Exam 1 Flashcards
1
Q
The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is:
a. age b. ethnicity c. history of criminal behavior d. severity of substance abuse problems
A
D– Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay & R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with long-term follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).
2
Q
Dementia due to Head Trauma
a. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma. b. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma. c. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions. d. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated more with deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.
A
B– As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually nonprogressive when it is the result of a single head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition (e.g., hydrocephalus).
3
Q
J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who:
a. Has a low retention of the minority culture b. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture c. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture d. Gets along with others in the workplace
A
B– J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.
4
Q
Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person’s sense of satisfaction and well-being?
a. neither short-term nor long-term effects b. short-term but not long-term effects c. long-term but not short-term effects d. both short-term and long-term effects
A
B– Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don’t really affect a person’s long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person’s well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.
5
Q
According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer?
a. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships. b. The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal. c. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship. d. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.
A
B– Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.
6
Q
A child is reinforced for cleaning up her room and for doing homework. Reinforcement for the homework is stopped. One could predict that cleaning up will:
a. increase and doing homework will decrease. b. decrease and doing homework will also decrease. c. increase and doing homework will increase. d. decrease and doing homework will increase.
A
A– This question has to do with the behavioral contrast effect. If we are reinforced for performing two different operants, and reinforcement for one of these behaviors stops, we tend to increase the rate of the remaining reinforced behavior. That is probably because the reinforcement that remains seems to become more valuable.
7
Q
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation:
a. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor b. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables c. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor d. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables
A
C– In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.
8
Q
According to M. Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, a student with an optimistic attribution style who fails an exam in a class which he usually does well in is most likely to say:
a. "I was unlucky" b. "I didn't study enough" c. "the teacher is always a tough grader" d. "the test was hard this time"
A
D– In Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of attributions of depressed people. Since depressed people make internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events, optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative events. Therefore, we can readily eliminate “B” (“I didn’t study enough”) since that’s an internal attribution. Choice “C” (“the teacher is always a tough grader”) is a stable attribution. That leaves Choices “A” (“I was unlucky”) and Choice “D” (“the test was hard this time”) – which are both external and unstable attributions. Of the two, however, Choice “D” is better since being unlucky would imply that success is a matter of luck.
9
Q
To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on
a. the perceptions of employees. b. a job description. c. a job evaluation. d. a task analysis.
A
C– The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.
10
Q
- Research investigating the relationship between sexual abuse in childhood and the development of Bulimia Nervosa in adulthood has found:
a. the same rate as in the general population.
b. a higher rate for children who were sexually abused.
c. no significant relationship.
d. a significant relationship for men but not for women.
A
B– Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk.
11
Q
By the time an individual diagnosed with __________________ reaches middle age, particularly the fourth decade of life, the symptoms often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting all the diagnostic criteria.
a. Histrionic Personality Disorder b. Avoidant Personality Disorder c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
A
- C– The symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD), particularly criminal behaviors, often become less evident as an individual grows older (DSM-TR-IV, p. 704). APD has a chronic course and while some symptoms like criminal behaviors may decrease, other symptoms such as difficulties with interpersonal relationships may persist. (See: Paris, J. (2004). Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429.)
12
Q
The term “group polarization” refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are
a. more risky than those that might be made by individual members. b. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. c. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. d. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.
A
C– A group’s decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won’t have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.
13
Q
The Solomon four-group design is:
a. a quasi-experimental design b. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups c. used to reduce practice effects d. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting
A
D– The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.
14
Q
A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when:
a. a study includes two or more independent variables
b. a study includes two or more dependent variables
c. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable
d. a study includes at least one independent variable that is a between-groups variable and another independent variable that
is a within-subjects variable
A
B– A MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. A factorial ANOVA (a.) is used to analyze data when a factorial design, which includes two or more independent variables, is used and the dependent variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale. A one-way ANOVA (c.) is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA (d.) is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable.
15
Q
The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it:
a. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes. b. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry. c. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants. d. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.
A
A– This was a California case related to the use of standardized intelligence tests for assessing children for placement in special classes for the mentally retarded. It’s one of several famous cases and rulings which questioned the validity of using these tests for this purpose. The ruling, which continues to be challenged, banned the use of IQ tests in the placement of minority children in special education classes.
16
Q
A new professor is teaching her first class on feminist theory. What is she required to do?
a. Present a balanced view of feminist theory vs. other theories b. Concentrate solely on feminist theory; it is a given that there are other views of psychology c. Use it as a forum for presenting her dissertation findings d. Present other theories, but explain why feminist theory is the most appropriate paradigm for women
A
A– While B and D could both possibly be an option, (A) is more in line with Standard 6.03 (a) which deals with objectivity: “When engaged in teaching or training, psychologists present psychological information accurately and with a reasonable degree of objectivity.”
17
Q
An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that
a. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate.
b. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable.
c. a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship
between the independent and dependent variables.
d. a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.
A
A– When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.
18
Q
A psychologist sees clients at a facility where fees are capitated. What does this mean?
a. providers are paid a fee each time a service is performed
b. clients are billed according to their ability to play
c. clients are required to meet a deductible before their insurance will pay
d. providers receive a fixed dollar amount over a specific period of time to cover the service needs of a fixed number of
clients
A
D– The term “capitation” refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response “D,” providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.
19
Q
The best treatment for someone who has difficulty making friends, is shy, and can’t maintain steady employment is:
a. individual social skills training. b. paradoxical intention. c. token economy. d. group social skills training.
A
D– Treatment for very shy individuals who have trouble in interpersonal settings (as implied by the fact that the person cannot hold a job) typically involves social skills and assertiveness training. Although both of these treatments can be administered in individual therapy, the group format has a number of advantages: there are multiple models, and opportunities for feedback, support, and vicarious learning. These aren’t available in individual training sessions. Thus, D is the best answer.
20
Q
The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be
a. maturation b. selection. c. regression. d. history.
A
- D– To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you’d need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You’d have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.
21
Q
When helping his younger sister with her homework, an older brother “thinks aloud” while solving problems and gives his sister suggestions and support. This is best described as
a. mentoring. b. scaffolding. c. social facilitation. d. social referencing.
A
B– The older brother is using techniques associated with “scaffolding,” which was originally described by Vygotsky and refers to the temporary support that parents, teachers, and more experienced children give to a child to help him/her do a task or acquire a skill.
