conventional level, the person views an individual as a member of society and bases his/her moral judgments on that conceptualization.

Answer 44

68. B-- Compared to the SSRIs, the tricyclics are much more likely to cause anticholinergic effects. Confusion is one of several possible anticholinergic effects. Other anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia. The only anticholinergic listed in this question is amitriptyline. The other three choices are SSRIs: fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and paroxetine (Paxil).

Answer 45

69. B-- Psychologists and other health professionals have no legal or ethical obligation to enter into a professional relationship. Though they cannot discriminate on the basis of race, gender, sexual orientation, or any basis proscribed by law, they can refuse to enter into a relationship based on a client's diagnosis -- even if they are competent to treat individuals with that diagnosis and even if their reasons for doing so are not valid. However, if they do refuse to take a case, psychologists are required to make appropriate referrals.

Answer 46

70. D-- Equity theory holds that, in any work situation we assess both our input (how much effort we are contributing to a work situation) and our output (how much we get out of it). We then compare our input/output ratio to what we perceive are the ratios of our co-workers. A state of balance exists when we perceive that our input/output ratios are equal to those of our co-workers. An unbalanced situation is one in which these ratios are not perceived as equal. For instance, underpayment is an unbalanced situation in which outcomes are perceived to be less than contributions, and overpayment occurs when we perceive that our outcomes exceed contributions. Equity theory holds that motivation is affected by these perceived input/output ratios. For instance, if you perceive that you are contributing more to a company than a co-worker who is getting paid the same amount, you would take action to correct this inequity, whether it be by working less, asking for a raise, leaving the job, re-evaluating the value of your contributions, etc. Similarly, if you are getting paid more than a co-worker whom you perceive as just as valuable as yourself, you may work more, do better quality work, decide that you are more important than the co-worker, etc. The point is that the theory suggests that the relationship between pay and motivation is complex and will be mediated by one's perceived input, the perceived input/output ratio of co-workers, and the strategy chosen to achieve a state of balance or equity.

Answer 47

71. D-- The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs aren't.

Answer 48

72. C-- According to "Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings," "The psychologist should be impartial regardless of whether he or she is retained by the court or by a party to the proceedings. If either the psychologist or the client cannot accept this neutral role, the psychologist should consider withdrawing from the case. If not permitted to withdraw, in such circumstances, the psychologist acknowledges past roles and other factors that could affect impartiality (American Psychologist, 49(7), 1994, 677-680).

Answer 49

73. C-- This is an extremely difficult question. That's why you will review these tests several times. In regard to answer C, the opposite is true; Subirana (1969) found that left-handers generally exhibit milder aphasia, and recover more thoroughly and more quickly than right-handers. The course of recovery from aphasia due to head injury is related to several factors including age at time of injury–especially during the first three months (Kertesz, 1979).

Answer 50

74. C-- Several studies have found that the risk for suicide and suicide attempts is higher among both male and female adolescents in single-parent homes as compared to dual-parent homes.

Answer 51

75. C-- The typical sleep cycle begins with Stage One and progresses to Stage Two, Three and Four. This is followed by a period of REM sleep. Initially, it was believed that all dreaming occurred during REM sleep, but it is now known that dreams also occur during non REM sleep. Dreams during REM sleep are much more vivid and more likely to be remembered when the sleeper awakes.

Answer 52

76. B-- According to the research of Baumrind, authoritative parents, who are described as being high in control (demandingness) and high in warmth (responsiveness) tend to raise children who are most resilient to the stresses of life. These children have better coping skills, are more mature, responsible, and perform better on cognitive measures. Permissive or Laissez fairre parents (A) express warmth but use little discipline. Their children have difficulty controlling their impulses and, although they are intelligent, they are not motivated to achieve. Authoritarian parents (C) are high in control, but low in warmth. Their children are often insecure, dependent, and perform more poorly on cognitive tests. Finally, uninvolved/rejecting/neglecting parents (D) are low in both control and warmth and their children have the worst coping skills. The children tend to be antisocial, lack self-regulation, are more immature, and score lower on cognitive tests. [D. Baumrind, The influence of parenting style on adolescent competence and substance use, Journal of Early Adolescence, 1991, 11(1), 56-95].

Answer 53

77. C-- T1 is the first level of the thoracic spinal cord and innervates the hand and arm. C8 innerverates the ring and little fingers. L1 (answer A) refers to the lumbar region which contains nerves that affect to hip, thigh, and leg. S1 to S3 (answer B) is referring to the sacral region which innerverates parts of the foot and leg. T2 to T3 is referring to the lower thoracic region which innervates the trunk. It would be good to know that the spinal cord is divided into four regions: cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.

Answer 54

78. C-- Both meta-analyses and literature reviews involve a summation of research studies related to a particular topic or hypothesis. However, unlike a literature review, a meta-analysis involves calculation of an "effect size," or a statistic that indicates the average effect of a particular treatment across the studies reviewed. This involves converting data from many different studies into a common metric so that their results can be combined and compared. A literature review, by contrast, provides descriptive information only.

Answer 55

79. C-- Psychoanalysis as a treatment rests on the work of interpreting transference and resistance. The goal is to replace the acting-out neurosis with the transference neurosis, so that the patient can be made to see his or her conflicts as they are exemplified by his or her reactions in the analytic situation. In fact, the transference neurosis is something the therapist attempts to engender by remaining neutral and letting the patient project his or her feelings toward past significant others onto the therapist. Thus, it is a sign that the analysis is having an effect. If the patient cannot develop a true transference neurosis, as is true of many severely disturbed individuals, psychoanalytic success will be limited.

Answer 56

80. C-- Client-centered case consultation focuses on a specific client and the consultant advises the consultee in regard to the best course of action in working with the client. The consultant gathers information about the client and then makes recommendations to the consultee regarding a treatment plan or course of action. The consultant may directly assess the client but does not administer treatment (response “D”). Responses “A” and “B”describe consultee-centered consultation, which focuses on the skills, knowledge, and ability of the consultee.

Answer 57

81. D-- The first three answers are descriptions of Kohlberg's theory. Answer D is Carol Gilligan's criticism of Kohlberg. Gilligan thought males are likely to refer to principles of justice and fairness when making decisions, while females are more likely to refer to interpersonal connectedness and care. Research has not generally supported Gilligan's hypothesis.

Answer 58

82. B-- Worldview refers to the manner in which people perceive, evaluate and react to encountered situations. Sue and Sue describe mainstream American culture “as the epitome of the individual-centered approach that emphasizes uniqueness, independence and self-reliance” (p.277). This is characterized by an internal locus of control and locus of responsibility in Sue, D.W. & Sue, D. (2003). Counseling the culturally diverse: Theory and practice. 4th edition. New York: John Wiley.

Answer 59

83. B-- This type of thinking is an example of the "personal fable" or the idea that one is unique and not subject to the natural laws that govern others (such as the concept of mortality). Elkind (1984) "All Grown Up and No Place to Go" Reading, MA. Addison-Wesley, wrote about the personal fable and also the "imaginary audience" which is the idea that one is always the center of other's attention.

Answer 60

84. A-- A "repeated measures" design, sometimes referred to as a "within-subjects design," uses more than one measurement of a given variable for each subject. For example, longitudinal studies and pre-test/post-test designs measure the same subjects multiple times. These designs have several disadvantages including: "Autocorrelation" (B), which means that observations obtained close together in time from the same subjects tend to be highly correlated. This violates the independence of observations assumption made by statistical tests. "Practice effects" (C), "carryover effects" (D), and "order effects" all refer to systematic changes in subjects' performance due to prior exposure to a treatment condition or measurement. However, multicollinearity (A) refers to a problem associated with multiple regression which occurs when two or more predictors are highly correlated with each other.

Answer 61

85. C-- A client's right to confidentiality is protected by a court of law. The client's right to keep his/her matters confidential is referred to as privilege. The court also determines exceptions to privilege, such as the Tarasoff Statute.

Answer 62

86. D-- Since this study was designed for a duration of 6 months, it should continue as planned before any conclusions regarding the effectiveness are made. Informing any of the groups about the relative effectiveness of any of the treatments prior to the conclusion of the study would likely contaminate the validity of the final results. Of course, the researchers have an obligation to inform the participants of the results and conclusions of the research, but this should not be provided until the conclusions have been made.

Answer 63

87. A-- Because this evaluation was court-ordered you were not actually required to obtain informed consent. However Standard IV.E.1 of the Speciality Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that "if the client appears unwilling to proceed after receiving a thorough notification of the purposes, methods, and intended uses of the forensic evaluation, the psychologist should take steps to place the client in contact with his or her attorney for the purpose of legal advice on the issue of participation." Remember, you always want to take the most careful and conservative approach if possible. While you may be tempted to choose answer C and add the client's comments to your report, this would contradict Standard V.C. of the Forensic Guidelines which states that, "In situations where the right of the client to confidentiality is limited, the forensic psychologist makes every effort to maintain confidentiality with regard to any information that does not bear directly upon the legal purpose of the evaluation." Finally, as a thorough evaluator you should have read the case file closely; however, you would not proceed with an evaluation differently just because your client is an attorney.

Answer 64

88. C-- D. G. Perry and K. Bussey (Social Development, Englewood Cliffs, NJ, Prentice-Hall, 1984) focus on family interaction factors in the development of aggressive behavior. They propose that aggression is related to parental rejection and lack of warmth and use of harsh forms of discipline.

Answer 65

89. D-- This is one of those questions that requires you to select the best answer among several good choices. According to DSM-IV-TR, Borderline Personality Disorder is characterized by "A pervasive pattern of instability of interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity..." The other answer choices are characteristics typically seen among patients with BPD; however, Choice D offers the most general and complete description, and is, therefore, the best answer.

Answer 66

90. A-- A number of possible behavioral treatment strategies for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder have been described. Two of the most commonly employed are thought stopping and deliberate exposure with response prevention. Thought stopping, which primarily applies to obsessions, involves teaching the client to yell "STOP!" (or self-apply another aversive technique) when he or she begins to engage in obsessive rumination. Deliberate exposure with response prevention involves exposing the client to situations which evoke obsessions or compulsions and then blocking him or her from engaging in them. Other behavioral techniques used in the treatment of the disorder include relaxation training, paradoxical intent, covert sensitization, and systematic desensitization.

Answer 67

91. B-- The standard error of measurement indicates how much error an individual test score can be expected to have. A confidence interval indicates the range within which an examinee's true score is likely to fall, given his or her obtained score. To calculate the 95% confidence interval we simply add and subtract two standard errors of measurement to the obtained score. Two standard errors of measurement in this case equal 10. We're told that the examinee's obtained score is 90. 90 +/- 10 results in a confidence interval of 80 to 100. In other words, we can be 95% confident that the examinee's true score falls within 80 and 100.

Answer 68

92. A-- Legally-defined exceptions to privilege varies from state to state. However, most, if not all, states, waive privilege when a psychologist is acting in a court-appointed capacity; a client initiates a malpractice or other lawsuit against a therapist; a client has introduced a mental condition as a defense in a civil suit; a client has sought the assistance of a therapist solely for the purpose of committing a crime; and a therapist determines that a client is in need of hospitalization for a mental or psychological disorder.

Answer 69

93. C-- While standard developmental scales don't predict later IQ score, a baby's responses to a visual attention task do. How much time it takes the baby to assimilate a novel stimulus is moderately predictive of later IQ score since, it is hypothesized, the mental functioning involved is similar.

Answer 70

94. D-- Left-right disorientation is typically caused by damage in the parietal lobe, specifically the left angular gyrus located between the parietal and temporal lobes. It is also one of the symptoms of Gerstmann’s syndrome.

Answer 71

95. B-- The tendency to react in a way that is opposite of what is requested or desired is referred to as psychological reactance. Reactance is most likely to occur when the individual feels that his/her personal freedom is being restricted, which would probably be the case in the situation described in the question.

Answer 72

96. D-- This is one of those questions that may drive you crazy, because all four choices describe ways in which an Alzheimer's patient can be assessed. Thus, you must choose the best answer. Because Dementia of the Alzheimer's Type is a cognitive disorder, it makes sense that the most direct way to assess it on an ongoing basis is to regularly administer cognitive assessments. The question is really as much about how Alzheimer's is defined as it is about how to assess it.

Answer 73

97. B-- According to the DSM-IV-TR, the presence of serious symptoms (e.g., suicidal ideation) or any serious impairment in social, occupational, or school functioning indicates a GAF score of approximately 40 - 50.

Answer 74

98. D-- Depression is associated with decreased slow-wave or non-REM sleep as well as, early morning waking (a.), decreased sleep continuity (b.) and earlier onset of REM sleep or decreased REM latency (c.).

Answer 75

99. B-- The effects of crowding are mediated by a person's level of distraction; for example, a person viewing a boring documentary in a crowded movie theater has been found to feel the effects of crowding more than a person watching an interesting movie in the crowded theater. Contrary to "A," men tend to be more adversely affected by crowding than women. Contrary to "C," crowding does not always have a negative impact on affect; rather, it tends to enhance whatever a person is already feeling (e.g., a person at a crowded party or sports event may experience enhanced positive feelings). And common sense should have allowed you to eliminate "D" because people are less willing to discuss intimate details in crowded situations.

Answer 76

100. D-- Research with drugs led to the formulation of the “catecholamine hypothesis” about the cause of mood disorders. First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.’s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe agitation. MAO inhibiters and tricyclics, although they work in somewhat different ways, are used to treat depression and tend to increase the amount of norepinephrine available in the central nervous system. A variety of approaches, especially in the United States, tested this hypothesis and the results are inconclusive. Nonetheless, this theory served as the “standard” theory for depression in the United States until the 1980s. (See: McNeal, E. T., and Cimbolic, P. (1986). Antidepressants and Biochemical Theories of Depression. Psychological Bulletin, 99(3), 361-374.)

Answer 77

101. A-- Focusing solely on a detail is an example of selective abstraction. Overgeneralization is abstracting a general rule from one or two situations and then broadly applying it to other situations. Personalization is attributing external events to oneself without evidence of a causal correlation. Dichotomous thinking is categorizing experiences in one of two extremes.