22
Q
A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women’s clothing would be diagnosed with:
a. Transvestic fetishism b. Exhibitionism c. Transvestism d. Gender identity disorder
A
A– According to DSM-IV, Transvetic Fetishism is diagnosed when a heterosexual male has recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving cross dressing. (B) Exhibitionism, involves the exposing of one’s genitals to an unsuspecting stranger (C) Transvestism is not a DSM-IV term (D) Gender identity disorder includes a strong and persistent cross-gender identification with evidence of clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
23
Q
Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that which of the following clients would be most likely to report benefitting from psychotherapy?
a. a wealthy client who pays a very high fee b. a poor client who pays a very high fee c. a wealthy client who pays a very low fee d. a poor client who pays a very low fee
A
B– According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is benefitting from therapy.
24
Q
Patients with depression typically have:
a. more rapid onset of REM sleep b. decreased slow wave sleep c. increased percentage of REM sleep d. all of the above
A
D– Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression (e.g., D. Giles, D. Kupfer, A. Rush, & H. Roffwarg, Controlled comparison of electrophysiological sleep in families of probands with unipolar depression. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1998, 155(2), 192-199).
25
In an experiment, a psychologist establishes a conditioned startle response to a flashing red light by pairing presentation of the light with a loud noise that naturally elicits a startle reaction. Subsequently, the red light is simultaneously presented with a strong odor just before the loud noise. After many of these conditioning trials, which of the following is likely to occur when the strong odor is presented alone?
a. The strong odor will produce a startle response that is even stronger than the response produced by the red light due to
sensitization of the subject.
b. The strong odor will produce a very weak or no startle response due to habituation.
c. The strong odor will not produce a startle response because blocking will have occurred.
d. The strong odor may or may not produce a startle response depending on the original strength of the subject's response to
the loud noise.
C-- Blocking occurs when a CS is presented simultaneously with a second stimulus just before the US. Although it would seem that the second stimulus should acquire the properties of a CS from this procedure, that's not what happens. Instead, the second stimulus does not produce a conditioned response. This is referred to as blocking.
26
According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in
a. decentration.
b. equilibration.
c. assimilation.
d. symbolic representation.
B-- As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.
27
An adolescent's behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of:
a. Adler.
b. Ellis.
c. Perls.
d. Freud.
A-- Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.
28
Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about:
a. being away from home or close relatives
b. being embarrassed in public
c. performance in school or sporting events
d. having an illness
C-- According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.
29
According to the central limit theorem,
a. as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal.
b. as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal.
c. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal.
d. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.
C-- According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section.
30
The most effective behavioral technique to reduce a school-aged child’s temper tantrums is:
a. modeling
b. extinction
c. positive reinforcement
d. negative reinforcement
B-- Extinction is the elimination or reduction in the frequency of a response achieved by the removal of the reinforcement maintaining the response. The extinction of temper tantrums would entail ignoring the child’s behavior or not reinforcing it with attention. This technique has been found to be effective for reducing temper tantrums. Positive (c.) and negative (d.) reinforcement are used to strengthen behaviors. Modeling (a.) is used to teach new behaviors.
31
Thinning refers to the process of:
a. switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule
b. switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule
c. switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule
d. switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule
D-- Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.
32
A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven't told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist:
a. should have the parents report this to the pediatrician.
b. should report this to the pediatrician.
c. should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first.
d. should keep this information to herself.
B-- This question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it's about professional relationships. You're told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, "What should the psychologist do?" Since we're all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents' consent.
33
A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin's school of thought would examine a family system in terms of
a. multigenerational transmission processes.
b. subsystems and boundaries.
c. fusion and differentiation.
d. communication style.
B-- Salvador Minuchin's Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.
34
An older brother helps his younger brother to build a fort by giving his brother verbal explanations and suggestions as they go. The researcher who would use this as an illustration of his theory is:
a. Piaget
b. Patterson
c. Vygotsky
d. Erikson
C-- This technique is what Vygotsky referred to as "scaffolding" and it is based on his idea that children receive support and teaching from their parents and other more experienced children.
35
You are seeing a client who exhibits all the major symptoms of a Major Depressive episode. You should
a. invite his wife in to aid in completing a more comprehensive family history.
b. assess for early child abuse.
c. refer him to a psychiatrist for a medical evaluation.
d. assess for recent deaths in his family.
C-- While the other choices could be options, "all the major symptoms" should tip you off to your client's level of distress. Standard 1.20 (Consultations and Referrals) states, "Psychologists arrange for appropriate consultations and referrals based principally on the best interests of their patients."
36
A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing:
a. paresis.
b. hemiplegia.
c. quadriplegia.
d. paraplegia.
A-- The term "paresis" means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or "general paresis") has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term's literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.
37
When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has:
a. Expert power
b. Coercive power
c. Referent power
d. Reward power
C-- Referent power is based on a person's attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. "A" Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. "B" Coercive power results from the holder's ability to punish others. And finally, "D" reward power, results from the holder's ability to reward others.
38
Linnehan's dialectical behavioral therapy is a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy that involves
a. intensive individual sessions.
b. family therapy.
c. individual and group sessions.
d. group therapy.
C-- Linnehan uses dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) in the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. DBT is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy that emphasizes social skills training, self-soothing exercises, and group dynamics. The patient is offered intensive individual and group sessions that are a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy. DBT has been shown to reduce hospitalization and self-mutilating behavior (Linnehan, Heard, and Armstrong, 1993).
39
Which of the following is most true of Type I Schizophrenia as described by Timothy Crow?
a. There will be a poor prognosis.
b. The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality.
c. A majority of symptoms will begin in adolescence.
d. It will not respond to most antipsychotic medications.
B-- Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities (T.J. Crow, The two syndrome concept: Origins and current status, Schizophrenia Bulletin, 1992, 11, 471-486).
40
A multivariate analysis of variance would be used to analyze collected data when:
a. the researcher wants to analyze the effects of an extraneous variable
b. the researcher wants to remove the effects of an extraneous variable
c. the study includes two or more independent variables
d. the study includes two or more dependent variables
D-- The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate.