Answer 78

102. B-- Declarative memory is a type of long-term memory which one can report or declare. Another term for declarative memory is "explicit memory" because one can clearly or explicitly recall the memory. Implicit (A) memories, on the other hand, are retrieved without conscious awareness. Implicit memories are also referred to as "procedural" memories as these consist mostly of automatic skills or procedures. Semantic memory (D), which is knowledge about language and facts, is usually considered to be one type of declarative memory, but it is not a synonym for declarative memory. The other type of declarative memory is episodic memory, which is memory for events that have been personally experienced.

Answer 79

103. D-- As long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client, sliding scale fees are generally considered acceptable. The Ethics Code does not explicitly address sliding scale fees.

Answer 80

104. B-- According to Hales, Yudofsky and Talbott, (1944), hypnosis involves three factors, 1) absorption, whereby the individual is completely engrossed in a central experience, 2) dissociation, whereby the ordinary functioning of consciousness and memory are altered in some way and 3) suggestibility, whereby individuals have a tendency to be less inhibited and restricted while in the trance-like state.

Answer 81

105. A-- According to Festinger's social comparison theory, individuals evaluate their own opinions, perceptions, reactions, and beliefs by comparing these opinions, etc., to those of individuals in a reference group. Members of this reference group are those who are similar to the perceiver in terms of beliefs, attitudes, and values.

Answer 82

106. D-- Marriage, especially when reinforced with children, appears to lessen the risk of suicide. Among married people, the rate of suicide is about 11 per 100,000. This rate is higher for single, never-married persons (about 22 per 100,000), even higher for widows (24 per 100,000), and higher still for divorced individuals (40 per 100,000).

Answer 83

107. A-- According to DSM-IV, Schizotypal Personality Disorder appears to aggregate familially and is more prevalent among the first-degree biological relatives of individuals with Schizophrenia than among the general population.

Answer 84

108. C-- The serial position effect refers to the tendency to best recall the first (primacy effect) and last (recency effect) items studied. Thus, a student who is aware of this phenomenon should pay more attention to the material studied during the middle of a study session, since that material is most likely to be forgotten.

Answer 85

109. B-- According to Hollander (1985) in order to successfully challenge the majority opinions of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish credibility as a competent insider. By becoming accepted members of the group, we accumulate idiosyncracy credits which are like brownie points.

Answer 86

110. A-- The interval recording method involves observing a behavior for a single block of time, such as 30-60 minutes per day. The block of time is divided into smaller intervals (e.g., 30 seconds), and the behavior is recorded as having occurred or not occurred during each interval. This is a good method of recording behaviors with no fixed beginning or end, since the observer does not have to identify at what point the behavior began or ended -- he or she simply has to note whether it is occurring at all during a particular time interval.

Answer 87

111. D-- As knowledge about Alzheimer's accumulates, more is being learned about the neurotransmitters involved in the disease. Acetylcholine (a cholinergic neurotransmitter) was the first to be implicated and appears to be the neurotransmitter most involved, especially in early memory and attention deficits. However, serotonin, norepinephrine, and glutamate also seem to be involved but may be more important for symptoms that appear in the later stages of the disorder.

Answer 88

112. C-- TQM is an organizational philosophy that focuses on maximizing customer service and satisfaction. An important characteristic of TQM is its involvement of employees in all aspects of decision-making, and failures are often due to management's unwillingness to do this.

Answer 89

113. C-- According to APA's Record Keeping Guidelines, client "records may be maintained in a variety of media, so long as their utility, confidentiality and durability are assured" (1993, 48 (9), 984-986).

Answer 90

114. C-- Performance deficits on the Stroop test demonstrate a loss of response inhibition following frontal lobe damage. Subjects are presented with a list of color words (blue, green, red, and so forth) with each word printed in colored ink, but not in the color denoted by the word (for example, the word "yellow" is printed in blue, green or red ink). The subject's task is to name the ink color in which each word is printed as quickly as possible. A correct response requires the inhibition of reading the color name. Patients with left frontal lesions are often unable to inhibit reading the words and thus were impaired at this task.

Answer 91

115. A-- Research suggests that high levels of work-family conflict are related to negative outcomes for the individual (life dissatisfaction, anxiety, poor health), for relationships (increased interpersonal conflict, divorce), and for the organization (absenteeism, tardiness, loss of talented employees). Work-family conflict can be time-based, strain-based, or behavior-based. Time-based conflict, which occurs when role pressures stemming from the two different domains compete for the individual's time, is the most common type of work-family conflict. It is based on the scarcity hypothesis, that the sum of a person’s energy is fixed; therefore multiple roles inevitably reduces the time and energy available to meet all role demands, resulting in strain and work-family conflict. Much of the research on work-family conflict has been based on this premise proposed by role theory and role scarcity. Work-family conflict is bi-directional; work can interfere with family and family can interfere with work. These are referred to as work-to-family conflict and family-to-work conflict. Recent research, based on the enhancement theory, suggests quality multiple roles provide additional sources of social support, increased skills, and heightened self-esteem and well being. Evidence of positive spillover, both from work to home and from home to work, continues to be found. Strain-based (b.) conflict occurs when the strain experienced in one role domain interferes with effective performance of role behaviors in the other domain. Behavior-based (c.) conflict is described as conflict stemming from incompatible behaviors demanded by competing roles. Recent research, using a systems perspective, demonstrates that one member of a dyad can impact the other’s experience of work-family conflict. The effects of this work and family stress and strain are referred to as "crossover effects.” (See: Barnett, R. C. and Hyde, J. S. (2001) Women, men, work, and family: An expansionist theory. American Psychologist, 56(10), 781-796.)

Answer 92

116. A-- One of the complications of epilepsy is that repeated seizures are correlated, in some cases, with cognitive declines. This is especially true of tonic-clonic seizures regardless of whether they are idiopathic or secondary to (symptomatic of) another disorder.

Answer 93

117. B-- The anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia, are much more likely to result from the tricylics or heterocyclics than the SSRI's. Of the choices listed only Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI. Imipramine (Tofranil) and Amitriptyline (Elavil) are tricyclics and Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a heterocyclic.

Answer 94

118. C-- According to social loafing theory, people "loaf" (don't do their share) when they are participating in a large group and when their contribution, or lack of contribution, will not be detected.

Answer 95

119. A-- According to the DSM-IV, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are (1) significantly subaverage intellectual functioning (an IQ score of 70 or less), (2) deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18. The other choices may be part of the clinical picture of Mental Retardation, but they are not diagnostic criteria.

Answer 96

120. D-- Although it is not necessary to obtain informed consent for court-ordered evaluations, the subject of the evaluation should be informed of its purpose. Furthermore, if the subject does not want to be evaluated, the subject's attorney should be contacted before taking further action. If the attorney also objects to the evaluation, the psychologist should then notify the court and respond as directed.

Answer 97

121. D-- The Symptom Checklist 90 (SCL-90) is a self-report inventory assessing general psychiatric symptoms of anxiety, depression, somatization, obsessive-compulsiveness, and hostility. Clients respond to the stimulus term, such as "feel nervous inside" on a 5-point Likert type scale from "not at all" which gives a score of 0, to "extremely" which gives a score of 4.

Answer 98

122. B-- In this case there is nothing wrong with you testing the child and tests are available. But you should also use your knowledge and judgment to counsel the mother about the use of tests for such a young child. While it's true that there is some predictive validity for intelligence tests starting at about 18 months to 2 years of age, you should still tell the mother that many things will determine her daughter's future school performance and that we can't be so sure she will continue as she presently is.

Answer 99

123. D-- Reading Disorders, like most mental disorders in the DSM-IV, are only diagnosed when the symptoms cause significant distress or functional impairment. A child whose score on a reading achievement test is one standard deviation above the mean probably would not be impaired or distressed in relation to reading. This is true even though the DSM-IV states that the discrepancy between achievement and intelligence that defines a Learning Disorder is "usually defined as a discrepancy of more than two standard deviations between achievement and intelligence." Here, the word "usually" allows for some exceptions, and, as noted, a child with a clearly above average reading achievement test score would not be functionally impaired in reading.

Answer 100

124. D-- When the dependent variable is repeatedly administered to the same subjects, the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable is referred to as autocorrelation. Repeated measures is the only design listed that repeated measurement occurs in.

Answer 101

125. B-- Most research (especially recent research) suggests that client-therapist racial or ethnic similarity per se does not have a significant impact on therapy outcome. However, ethnic or racial matching does interact with a number of other variables in affecting outcome. For instance, recent research with African-American clients shows that cultural mistrust, or suspiciousness of Caucasians due to the historical animosity between the two racial groups, is negatively correlated with therapy effectiveness. Other research has suggested that Caucasian therapists' own racial identity development is moderately correlated with their multicultural counseling skills. By the way, the opposite of choice C is true: The research suggests that the impact of cultural differences can be lessened if the therapist attends to and raises racial issues during the early stages of therapy.

Answer 102

126. D-- Joining, a technique used by structural family therapists, involves taking steps to become a family insider by, among other things, assuming the same type of communication style, sharing personal stories, etc.

Answer 103

127. B-- This condition is known as prosopagnosia, which refers specifically to the inability to recognize familiar faces. Visual agnosia (answer A) is a more general term and refers to the inability to recognize familiar objects by sight. Topograpagnosia (answer C) involves deficits in spatial ("route-finding") ability; and Capgras' syndrome is the belief that a familiar person has been replaced by an imposter who has an identical or similar appearance.

Answer 104

128. A-- Lewin focused on the individual's "life space" in the immediate present. Although he did not ignore the past or the future, he believed that they were important only to the extent that they had an impact on the individual's current situation.

Answer 105

129. D-- According to Ethics Standard 2.01(d), “When psychologists are asked to provide services to individuals for whom appropriate mental health services are not available and for which psychologists have not obtained the competence necessary, psychologists with closely related prior training or experience may provide such services in order to ensure that services are not denied if they make a reasonable effort to obtain the competence required by using relevant research, training, consultation, or study.” Since Dr. Bean is the only mental health professional in town, this is the best course of action of those given in the responses since there is no indication that the clients have problems that Dr. Bean doesn't want to treat or that she would not be able to treat with consultation or supervision.

Answer 106

130. B-- When treating individuals with paraphilias, behavior therapies are used based on the reasoning that maladaptive behavior has been learned and can therefore be unlearned. Orgasmic reconditioning (a.) instructs a client to begin masturbating while fantasizing about the inappropriate stimulus then switch from the paraphilic to more appropriate fantasies at the moment of masturbatory orgasm. Systematic desensitization (c.) pairs slow, systematic exposure to anxiety-inducing situations with relaxation training. Aversive conditioning (d.) substitutes a negative response for a positive response to inappropriate stimuli such as through pairing paraphilic urges with negative experiences, for example electric shocks or unpleasant odors.

Answer 107

131. D-- Engineering psychology is concerned with fitting aspects of the job to the worker. The focus is on the total environmental system, including procedures, work environments, and the design and functioning of equipment. Thus, in this situation, an engineering psychologist would most likely focus on the safety of the work environment.

Answer 108

132. A-- Research on risk factors is not entirely consistent. However, most studies concur with Gould (1992) who found the most consistent predictors to be a diagnosis of depression, use of drugs and alcohol, and antisocial behavior.

Answer 109

133. C-- You probably could have answered this question just by using what you know about cognitive therapy and behavioral therapy -- you did not really need to know much about pain management. Behavioral treatments for managing pain tend to emphasize the importance of environmental contingencies (e.g., avoidance of work, sympathy) in maintaining pain, while cognitive techniques focus on the patient's beliefs -- particularly beliefs about control over his or her own life and therefore over his or her pain. Of course, this is consistent with the principles of cognitive-behavioral treatments in general.

Answer 110

134. B-- The hopelessness theory of depression is a revised version of the 1978 reformulated theory of helplessness and depression. The authors of the hopelessness theory propose that hopelessness is a cause, rather than a symptom, of depression. Specifically, they suggest that hopelessness is a "proximal sufficient cause" of depression. "Proximal," in this case, means that in a chain of causal factors, hopelessness occurs at the end of the chain – closest to the resulting symptoms of depression. "Sufficient," in this case, means that the presence of hopelessness is enough to cause depression. However, contrary to Choice A, hopelessness is not a necessary condition for depression. That is, factors other than hopelessness can also cause depression [L. Y. Abramson, G. I. Metalsky, & L. B. Alloy, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372].

Answer 111

135. A-- Using a Global Assessment Scale, Sue (1991) found that patients from all groups show improvement in scores following therapy, but as a group, African-Americans have less favorable outcomes than Asian, Hispanic, or Anglo Americans.

Answer 112

136. A-- Organization development (OD) is a process used to facilitate organizational change. The phases of OD have been described by Burke as: entry, contracting, diagnosis, feedback, planning change, intervention, and evaluation. The purpose of the feedback phase is to help clients understand the information that the consultant has gathered and diagnosed so the clients can decide what actions to take [W. Burke, 1982, Organization Development: Principles and Practice. Boston, MA: Little, Brown and Company].

Answer 113

137. C-- Mean square within (or MSW) is a measure of within-group variance -- the degree to which subjects within the same experimental group differ from each other. MSW is the denominator of the F ratio, and is referred to as the error term. The larger the magnitude of MSW, the less likely the F ratio will be significant.

Answer 114

138. A-- High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety while low levels have been linked to depression and appear to contribute to binge eating. Research by Kaye et al (1997) proposes that anxiety is caused by high levels of serotonin and individuals with Anorexia temporarily relieve anxiety through starvation which reduces tryptophan, which then reduces the level of serotonin. The lowered serotonin fosters a sense of calm and personal control. Inversely, low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia as sweets and carbohydrates increase serotonin and elevate mood. (See: Kaye W.H., Weltzin T.E. Serotonin activity in anorexia and bulimia nervosa: relationship to the modulation of feeding and mood. Journal of Clinical Psychiatry, 1991; 52:41-58. and Kaye W.H. Serotonin function in eating disorders. Biological Psychiatry, 1997: 42:56.)