41
Working Memory is an expansion of the WISC-III Freedom from Distractibility factor. It is comprised of which of the following scales?
a. Coding, symbol search, digit span
b. Arithmetic and digit-span
c. Perceptual organization, comprehension, similarities
d. Digit-span, picture arrangement, coding
B-- The Working Memory scale is comprised of the WISC-III subtests of Arithmetic and Digit-Span and measures numerical ability, attention, and concentration.
42
When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program's efficacy has to do with
a. generalization of behaviors.
b. choice of reinforcers.
c. exchange ratio.
d. reinforcement value.
A-- Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking away a reinforcer when a person engages in an undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.
43
Which of the following personality variables is significantly correlated with job performance across the widest variety of occupations?
a. agreeableness
b. emotional stability
c. extraversion
d. conscientiousness
D-- Factor analytic studies have identified five personality dimensions -- agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, openness, and conscientiousness -- that appear to underlie all other personality traits. The dimensions are commonly referred to in the literature "The Big Five." Of these, conscientiousness has the highest correlation with job performance and training success across a wide range of settings.
44
You have been seeing a client for several months and believe that treatment has been a success. When you suggest termination to the client, he expresses a desire to continue therapy. Both you and the client are unable to come up with additional treatment goals; however, the client states that he really looks forward to coming to therapy just to talk. In this situation, you should:
a. terminate treatment immediately.
b. terminate treatment after a period of pretermination counseling, in which the client's reasons for not wanting to terminate
are explored.
c. continue seeing the client until he is ready to end therapy.
d. seek consultation.
B-- Ethical standard 10.10 requires that a psychologist terminate a professional relationship when it becomes “reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service." Prior to termination, the psychologist must “provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate."
45
One of the criteria for the diagnosis of autism is:
a. Difficulty with phonemes
b. Difficulty with morphemes
c. Reversal of pronouns
d. Reversal of sentences
C-- People with autism rarely speak (about half don't speak at all) and when they do, speech usually involves abnormalities such as echolalia and reversal of pronouns, for example, saying "you" instead of "I".
46
What is the approximate probability that a person with a Schizophrenic brother (not an identical or fraternal twin) would also have Schizophrenia?
a. 60%
b. 45%
c. 10%
d. 0.5%
C-- The concordance rate for Schizophrenia among siblings is about 10%. If you didn't know this, you might have been able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high. And 0.5% is at the low end of estimates of the approximate lifetime prevalence rate of Schizophrenia and therefore should have seemed too low to be the concordance rate among related individuals.
47
When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers?
a. the Y-intercept
b. the slope of the curve
c. the position of the curve (left versus right)
d. the position of the curve (top versus bottom)
B-- An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item – its difficulty (answer C); its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).
48
An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner's microsystem will focus on
a. family members.
b. family members and/or classmates.
c. school and church.
d. parents’ work and friends.
B-- Bronfenbrenner's ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual's immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.
49
Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of
a. increasing true positives
b. decreasing false positives
c. decreasing true negatives
d. decreasing false negatives.
B-- A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic "Criterion-Related Validity" in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would be increased).
You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of saying this is that fewer people will come up "positive" on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and false positives.
50
Your managed care company denies to pay for further sessions for a client and requests that you do not tell the client of its decision. In this situation, you should
a. terminate with the client as requested.
b. continue to provide treatment to the client if you believe the client could benefit from treatment.
c. inform the client of all aspects of this decision that are relevant to treatment.
d. seek the advice of an attorney regarding a possible lawsuit against the managed care company.
C-- This question is not so much about managed care as it is about informed consent procedures. Whether or not a patient's treatment is being financed by a managed care company, a psychologist should inform clients of relevant information regarding treatment at the outset of the professional relationship and continue to provide such information as it arises throughout treatment. Due to the nature of managed care companies, there may be more concerns that need to be discussed with managed care patients than with other clients. But the general informed consent requirement applies to this situation as well as many others.
The other choices don't really address the issue raised by the question. Both choices "A" and "B" describe two possibly acceptable responses to this situation, but neither are requirements -- whether or not you would continue to see the patient would depend on a number of factors, including the patient's needs and your policies. Choice "D" implies that the managed care company's actions are illegal and have caused you harm, but the question does not provide enough information for you to reasonably conclude that this is true.
51
According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends:
a. "You are a pretty bad dancer"
b. "You are not a bad dancer"
c. "You should become a professional dancer"
d. nothing about dancing
A-- Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other's evaluation matches the person's self evaluation).
52
According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be
a. family history of alcoholism.
b. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning.
c. interpersonal pressure and identifications.
d. age and SES.
A-- If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you'd find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as "the best predictor of (some disorder)" is "family history of that disorder." You won't be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.
53
All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except
a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests.
b. it's a useful theory in the development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual's level of
ability.
c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait."
d. it usually has little practical significance unless one is working with very large samples.
A-- Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn't have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement.
The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee's ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).
54
Which of the following is most consistent with the research regarding childhood sexual abuse?
a. the effects are less severe for younger children compared to older children
b. the effects are less severe the older the perpetrator is at the time of the abuse
c. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a family member
d. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger
D-- Childhood sexual abuse often results in long-term consequences for the victims; however, certain factors have been found to moderate the severity of consequences. For example, the effects are generally less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger rather than a family member. However, approximately 70% of all incidents of childhood sexual abuse are committed by a family member.
55
The brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is:
a. Tegretol
b. Depakote
c. Dolophine
d. Dexedrine
D-- Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.
56
According to Horn and Cattell (1966)
a. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood.
b. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated.
c. crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.
d. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences.
C-- Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.
57
Curriculum-based assessment is
a. a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are
receiving the same type of instruction.
b. used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed.
c. used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals.
d. used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional
style.
D-- Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student's performance level -- they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student's ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student's performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student's performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself -- rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student's progress in completing the curriculum.
58
If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique?
a. You have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medication evaluation.
b. You help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting.
c. You invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group.
d. Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy.
D-- Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patients with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates.
59
The difference between professional ethics and professional values is best stated by which of the following?
a. If a psychologist is ethical, there should be no difference between ethics and values.
b. Ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong.
c. Ethics can be stated more specifically than values.
d. Values specifically define appropriate professional conduct, while ethics are a more general code of proper professional
conduct.
B-- Response B distinguishes between ethics and values. Values are concerned with what is good and desirable and ethics refer to correct or appropriate practice. Values and ethics are related in that the latter are usually derived from the former; for example, privacy is a value that is reflected in the ethical standard requiring psychologists to obtain clients' informed consent before releasing information about therapy. Responses A and C are not necessarily true, and answer D is not true since values do not specifically define appropriate professional conduct.