Answer 115

139. B-- Huntington’s Chorea is a dominant, autosomal disorder. Individuals with autosomal dominant diseases have a 50% chance of passing the mutant gene, and therefore the disorder, onto each of their children. Most dominant traits are due to genes located on the autosomes (the non-sex chromosomes). An autosomal dominant trait typically affects males (d.) and females (c.) with equal likelihood and similar severity. Although Huntington's usually does not manifest until mid-life, research indicates some variability, with the most severe cases showing up as early as two years of age, and on the other hand, some individuals remain symptomless until age 60. Research shows that the symptoms generally emerge earlier and become worse with each passing generation. Diagnosed by genetic testing, there is presently no cure although medication is used to control affective and motor symptoms.

Answer 116

140. C-- Most experts advocate a comprehensive treatment approach for chronic pain. Their recommended treatments involve teaching the patient a number of coping skills designed to alleviate pain and improve the patient's feelings of control. See, for example, H. Philips, The effects of behavioral treatment on chronic pain, Behaviour Research and Therapy, 1987, 25, 365-377.

Answer 117

141. D-- Huntington's Disease is due to degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, and the degeneration is usually first apparent in the caudate nucleus. (The basal ganglia include the caudate nucleus, the putamen, and the globus pallidus.)

Answer 118

142. A-- Studies of Schizophrenic individuals show the “positive symptoms,” such as delusions, hallucinations and thought disorder, usually respond better than the “negative symptoms” to antipsychotic treatment. Alogia, or speechlessness (b.), avolition, or lack of initiative or goals (c.) and affective flattening (d.) are all negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.

Answer 119

143. B-- This is a description of Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive or fluent aphasia, which can be caused by damage to Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe.

Answer 120

144. A-- This is a good question, because it requires you to have a good grasp of the classical conditioning paradigm as well as understand some of the differences between classical and operant conditioning. First, you might remember that classical conditioning is associated with the acquisition of involuntary responses, whereas operant conditioning is associated with voluntary responses. If you remembered this, you should have been able to narrow the choices down to A and B, since anxiety is an involuntary, uncontrollable response. According to the classical conditioning model of anxiety, a stimulus or event that naturally evokes anxiety (the unconditioned stimulus, or US) is paired with a previously neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus, CS) until the neutral stimulus comes to elicit anxiety. For example, being stuck in an elevator (the US), by being paired with elevators in general (the CS), might cause an elevator phobia. If you chose D, you may have been thinking about avoidance conditioning, in which the avoidance response is negatively reinforced. However, in avoidance conditioning, the actual experience of anxiety is acquired through classical conditioning. Negative reinforcement is the mechanism that underlies the avoidance behavior, not the anxiety itself.

Answer 121

145. B-- The feminist approach to psychotherapy rests on the assumption that social roles and socialization are important determinants of behavior. Psychological conflicts are then alternative roles and options. A primary goal is empowerment or helping women become more self-defining and self-determining.

Answer 122

146. A-- Criterion contamination can occur when ratings are used as the criterion measure in a predictive equation. If the rater knows the ratees' scores on the predictor, the rating process can be contaminated. For instance, let's say IQ is used as a predictor of job performance. If the rater of job performance knows that an employee has an IQ of 150, the rater may judge the employee's job performance high simply because he knows the employee is very intelligent. This is criterion contamination, and it results in a spuriously high validity coefficient. Here, for instance, the IQ test will look like a very good predictor of job performance; however, if the raters had not known the ratees' IQs beforehand, the IQ test may not have turned out to be such a great predictor at all.

Answer 123

147. B-- Children with ADHD have been found to score lowest in the digit span and arithmetic subtests of the WISC-III. Indeed, these two subtests make up the Freedom From Distractibility index which measures distractibility, concentration, and short-term memory. Although children with ADHD tend to score lower in digit span and arithmetic, researchers have cautioned against using the WISC-III as a diagnostic tool for ADHD (A. Anastopoulos, M. Spisto, & M. Maher. The WISC--III freedom from distractibility factor: Its utility in identifying children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Psychological Assessment, 1994, 6(4), 368-371).

Answer 124

148. D-- Even though you might not have too much difficulty handling this situation in real life, this question might have been difficult because none of the choices is clearly "wrong." The best answer is choice D -- it's in the client's best interests that you explain why you feel he should not terminate, but, if he chooses to do so, you must respect his right to self-determination. Choice A does not include your explaining your concerns to the client, so it is not as good. You might have been seduced by choice B, because seeking consultation is never a bad thing to do, but it is not necessary in this common and relatively straightforward situation. Similarly, when clients want to terminate, it's always important to discuss their reasons, as stated by choice C. In this case, however, the client's reasons are pretty clear -- the problem for which he sought therapy is solved.

Answer 125

149. B-- There is a curvilinear relationship between anxiety and performance. This means that neither too little nor too much anxiety is optimal -- a moderate amount is best. However, the optimal amount of anxiety also depends on the complexity of the task. For complex tasks, the optimal anxiety level is lower than it is for simple tasks.

Answer 126

150. A-- This question involves deception in research, distress and debriefing. Due to the use of deception and the resultant participant distress, debriefing immediately following participation is the best option as described by Standard 8.07(c) Deception in Research: “Psychologists explain any deception that is an integral feature of the design and conduct of an experiment to participants as early as is feasible, preferably at the conclusion of their participation, but no later than at the conclusion of the data collection.” The Ethics Code on Debriefing, Standard 8.08(a), notes, “Psychologists provide a prompt opportunity for participants to obtain appropriate information about the nature, results, and conclusions of the research, and they take reasonable steps to correct any misconceptions that participants may have of which the psychologists are aware,” and in Standard 8.08(c) “When psychologists become aware that research procedures have harmed a participant, they take reasonable steps to minimize the harm.”

Answer 127

151. C-- Discrimination and generalization refer to the differences in precision of stimulus control, or the ability of a stimulus to alter the probability of a response. Response probabilities vary with different contexts, discriminative stimuli, and reinforcement contingencies (e.g., what is likely to be rewarded, ignored, or punished). In this case, the adolescent behaves differently in one context (with friends) than in another context (with adults). Friends are a discriminative stimulus in which the response of swearing is more likely to occur. Overcorrection (d.) is a technique that is used to reduce an undesirable behavior and replace it with a more desirable one.

Answer 128

152. D-- To calculate the scaled scores on the WAIS-III, one must use the subtest raw scores, the examinee's chronological age, and a score conversion table.

Answer 129

153. A-- Drinking alcohol anytime during pregnancy can have adverse effects on the fetus. However, alcohol consumption during the first trimester is more likely to cause structural and anatomical defects, characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome. Consumption during the second and third trimesters is more likely to result in growth restriction and functional impairment. (Health Canada, population and public health branch, Canadian perinatal surveillance system: Alcohol and pregnancy, 1998, retrieved from http://www.hc-sc.gc.ca/hpb/lcdc/brch/factshts/alcprg_e.html).

Answer 130

154. D-- Initially, treatment manuals were developed to standardize treatments so that their effects could be empirically evaluated and provide guidelines for training therapists. Manual-guided treatments detail the theoretical underpinnings of a treatment, the treatment goals, and specific therapeutic strategies and guidelines. Research on manual-guided treatment outcome (response “C”) is inconsistent but has generally not found it to have substantially better outcomes than treatments not guided by the use of a manual. (See: Beutler, L. E., et al. (2000). Therapist variables, in M. Lambert (ed.), Bergin and Garfield’s Handbook of Psychotherapy and Behavior Change (pp. 227-306), New York: John Wiley & Sons.)

Answer 131

155. B-- Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). At the preconventional level, morality is based on the consequences of an act. Good behaviors are rewarded and bad behaviors are punished. The next level is conventional, in which morality is guided by the desire to maintain existing social laws, rules, and norms. In the post-conventional level individuals view morality in terms of self-chosen principles. Heteronomous morality (D) is a term use by Piaget to describe preschool children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable.

Answer 132

156. C-- Most research studies report a moderate relationship between a therapist's experience and the outcomes of therapy for the client overall, but a somewhat stronger relationship when the client's symptoms are severe. This makes sense: Experience would seem to be more important for very troubled clients. See A. Roth and P. Fanagy, What Works for Whom? A Critical Review of the Psychotherapy Research, New York, Guilford Press, 1996. Note that in the Clincal Psychology section, we report that there is little relationship between therapist experience and outcome. This finding is based on older research, and you should use the newer information included in this explanation.

Answer 133

157. A-- Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate "C" (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.

Answer 134

158. B-- Of the theories listed in the responses, only one -- equity theory -- predicts that worker motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our own situation and that of others.

Answer 135

159. D-- Distinguishing between internal and external threats to validity can be difficult. Indeed, some experts disagree on how to categorize some of them. However, all of the choices except D are generally considered to be threats to external validity. Order effects (A) (also known as carryover effects) occurs in repeated measures designs, or in studies in which the same subjects are exposed to more than one treatment. For example, in a study on the effects of marital therapy interventions, couples are given relaxation training followed by communication training. If significant improvement occurs, it may be due to relaxation training preceding communication training; therefore, the results could not be generalized to situations in which subjects only receive communication training. The Hawthorne effect (B) occurs when subjects behave differently due to the fact that they are participating in research. Obviously this threatens external validity since the results cannot be generalized to real-life situations in which people are not participating in research. Interaction between selection and treatment (C) refers to when a treatment has different effects depending on the selection of subjects. For example, studies that only use undergraduate students (as many studies do) might not generalize to non-undergraduate students. Finally, history (D) refers to an external event, other than the experimental treatment, that affects scores on the DV. This is primarily considered a threat to internal validity. For example, if a study on the effects of a new treatment for depression began several weeks before the events on "9-11" and concluded several weeks after "9-11," the results might indicate that the new treatment is not effective. However, this might not be a valid conclusion due to the effects of history.

Answer 136

160. A-- An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is an example of a reversal design -- a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the "A" phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the "B" phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured, (the second "A"), and the behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied (the second "B"). In other words, the same subject receives all the treatments that are applied (actually, the same treatment at different times; thus, the word "all" might be somewhat misleading, but A is still the best answer). Choices C and D are examples of multiple baseline designs.

Answer 137

161. A-- Kohlberg distinguishes between three levels of moral development (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional), and each of these levels is further divided into two stages. The child described in this question is in the first stage of the conventional level, which is sometimes called the "good boy/good girl" stage.

Answer 138

162. A-- Brain plasticity refers to the ability of the nervous system to adapt to different circumstances and to find new ways of learning. Plasticity is particularly useful for acquiring a new skill or recovering from a brain injury. Children, as you might expect, have greater plasticity than adults, although adults maintain some degree of plasticity throughout their lives. The greater plasticity in children is attributed to their brains not being fully developed. The human brain continues its development throughout childhood and into early adulthood, with significant increases in neural connections and myelination. However, adults, having more life experience, have more explicit and implicit memories. Adults also tend to have better metamemory, that is, greater knowledge of what one knows and how one's memory works, although this ability may decline among older adults.

Answer 139

163. D-- A number of special types of rating scales designed to reduce rater bias (such as the forced-choice and the Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales) have been derived, and, in fact, there is some research to show that they are effective in doing so. However, no rating scale will be effective unless raters are trained adequately in its use. Indeed, research shows that relevant training can minimize some rating errors -- specifically, the halo effect, constant error such as the leniency or strictness bias, and contrast effects. The operative word here is "relevant": unless training focuses on matters such as the multi-dimensionality of work performance, objective recording of behavior, and rating people in terms of actual job requirements, training the raters won't work.

Answer 140

164. B-- According to Glasser’s Reality Therapy, when an individual is capable of fulfilling his or her own needs for survival, power, belonging, freedom and fun, without harming self or infringing on the rights of others, then he or she has developed a “success identity.” When the needs are met irresponsibly then the individual has developed a “failure identity.” Bern (a.) is associated with transactional analysis (TA); Perls (c.) is associated with gestalt therapy; and Rogers (d.) is associated with client-centered therapy.

Answer 141

165. C-- Most of the diagnoses in the DSM-IV-TR include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a diagnosis to be made, a person may have some but not all of the possible diagnostic criteria. Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) requires the presence of five (or more) symptoms out of a list of nine items. Thus, two patients could each meet the criteria for BPD but only share one of the symptoms. For example, one patient could meet criteria # 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 and the other patient could meet criteria # 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. In this case they would only share criteria # 5. Choice A is incorrect, because the DSM-IV-TR uses a categorical approach, rather than a dimensional approach. A categorical approach divides categories, in this case, mental disorders, based on criteria sets. A dimensional approach would quantify patients' symptoms based on severity. Contrary to Choice B, most of the DSM-IV-TR criteria are clear and well-defined. Choice D can be eliminated because the question stem indicates that both patients meet the DSM-IV criteria, which should be assumed to be a valid statement.

Answer 142

166. A-- On a job selection test, a "false positive" is someone who is identified by the test as successful but who does not turn out to be successful, as measured by a performance criterion. If you raise the selection test cutoff score, you will reduce false positives, since, by making it harder to "pass" the test, you will be ensuring that the people who do pass are more qualified and therefore more likely to be successful. By lowering the criterion score, what you are in effect doing is making your definition of success more lax. It therefore becomes easier to be considered successful, and many of the people who were false positives will now be considered true positives. If you understand concepts in pictures better than in words, refer to the Test Construction section, where a graph is used to explain this idea.

Answer 143

167. D-- Sue and Sue (1999) described three premises from the Western perspectives of counseling, based on the assumption of individualism, that can have an effect on the therapeutic relationship. They are identified as class-bound values, culture-bound values and language variables. Class-bound values include valuing of time boundaries or a strict adherence to time schedules, an ambiguous and unstructured approach to problem solving, and the emphasis on long- range goals and solutions. Culture-bound values focus on individualism versus collectivism, cause and effect relationships for client problems (a.), emphasis on emotional/verbal expressiveness, active participation and openness to discussing intimate aspects of the client’s life (b.), and the separation of physical and mental well-being (c.). Language variables are those in which standard English and verbal communication are stressed.

Answer 144

168. D-- Ethical Standard 8.02(b) states that “Psychologists conducting intervention research involving the use of experimental treatments clarify to participants at the outset of the research (1) the experimental nature of the treatment; (2) the services that will or will not be available to the control group(s) if appropriate; (3) the means by which assignment to treatment and control groups will be made; (4) available treatment alternatives if an individual does not wish to participate in the research or wishes to withdraw once a study has begun; and (5) compensation for or monetary costs of participating, including if appropriate, whether reimbursement from the participant or a third-party payor will be sought.”