60
There is evidence that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization for reducing anxiety is actually due to repeated exposure to the feared stimulus, which leads to extinction of the anxiety response. However, systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of
a. negative reinforcement.
b. counterconditioning.
c. stimulus discrimination.
d. avoidance conditioning.
B-- In systematic desensitization, anxiety-arousing stimuli are paired with stimuli that produce an incompatible response (often relaxation). In other words, it was designed to use counterconditioning in order to eliminate an anxiety response. Some research suggests, however, that it is actually just the exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, without aversive consequences, that explains the effectiveness of this technique.
61
The basic requirements of a token economy are:
a. stimulus sensitization, choice of tokens, rate of exchange.
b. target behaviors, choice of reinforcers, rate of exchange.
c. goal setting, staff cooperation, choice of reinforcers.
d. target behaviors, choice of tokens, primary reinforcers.
B-- To institute a token economy program, you need to know the behaviors you want to change (the target behaviors). You also need to know what is reinforcing for the client (choice of reinforcer). For a hospitalized schizophrenic, it might be walking around; for a child, it might be a candy treat. You also need to know the relationship between token and the reinforcer (rate of exchange); that is, how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer.
62
When a multiple regression analysis is employed to predict outcome, there should be
a. low intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
b. high intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
c. low intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
d. high intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
A-- This question has come up in other examples throughout the tests. Simply stated, we need to have a high correlation between the predictor and the criterion we're making predictions about (this eliminates two of the four alternatives). Also, we need to have the predictors themselves be more or less independent of each other. That is, they shouldn't intercorrelate. If they do, then there's no point in using all of them -- if they all measure the same thing, why not use just one? So, you don't want the predictors to intercorrelate.
63
A primary reinforcer is the same as:
a. A conditioned reinforcer
b. The first reinforcer used
c. Pseudoconditioning
d. An unconditioned reinforcer
D-- A primary reinforcer is the same as an unconditioned reinforcer. These are items that acquire their reinforcing value without special training. Food and water are examples of primary reinforcers.
64
According to Kohlberg's theory, which of the following would be the best example of conventional morality?
a. maximizing individual gains
b. support of social standards
c. behaving solely in line with one's own conscience
d. behaving in such a way as to avoid risk and cost to the individual
B-- Conventional morality is the second level of Kohlberg's three levels of moral reasoning. It is between pre-conventional morality, where the behaviors we view as moral are those that result in a reward or avoidance of punishment; and post-conventional morality, where we function according to our own conscience, no matter what the conventional wisdom is. The person at the conventional level supports the social order. He or she believes in that which is approved of by others or by societal standards is moral.
65
Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
a. dopamine
b. epinephrine
c. GABA
d. norepinephrine
C-- Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).
66
According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using:
a. behavioral modeling
b. vestibule training
c. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule
d. reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs
A-- According to Bandura's social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated. Therefore, Choices C and D, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated. Vestibule training (B) involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling.
67
Wernicke’s, Broca’s and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties?
a. repeating what is said
b. word prosody
c. reception
d. expression
A-- Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
68
Which of the following models of leadership provides a "decision tree" to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation?
a. Fiedler's contingency model
b. Hersey and Blanchard's situational model
c. Vroom and Yetton's normative model
d. House's path-goal model
68. C-- You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don't include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.
69
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must
a. complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist.
b. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training.
c. obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university.
d. meet her state's requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.
B-- The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that "professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology." Choice "B" is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice "C", a second Ph.D. would not be necessary -- doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement.
70
The drug most often abused by teenagers is
a. alcohol.
b. tobacco.
c. marijuana.
d. cocaine.
A-- According to the latest survey completed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (who keep statistics on these types of things) of teenagers aged 12-17, alcohol was their drug of preference. Asked about their drug use in the previous month, 21% had consumed at least one alcoholic drink, 18.2% had smoked cigarettes and 8.3% had used marijuana.
71
An elevated F score on the MMPI-2 (i.e., the F is greater than 70 and the K is very low) indicates that the:
a. person is answering in a socially desirable manner.
b. score should be considered in relation to the total profile.
c. person is likely being careless or deliberately malingering.
d. total profile can be considered valid.
C-- The validity scales on the MMPI-2, of which the F is one, are checks on response styles. Specifically, the F scale indicates if the person is answering in a deviant way, or is perhaps actually deviant. The higher the F, the more the answers suggest that the person is attempting to appear odd, disturbed, etc.
72
Premature termination would be most likely to occur when
a. an African-American client has a Caucasian therapist.
b. an African-American client has an African-American therapist.
c. a Caucasian client has an African-American therapist.
d. a Caucasian client has a Caucasian therapist.
A-- Research with African-American clients on the relationship between therapist-client racial similarity and therapy effectiveness has yielded contradictory results and suggests that this relationship is mitigated by a variety of factors. A clearer relationship exists between similarity and premature termination, with the probability of premature dropout increasing when an African-American client works with a racially dissimilar therapist.
73
In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to:
a. the willingness of a worker to exert effort.
b. the strength of the worker's needs.
c. the desirability of the job itself.
d. the desirability of the consequences of performance.
D-- Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to three phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.
74
The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when:
a. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low
b. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high
c. there are many applicants for few job openings
d. there are few applicants for many job openings
C-- This question is referring to a test's incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test's validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).
Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test's incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.
75
You are a psychologist in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to work with another psychologist. The second psychologist will see many of the clients and share office space with you. You agree to give this psychologist 50% of all fees received. This arrangement is
a. unethical, because the ethical standards prohibit fees for referrals.
b. unethical, because it threatens the best interests of the clients.
c. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees.
d. ethical.
D-- There is nothing inherently unethical about this arrangement, and it is not barred by APA's ethical standards. The standards do prohibit payment for referrals that are based on the referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psychologists in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangement appears acceptable.
76
A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be:
a. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder
b. Male Erectile Disorder
c. Sexual Aversion Disorder
d. Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified
B-- Male Erectile Disorder is characterized by a persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity. This best fits the description in this question. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (A) is diagnosed when a person has persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity. Since the question did not indicate that the man in this question lacked sexual desire, we should not assume that to be the case. Although, if a lack of desire was also present, both diagnoses would be given. There also is no evidence of extreme aversion to, or avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner – which eliminates Sexual Aversion Disorder (C). And Sexual Dysfunction NOS (D) is reserved for sexual dysfunctions that do not meet the criteria for any specific sexual dysfunction.
77
Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true?
a. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous
system.
b. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain.
c. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from
developing at a normal rate.
d. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus;
observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.
B-- Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system -- specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.
78
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that
a. more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy.
b. higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes.
c. age is significantly related to therapy outcome.
d. men are more likely to seek therapy.
B-- One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al., 1989).
79
When a psychologist believes that her patient's records will be used in a legal proceeding, she should:
a. rewrite them to meet the higher standards of a forensic setting
b. avoid the use of any psychological terminology in favor of legal terminology
c. maintain them in the same kind and quality as all of her patients' records
d. maintain them in the kind and quality consistent with reasonable scrutiny in an adjudicative forum
D-- According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), “When forensic psychologists conduct an evaluation or engage in the treatment of a party to a legal proceeding, with foreknowledge that their professional services will be used in an adjudicative forum, they incur a special responsibility to provide the best documentation possible under the circumstances."
80
The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as:
a. gender constancy
b. gender stability
c. gender identity
d. ego-dystonic transvestism
A-- Gender concept develops in a predictable sequence of stages during childhood. The first stage is known as "gender identity," which is the ability to categorize self and others as male or female. There is evidence that gender identity develops as early as 9 months or as late as 3 years, depending on how the researchers define it. The next stage, which develops by 4 years of age, is "gender stability," which is an understanding that one's gender does not change over time. The final stage is known as "gender constancy," which is characterized by an understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance. Gender constancy is achieved by age 5 or 6.
81
The friend of a psychologist is the owner of a small publishing firm. The friend offers the psychologist substantial compensation if she would lend her name to endorsements for his publications, and at times advise and consult on book acquisitions and marketing plans. The psychologist:
a. could accept this as long as APA affiliation is not mentioned in the endorsements.
b. could accept this only if the publications she would be dealing with are in her area of competency.
c. could accept this only if the publications she would be dealing with are in her area of competency, and the endorsements
will be based on the psychologist's honest opinion of the publications.
d. should consult the local ethics committee before making her decision.
C-- The ethical standards say that psychologists cannot make false, deceptive, fraudulent, or misleading statements. Unless the psychologist's endorsements were based on sound expertise and her honest opinion of the publications in question, these standards would be violated.
82
Overall, research on the compressed work week suggests that its effects are:
a. increased job satisfaction, with no effect on job performance.
b. increased job performance, with no effect on job satisfaction.
c. decreased job performance, with no effect on satisfaction.
d. increased job performance and increased job satisfaction.
A-- In the compressed work week (CWW), the number of days worked is shortened but the work hours per day are lengthened. For example, the work week might be compressed into four days a week, ten hours a day. Research results regarding the effects of the CWW are mixed, but most studies suggest that job satisfaction tends to increase, while job performance is not affected and (depending on the job) may even decrease. The CWW also tends to result in decreased absenteeism.
83
Of the following ethnic groups which group is not considered a race?
a. Hispanic
b. Native American
c. African-American
d. Asian-American
A-- Hispanics are an ethnic group like African-Americans, Asian-Americans, and Native Americans. Unlike these groups, Hispanics are not a specific race. According to the 1998 Census Bureau, the total Hispanic population of the US accounts for 11% of the total population. Sixty-three percent are of Mexican origin, 14.4% are of Central and South American origin, 10.6% of mainland Puerto Rican origin, 4.2% of Cuban origin, and 7.4% other (Alfredo Ardilis, Testing Hispanic Populations, Texas Psychologist, Winter 2000).
84
Normal aging is least likely to negatively affect:
a. free recall
b. cued recall
c. working memory
d. picture recognition
D-- You may have recalled that free recall is more affected by age than cued recall; however, picture recognition is the least demanding cognitive process of all of the choices, and is, therefore, the least affected by aging. [See D.C. Park, Mediators of long-term memory performance across the lifespan, Psychology and Aging, 1996, 11(4), 621-637].
85
The California Tarasoff Statute:
a. Changed the Ethics Code in Canada and the United States
b. Extended the duty to warn clause
c. Was necessary as issues implicated by the Tarasoff case account for a majority of forensic cases
d. Applies to everyone working in a public setting
B-- The California Tarasoff statute gives clinicians explicit guidance about when a duty to act arises and tells clinicians what actions fulfill their duty. The first Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn,” however, the case was reheard several years later and the Tarasoff II decision modified the duty to warn to a “duty to protect.” Choice C contradicts the conclusion by Behnke, Preis and Bates in “The Essentials of California Mental Health Law” Norton and Company, 1998, pg. 9 in which they state, “issues implicated by the Tarasoff case and its legal progeny account for a small percentage of forensic cases.”
86
In children, positive outcome following a traumatic event is most likely if the child:
a. has adequate social support and a high level of skill in at least one activity.
b. has a high level of intelligence.
c. is male.
d. has experienced a traumatic stressor.
A-- In both children and adults, high levels of social support is one of the best predictors of positive psychological outcome following a traumatic event. Having skill in at least one activity is associated with self-efficacy beliefs, which are also associated with positive outcome following a trauma in both children and adults.
87
From the perspective of psychoanalytic theory, mania represents:
a. a biological illness that psychoanalysis can do nothing about.
b. acting-out of libidinous impulses.
c. a regression to an infantile state.
d. a defense against depression.
D-- According to classical psychoanalytic theory, mania occurs as a defense against depression, due to an inability of the person to tolerate or admit to being depressed.
88
In terms of self-concept and social relationships, early physical maturity has been found to have which of the following effects for adolescents?
a. positive effects for both males and females
b. positive effects for males but not for females
c. positive effects for females but not for males
d. negative effects for both males and females
B-- The effects of the timing of physical maturation are different for males and females. Boys seem to benefit from early maturation (early maturers are more popular and do better in school), while early-maturing girls experience a number of negative outcome (e.g., shyness, low self-esteem).