Answer 145

169. C-- The notion of state dependence predicts that memory is maximized when we are in the same emotional state during learning and recall.

Answer 146

170. D-- This is a difficult question because it provides so little information about Jesse Jr.'s behavior. However, it is normal for children to show distress before and after visits to the noncustodial parent, especially during the first few months after the divorce. (For sexual abuse to be the right answer, you'd want to see more severe symptoms that last for a longer period of time.)

Answer 147

171. B-- The clue here is the practice effect. That means that if you give a test, just taking it will give the person practice so that next time, he or she is not a naive person. To control for that, we want to eliminate the situation where the person is administered the same test again. So we do not use test-retest. We can use the two other methods listed. We can use split-half since, here, only one administration is used (the two parts are thought of as two different tests). And, in the alternative forms method, a different test is given the second time, controlling for the effects of taking the same test twice.

Answer 148

172. D-- This question merely requires you to think about the word "intrinsic," which means internal. In choices A, B, and C, external rewards are motivating the behaviors; however, a boy collecting stamps is usually motivated by his own intrinsic interest in the hobby. You should know that problems occur when we take something that is intrinsically rewarding and provide extrinsic rewards for it. Then, the person typically stops working for the intrinsic rewards and attributes his behavior to the extrinsic rewards. That's been termed "turning play into work."

Answer 149

173. C-- A low selection ratio means that there's lots of applicant to choose from (which is preferable to having only a few to choose from). A moderate base rate is preferable to a high or low base rate because this means that there's room for improvement in the selection process. When the base rate is high, the company is already doing a good job and doesn't need a new predictor; when the base rate is low, this usually means that something other than selection is the problem (e.g., the company's performance standards are too high or there just aren't enough good applicants to choose from).

Answer 150

174. D-- Response cost, a form of negative punishment, involves removal of a prespecified reward every time a behavior targeted for elimination is performed. Here, the prespecified reward being removed is a portion of the child's allowance, and the behaviors targeted for elimination are those on the list constructed by the parents and the therapist.

Answer 151

175. D-- Conger's (1956) tension-reduction hypothesis proposed that alcohol consumption reduces stress, which reinforces alcohol use, resulting in a greater likelihood of alcohol consumption in times of stress. Thus, the basis of the theory is operant conditioning [J. Conger, Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 1956, 17, 296-305]. Subsequent research findings on Conger's theory have been mixed, leading some researchers to conclude that the theory is overly simplistic.

Answer 152

176. A-- Learner-centered education, as defined by McCombs and Whisler (1997), is “the perspective that couples a focus on individual learners (their heredity, experiences, perspectives, backgrounds, talents, interests, capacities, and needs) with a focus on learning (the best available knowledge about learning and how it occurs and about teaching practices that are most effective in promoting the highest levels of motivation, learning, and achievement for all learners).” In 1993, the American Psychological Association's Presidential Task Force on Psychology in Education developed twelve psychological principles for learner-centered education and identified the implications of these principles for instruction, curriculum, assessment, school redesign and reform. In 1997, the psychological principles pertaining to the learner and the learning process were increased to 14. Rather than conditioned habits or physiological factors, the principles focus on psychological factors that are primarily internal to and under the control of the learner. Although, they attempt to acknowledge contextual factors or external environment that interact with these internal factors as well. The principles are intended to deal holistically with learners in the context of real-world learning situations and are best understood as an organized set of principles; instead of viewed in individual isolation. They are also intended to apply to all learners, such as children, parents, teachers, administrators and members of the community involved in the educational system. The 14 principles are divided into five categories of factors influencing learners and learning: cognitive and metacognitive; motivational and affective; developmental; social and personal; and individual differences. (See: American Psychological Association. (1997). Learner-centered psychological principles: A framework for school reform. Washington, D.C. and McCombs, B.L., & Whisler, J.S. (1997). The learner-centered classroom and school. San Francisco: Jossey-Bass.)

Answer 153

177. C-- Questions like this are certainly frustrating, since in real life you would conduct a comprehensive assessment of the person before planning interventions. For the exam, however, you must do your best with the information you have at hand. Paranoid ideations in elderly clients are often wholly or partially due to what is happening around them. For instance, elderly people often live in high crime areas, are victimized by unscrupulous businessmen, and are plotted against in various ways by family members. If the person is mildly memory impaired, depressed, and/or hearing impaired, these events can seem even more threatening and the ideations can intensify. Thus, of the choices listed, the best option would be to alter the environment to make it seem less threatening.

Answer 154

178. A-- The Ethics Code states that you should deal with ethical violations by another psychologist in an informal manner, by bringing it to the attention of the psychologist. A report to an ethics committee should be made when the attempt at informal resolution has failed or if the violation is not amenable to informal resolution. Thus, you should speak to the psychologist privately and report her to an ethics committee if she still refuses to change her behavior. You may have thought that, since the psychologist has already stated her refusal to behave ethically, you should go ahead and report her, without bothering to talk to her. This actually makes sense, but the Ethics Code requires that you attempt an informal attempt at resolution first. A staff meeting is a formal setting, and does not personally give you the opportunity to attempt an informal resolution.

Answer 155

179. B-- Both Sleep Terror Disorder and Sleepwalking Disorder have been linked to a family history (d.) and are associated with amnesia for the episode upon awaking in the morning (c). Sleepwalking Disorder is usually associated with low levels of autonomic arousal (a.) and is characterized by prominent, organized motor activity such as walking around, talking, and eating. Both disorders do involve motor activity, although the activity associated with Sleep Terror Disorder is less organized and usually involves resisting being touched or held and sitting up.

Answer 156

180. A-- Super postulated a developmental sequence of vocational development occurring through the life span and consisting of five stages: growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and decline. Each of these stages also consists of a number of substages. Super coined the term "vocational maturity" to refer to the degree to which a person's progress in this sequence is appropriate given the person's chronological age. In fact, Super and his colleagues constructed a number of assessment instruments specifically designed to measure vocational maturity.

Answer 157

181. B-- Research investigating the impact of personal and contextual characteristics on the creativity of employees indicates increasing the physical distance between workers (a.), providing supportive supervision (d.), and being informed evaluations will be developmental rather than judgmental has a positive effect on employee creativity. The expectation that one’s work will be critically evaluated tends to diminish creativity. Of the five personality factors, openness to experience (c.) has been most strongly related to creativity. [See: Shalley, C., Zhou, J., & Oldham, G. (2004). The effects of personal and contextual effects on creativity: Where should we go from here?, Journal of Management, 30(6), 933-958.]

Answer 158

182. A-- Interpersonal therapy, described by Klerman and Weisman (Klerman G..L., Rounsanville B.. Chevron E., and Weissman M., 1984 Interpersonal Psychotherapy of Depression. New York: Basic Books) relates depression to difficulties with social roles and interpersonal relationships. These are traceable to a lack of strong attachments early in life. The primary goals of IPT are symptom reduction and improved interpersonal functioning.