89
A Hypomanic Episode would most likely result in:
a. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity
b. decreased productivity, decreased efficiency, and increased creativity
c. increased productivity, decreased efficiency, and decreased creativity
d. increased productivity, increased efficiency, and increased creativity
D-- According to DSM-IV-TR, a Hypomanic Episode is characterized by a period of persistently elevated, expansive, or irritable mood that lasts at least 4 days and is accompanied by three or more symptoms including: inflated self-esteem or grandiosity; decreased need for sleep; talkativeness; racing thoughts; distractibility; excessive involvement in high-risk pleasurable activities; and increase in goal-directed activity. The symptoms are not severe enough to cause marked impairment in functioning and there are no psychotic features. During a Hypomanic Episode many individuals exhibit increased productivity, efficiency, and creativity.
90
90. Beck's cognitive therapy includes all of the following characteristics except:
a. it is referred to as "collaborative empiricism."
b. it is structured and goal-oriented.
c. relapse prevention is a focus throughout.
d. it is based on an elaboration likelihood model.
D-- Beck's model includes all of the characteristics except an elaboration likelihood model, which is a cognitive model of attitude change that predicts that persuasion can occur in one of two ways--through a central and peripheral route (Petty, 1994). Beck's model is referred to as collaborative empiricism (answer A) because it is founded on a collaborative relationship between the therapist and client, and involves gathering evidence and testing hypotheses about the client's beliefs.
91
A client who claims that the disk jockey on a local rock n'roll radio station is speaking directly to him most likely:
a. is experiencing a systematized delusion.
b. is experiencing a delusion of reference.
c. is experiencing a persecutory delusion.
d. has heard the same song over and over again on the local "classic rock" station one too many times.
B-- A delusion of reference is one in which the person believes that objects or events in the immediate environment have an unusual and particular significance to him or her. In a persecutory delusion, the person feels that he or she is being mistreated in some way or conspired against; this is not the case here. Systematized delusions are organized around a coherent theme; there is no evidence that this is the case. Hearing the same song over and over again can drive one crazy, but probably not to the extent described in the question.
92
Walking through a dark park at night, you hear footsteps behind you. You think it may be a mugger so your breathing deepens and heart beats faster, at the same time you experience fear. This is an example of which theory?
a. Cannon-Bard
b. James-Lange
c. Lazarus
d. Schachter-Singer
C-- In contrast to the other three theories, Lazarus’ theory proposes that a thought must precede any emotion or physiological arousal. Cannon-Bard (a.) states physiological and emotional arousal are experienced at the same time. According to the other two, an event causes physiological arousal first, then interpretation (b.) or reasoning (d.) and finally the experience of emotion. A fifth theory of emotion, facial feedback, argues that changes in facial muscles cue the brain and provide the basis of emotion.
93
When men and women are asked to judge photos of women's faces:
a. attractive women are viewed as less intelligent.
b. there is no relation between ratings of beauty and personality.
c. unattractive women are rated as having less positive personalities.
d. women and men disagree on standards of facial beauty.
C-- Researchers find a consistently moderate positive correlation between ratings of facial beauty and ratings of personality and intelligence, regardless of whether the faces are female or male. This is an example of the halo effect. In other words, attractive people are rated as having better personalities and unattractive people are rated less positively.
94
You are an organizational process consultant hired by a hospital. Several nurses tell you they feel they're being overworked and underpaid. In this case, your most likely intervention would be to
a. explain the nurses' concerns to the hospital administrators.
b. conduct a job analysis to determine how much the nurses deserve to be paid and present your results to the hospital
administrators.
c. act with the best interests of the hospital's patients in mind.
d. help the nurses organize regular meetings with the physicians and administrators to discuss their concerns.
D-- A process consultant, rather than merely correcting problems for his or her client, focuses on an organization's underlying processes, with the goal of making changes in processes so that individuals within the organization can solve their own problems. Thus, choice D is the best answer, as it is the only one which offers a way in which the nurses and administrators can work together to solve the problem of dissatisfaction with work conditions. By comparison, choices A and B would have the consultant diagnose and "fix" the problem; these interventions would be consistent with the medical rather than the process model of consultation.
95
According to Margaret Mahler, individuation involves
a. developing relationships with significant others.
b. developing an interest in the outside world.
c. coming to recognize the existence of self and others.
d. coming to recognize that Mother does not cease to exist when she disappears from sight.
C-- According to Mahler, a child must separate and individuate so that he or she can move from being part of a mother-child unit to being a member of a family. Separation occurs when the child disengages and differentiates from the mother, while individuation occurs when the child develops an inner representation of the mother, an ability to test reality, a sense of time, and an awareness of the existence of others as distinct from him or herself. In other words, when the child individuates, he or she moves away from symbiosis with the mother and toward the recognition and experience of his or her individual existence.
96
You belong to a managed-care panel and a client with a 12-session limit was referred to you. Without calling to cancel, she does not show up for her fourth session. How would you bill for the missed session?
a. bill the insurance company
b. bill the client according to office policies
c. bill the client for the co-payment and the insurance company for the no-show
d. you cannot bill either the client or insurance company
B-- The best answer is that you should bill according to your office policies which, presumably, was explained and agreed to by the client at the beginning of treatment (Standard 6.04: Fees and Financial Arrangements). If charging the client for the missed session was not agreed upon in advance, this would be unethical (which response “D” suggests). Responses “A” and “D” are correct in stating that you cannot bill the insurance company, since you should only bill insurance for services that you actually provide (Standard 6.06: Accuracy in Reports to Payors and Funding Sources). While your financial agreement may or may not require the client to cover the co-payment for missed sessions (response “C”), Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes do not provide a code for no-shows, and billing for services not rendered is unethical.
97
Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the:
a. cerebellum
b. thalamus
c. occipital lobe
d. parietal lobe
B-- Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief (30 seconds or less) and are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus (the central relay station for sensory information going to the cortex).
98
According to McClelland's Need for Achievement theory, individuals high in Need for Achievement will prefer:
a. difficult tasks which bring very high acclaim when achieved.
b. moderately difficult tasks which are both attainable and difficult enough to satisfy the person's need to feel a sense of
accomplishment.
c. easy tasks which are very easy to achieve and therefore provide immediate gratification of the person's needs.
d. any task which gives the person the opportunity for recognition and control over others.
B-- According to McClelland's theory, three needs underlie motivation: need for achievement, need for power, and need for affiliation. Individuals high in need for achievement tend to seek autonomy, personal responsibility, and recognition for their efforts. Since the need for achievement is balanced against a need to avoid failure, these individuals tend to prefer moderately difficult goals and tasks.
99
The part of the brain that is compromised in Parkinson's Disease is the
a. basal ganglia.
b. substantia nigra.
c. hypothalamus.
d. frontal lobe.
B-- The substantia nigra is a group of neurons that is part of the extrapyramidal motor system. Parkinson's disease, which is characterized by tremors and other disorders of voluntary movement, is caused by degeneration of substantia nigra neurons. When substantia nigra neurons degenerate, the amount of dopamine they provide to neurons in the basal ganglia (also part of the extrapyramidal motor system) is reduced. In other words, basal ganglia neurons are also involved in Parkinson's disease -- the disease occurs when they get a lower than normal quantity of dopamine. Thus, if substantia nigra were not a choice, the basal ganglia would be the best answer. Note, however, that, unlike substantia nigra neurons, basal ganglia neurons remain intact in Parkinson's disease.
100
The tendency to rate all using the low end of the rating scale is referred to as:
a. floor effect
b. contrast effect
c. central tendency bias
d. severity error
D-- Another term for the strictness bias or error is severity error. This rater bias refers to the tendency of raters to rate all ratees using the low end of the rating scale. A rater rating all individuals using the middle range of a rating scale is exhibiting the central tendency bias (c.). If the ratings of one individual is affected by the ratings given to another, then the rater bias is a contrast effect (b.). A floor effect is not a rater bias. Characteristic of a measuring instrument, floor effect refers to the inability to distinguish between individuals who have low levels of what is being measured.
101
According to Janet Helms' (1995) White Racial Identity Development Model, the final stage of racial identity development is:
a. autonomy
b. disintegration
c. reintegration
d. immersion-emersion
A-- According to Helms, autonomy is the final stage of racial identity development. Autonomy is characterized by a nonracist White identity based on a realistic understanding of the strengths and weaknesses of White culture. At this stage, Whites value and seek out cross-racial interactions.
102
According to DSM-IV, patients who meet some but not all of the criteria for a particular diagnosis can still be assigned that diagnosis. This reflects the fact that:
a. DSM-IV relies on a dimensional rather than a categorical approach to diagnosis.
b. DSM-IV relies on a categorical rather than a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
c. DSM-IV combines aspects of categorical and dimensional diagnosis.
d. DSM-IV's approach to diagnostic classification is not valid.
B-- DSM-IV uses a categorical approach to diagnosis. This means that mental disorders are divided into types based on criteria sets with defining features. An alternative to the categorical approach would be a dimensional approach, which would involve quantifying patients' symptoms based on their severity. Some have suggested that the categorical approach is inappropriate for diagnosis of mental disorders because it misleadingly suggests that the categories of disorders and individuals within the same category are homogeneous in all relevant ways. To provide some degree of compensation for these limitations, DSM-IV diagnoses often include a polythetic criteria set, which means that, for a diagnosis to be made, a person may present with some but not all of the diagnostic criteria. In addition, DSM-IV reminds the clinician to include other information besides diagnoses in evaluation reports.
103
A week before a controversial episode of a television sitcom is to be shown, a prominent Christian fundamentalist group calls for a sponsor boycott of the show and urges people not to watch it. The group's actions are highly publicized and the group's leader appears on a different talk show every day for the week before the show debuts to discuss the reasons why people shouldn't watch the show. The show's episode turns out to be the most watched episode in its history. This situation illustrates the phenomenon of
a. psychological reactance.
b. cognitive dissonance.
c. overjustification.
d. overcompensation.
A-- Psychological reactance refers to the phenomenon whereby pressure to behave in a particular way causes individuals to behave in the opposite manner. Reactance occurs when a person perceives that his or her freedom of choice or sense of control is being threatened by attempted influence. In this question, it's possible that many people watch the show due to psychological reactance. They feel that their freedom of choice is threatened by the fundamentalist group, and they react by doing the opposite of what the group wants them to do.
104
You are seeing a family consisting of a mother, a father, and a daughter in therapy. Every time the mother says something, the father and the daughter argue with whatever she says. The behavior of the father and the daughter can be best described by the term
a. triangulation.
b. fusion.
c. coalition.
d. joining.
C-- All of these choices sound good, so to answer the question, you have to understand what each of these terms mean in the language of family therapy, and also not miss the fact that the question is asking about the behavior of the father and the daughter (as opposed to the behavior of the father and the mother). In family therapy, the term coalition refers to an alliance of two family members against a third. According to Minuchin, dysfunctional families are sometimes characterized by stable coalitions of a parent and a child against the other parent.
The other terms in the question don't apply to the behavior of the father and the daughter. Triangulation refers to a situation in which another family member is brought into a conflict that actually exists only between two members, such as when two parents constantly try to get their child to take their side in a conflict the parents are having with each other. Fusion, a term used by Bowen, refers to an inability to separate intellectual from emotional functioning, or an inability to separate one's own thoughts and feelings from those of other family members. And joining is a technique described by Minuchin that involves adopting the family's affective style in order to help establish a working relationship, gain greater understanding of the family structure, and gain more leverage in bringing about family change.
105
A study is conducted to determine the effectiveness of 3 different reading programs on reading comprehension. The participants are 5th grade students who are divided into 3 levels based on their past reading comprehension (below average, average, and above average). Results from a factorial ANOVA indicate that there are significant main effects of each variable and a significant interaction effect. Based on these results, one could conclude that:
a. each of the reading programs is equally effective for students at every reading level
b. only one of the reading programs is effective for students at every reading level
c. the reading programs are only effective for students at a particular reading level
d. the most effective reading program is dependent on the student's reading level
D-- A factorial ANOVA is used when a study has more than one independent variable. Factorial designs also allow for the assessment of both main effects (the effects of each independent variable considered individually) and interaction effects (the effects of each variable at the different levels of the other variable). The study described in this question has two "significant main effects" for the independent variables: type of reading program and past level of reading comprehension. And a "significant interaction effect" means that the effects of the different reading programs varied significantly for students at different reading levels. For example, "Reading Program A" may have been highly effective for above average students, moderately effective for average students, yet ineffective for below average students. On the other hand, "Reading Program B" may have been only effective for below average students, while "Reading Program C" may not have been effective for any students.