Answer 159

183. C-- A basic tenet of systems theory is that a system seeks homeostasis, or balance and stability. Consequently, the alternative description of a system as always tending toward chaos is actually opposite to what is the case. All the other alternatives are more or less true of the systems approach.

Answer 160

184. A-- The key words in this question were "for women in general." You had to know that PMS is actually not typical of most women. While it is not uncommon for women to have mild psychological symptoms during the latter part of the luteal phase, there is no specific pattern typical of most women. Make sure you read each word in the question. You might want to use your pencil and point to each word as you read. This reduces the chance of missing something. If the question were about women who do suffer from PMS, the answer would be B.

Answer 161

185. A-- Though 80% of quitters gain weight, the average weight gain is only between 7-9 pounds. The other choices are true statements.

Answer 162

186. A-- This question is related to Weiner's attributional theory of motivation and emotion. Attributions are our causal explanations for events and the behavior of ourselves and others. According to Weiner, attributions can be due to factors that are either internal or external, stable or unstable, controllable or uncontrollable, intentional or unintentional, and global or specific. Someone with high self-esteem would take credit for his or her achievements and be proud of them. Thus, he or she would likely attribute them to internal, stable, controllable, intentional, and specific causes. The attributions are most likely specific rather than global because a person with high self-esteem will acknowledge that he or she isn't successful in everything. For example, a very successful athlete or CEO would not assume proficiency in brain surgery.

Answer 163

187. A-- This is an example of inductive reasoning, or reasoning from a particular fact to a general rule. B, symbolic thought, is the understanding that one thing can stand for another, C, deductive reasoning, is reasoning from a general law to a particular case, and D is object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they are not visible.

Answer 164

188. B-- Flextime allows the employees to make their own schedule, as long as they work the required number of hours and as long as they are present for the pre-defined "core" hours" (e.g., 10 a.m. to 2 p.m.). As you might expect, research shows that flextime is associated with increased job satisfaction, better attitudes toward the job and the work environment, and less worker stress.

Answer 165

``` 189. A-- All the choices refer to methods of recording behaviors that can be used by observational raters or researchers. In interval recording (the correct answer), the rater observes a subject at given intervals and notes whether or not the subject is engaging in the target behavior during that interval. For instance, a rater might observe a student for 10 seconds every three minutes and record whether on not the student is on-task during those 10 seconds. Interval recording is most useful for behaviors that do not have a fixed beginning or end -- such as being on task. Frequency recording (choice B) involves keeping count of the number of times a behavior occurs; this would not be practical in keeping track of whether or not a person is on task. Continuous recording (choice C) involves recording all the behaviors of the target subject during each observation session. Although it's possible to keep track of whether a person is on-task using this method, it is not as practical or meaningful for this purpose as interval recording. Finally, duration recording involves recording the elapsed time during which the target behavior or behaviors occur. This would not be practical for a behavior that has no fixed beginning or end. ```

Answer 166

190. C-- Piaget distinguished between heteronomous and autonomous stages in moral development. Heteronomous morality is characteristic of preschool children who believe that rules are absolute and unchangeable. A child in the autonomous stage views rules as more arbitrary and changeable by consensus.

Answer 167

191. D-- Your friend's child is exhibiting an insecure/avoidant attachment as described by Ainsworth. Ainsworth found that babies with this type of pattern often had mothers who were either very impatient and nonresponsive, or alternatively overstimulating. Neglect (answer A) is most associated with a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern.

Answer 168

192. B-- A mediator variable is a variable that accounts for or explains the effects of an IV on a DV. That is, the IV affects the mediator variable, which affects the DV. In this example, the IV is exercise, the mediator variable is anxiety, which explains how the DV, substance craving, is reduced. A moderator variable (C) is similar to a mediator variable, but a moderator variable only influences the strength of the relationship between two other variables, it doesn't fully account for it. For example, if a job selection test has different validity coefficients for different ethnic groups, ethnicity would be a moderator variable because it influences the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion) but it does not fully account for the relationship. A suppressor variable (A) reduces or conceals the relationship between variables. For example, the K scale in the MMPI-2 is a suppressor variable because it measures defensiveness, which can suppress the scores on the clinical scales. The K scale is, therefore, used as a correction factor for some of the clinical scales. Criterion contamination (D) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.

Answer 169

193. C-- This question is about multiple relationships. Ethical Standard 3.05(a) (Multiple Relationships) indicates that, “A psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists." Thus, if there are just two of you in the class, this relationship might impact the therapeutic one, while in a large class, the effects will probably be negligible. The Standard doesn't tell you how to decide–it just instructs you to determine what is in the best interest of your client.

Answer 170

194. D-- The Dopamine Hypothesis was originally based on two important findings: that antipsychotic medications, which can cause motor disturbances, affect dopamine in the brain; and that stimulants activate dopamine receptors. This latter finding is often neglected. However, knowing that stimulants stimulate dopamine helps explain why individuals intoxicated with cocaine or amphetamine often develop psychotic-like symptoms [A.A. Baumeister and J.L. Francis, Historical development of the dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, Journal of the History of the Neurosciences, 2002, 11(3), 265-277].

Answer 171

195. D-- Although Kohlberg is probably better known as a theorist of moral development than Piaget, the latter had his own theory, which basically stressed that as children grow, they move from viewing rules as fixed dictates of authority to flexible instruments of human purposes that can be changed. The point of view of Kohlberg, Piaget, and other theorists with similar ideas is sometimes termed the cognitive-developmental point of view because, from the perspective of these theories, development in a number of areas is mainly a function of cognitive development. Both Kohlberg and Piaget believed that moral development occurs in an invariant sequence and is related to both cognitive development and peer interaction. However, neither Piaget nor Kohlberg believed that there are cultural differences in the early stages of moral development, though Kohlberg has noted that the nature and rate of moral development at its higher levels does differ across cultures.

Answer 172

196. D-- In this situation, the babysitter's "candy-giving behavior" has increased because it caused a stimulus to be removed (the child's whining). This is negative reinforcement.

Answer 173

197. A-- The question relates to Schachter's classic research on obesity showing that obese people rely more on external than internal cues in their eating behaviors.

Answer 174

198. A-- The goal of stepwise regression analysis is to derive the smallest subset of predictors, out of a larger set, that maximizes the ability to predict outcome on a criterion variable. There are two types of stepwise multiple regression: forward and backward. In forward stepwise regression, predictors are successively added to the multiple regression equation. With each addition, an analysis is conducted to determine if the predictive power of the equation is increased. Predictive power is measured by the squared multiple correlation coefficient (also known as the coefficient of multiple determination). Thus, choice A is the best answer.

Answer 175

199. D-- The caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia which is responsible for initiating movement. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in patients with Huntington's Disease which is a disorder which includes affective, motor, and cognitive symptoms. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder ("A") is believed to be related to an overactive caudate nucleus.

Answer 176

200. A-- Divergent thinking is a creative elaboration of ideas prompted by a stimulus. It enables one to "diverge" from traditional approaches, or what is commonly referred to as "thinking out of the box." Brainstorming, in which people are encouraged to generate all the ideas they can without worrying about evaluation or censure, encourages divergent thinking. The other choices listed all stimulate convergent thinking, which is based on an analysis of information usually leading to a single solution.

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