106
Latane called this a social disease. It occurred when high-level employees were assessed on a combined effort. It turned out they produced less than when they were working individually. It's called:
a. Social loafing
b. Group think
c. Social polarization
d. Social facilitation
A-- Social loafing or Latane's "social disease" is the discovery that in regard to work, individual output declines when people are working together as a group. However, social loafing does not occur under all conditions. It is reduced or eliminated when participants believe that their individual contributions are identifiable or uniquely necessary for the group to succeed. (B) "groupthink" is the tendency for a group to make an irrational or impulsive decision in order to reach consensus. (C) "Group polarization" refers to the tendency of individuals who start with a similar view to end with a more extreme position after group discussion.
107
You are starting a stop-smoking group and tell a newspaper reporter who smokes that he can participate in the group for free if he'll write an article about it for the local newspaper. This arrangement is
a. unethical.
b. ethical as long as you don't tell the reporter what to write about.
c. ethical as long as you check to make sure that information about the group is accurate.
d. ethical as long as the confidentiality of the group participants is not violated.
A-- This issue is addressed in Standard 5.02(b) of the Ethics Code, which states that “Psychologists do not compensate employees of press, radio, television, or other communication media in return for publicity in a news item.”
108
Differences in communication style can act as a barrier in cross-cultural counseling. For example, some cultures have a high-context style, while others are more low-context. Which of the following is true about high-context communication and culture?
a. The communication found in high-context cultures reflects an emphasis on rules of law and procedures.
b. People belonging to high-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal cues when communicating with others.
c. People in high-context cultures make extensive use of elaborative codes in their speech.
d. High-context communication changes rapidly and easily.
B-- The notions of high- and low-context communication were introduced by Edward T. Hall, the author of The Silent Language (1959) and The Hidden Dimension (1969). In the United States, the communication style of the Anglo majority is low-context, but many racial/ethnic minorities (e.g., Latino, Asian, African-American) make use of a high-context style. High-context communication is based on nonverbal language. Low-context communication on the other hand is based upon the verbal part of messages.
109
According to the theory underlying Gestalt therapy, introjection involves:
a. viewing other people's emotions as one's own
b. failing to develop a healthy "social interest"
c. blaming oneself for the problems of others
d. interpreting the values of the larger society as one's own
D-- Introjection involves absorbing the values or behaviors of others, including the larger society, without really understanding or assimilating those values or behaviors. Introjection represents a disturbance in the boundary between self and others -- the person does or believes things that are not reflective of a self that is clearly distinct from others in the environment. Choice A is incorrect because it is primarily values, not emotions, that are absorbed from the environment in Gestalt therapy's view of introjection.
110
Delinquency in adolescence is most associated with:
a. low income families and low IQ score.
b. a mother who works outside the home and an unemployed father.
c. weak parental supervision and parental rejection.
d. harsh physical punishment and unreasonable rules.
C-- The research is far from consistent on this issue. However, lack of parental supervision is frequently found as a correlate of delinquency along with a hostile relationship between parent and adolescent and parental rejection. Low SES, low IQ score, single-parent homes, and harsh discipline have weaker relationships with delinquency.
111
The best initial strategy for teaching complex motor skills that require speed and accuracy to be successfully performed is to:
a. emphasize accuracy over speed
b. emphasize speed over accuracy
c. emphasize accuracy and speed equally
d. emphasize an alternation between speed and accuracy
B-- Research on speed and accuracy in learning complex motor skills suggests the best approach is to emphasize speed of performance initially although, to a certain degree, the optimal approach depends on the specific skill. (See: Engelhorn, R. (1997). Speed and accuracy in the learning of a complex motor skills, Perceptual and Motor Skills, 85, 1011-1017.)
112
To reduce a child's aggressive behavior, the best approach is to:
a. punish the aggression consistently and harshly.
b. use differential reinforcement of alternative behaviors.
c. identify the consequences of the behavior and alternatives to it.
d. have the child vent his or her aggressive feelings by hitting a pillow.
C-- There are a variety of approaches to the treatment of aggression in children; the cognitive-behavioral approach is probably most common. In children who are older or developmentally advanced enough to understand, cognitive approaches tend to focus on helping the person accurately interpret external cues, so that he or she does not respond inappropriately with aggression. In younger children, the goal is often to identify the child's goals, the negative consequences of using aggression to meet those goals, and alternatives to aggression. The other choices are not as likely to be helpful: consistent discipline is good, but contrary to choice A, overly harsh discipline can serve to increase the child's aggression. Reinforcement for alternative behaviors is not a proven method of directly addressing aggression. And the notion that aggression is something that can be released through venting it on a safe target (or, by the way, watching it on TV) has not been supported -- apparently, engaging in aggressive behavior only leads to more of the same.
113
The recurrence of hallucinations long after intoxication is most likely to result from the use of:
a. Mescaline
b. PCP
c. Methamphetamine
d. Cocaine
A-- All of the drugs listed in this question can cause hallucinations during intoxication. However, hallucinations, especially after discontinued use ("flashbacks") are most likely the result of a true hallucinogen. Of the drugs listed, only mescaline is clearly classified as a hallucinogen. PCP (phencyclidine) is sometimes classified as a hallucinogen; other times it's considered a stimulant or pain killer, and it is less likely to cause flashbacks. The DSM-IV-TR diagnosis "Hallucinogen Persisting Perception Disorder" involves the reexperiencing of hallucinations following cessation of use of a hallucinogen. In contrast, "Substance-Induced Psychotic Disorder" can be caused by intoxication or withdrawal from many different substances but the symptoms must occur within a month of intoxication or withdrawal and the person must not have insight that the hallucinations (or delusions) are substance induced.
114
Consuming foods containing tyramine while taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor would most likely result in:
a. depression
b. hypotension
c. hypertension
d. no adverse reactions
C-- Eating foods containing tyramine while taking MAOIs is likely to cause a hypertensive crisis, that is, a severe rise in blood pressure. The person may also experience headache, diaphoresis (perspiration), and palpitations. On rare occasions the combination has caused cardiac failure and cerebral hemorrhage. Some of the foods that must be avoided while taking MAOIs include: beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements.
115
Which of the following is not true about members of self-directed work teams?
a. Each member of a self-directed team has unique, specialized works skills to contribute to the group product.
b. Members plan the group's work processes and set the group's work goals.
c. Members may be authorized to hire their own replacements.
d. Members of self-directed work teams tend to be absent more than members of traditional work groups.
A-- Self-directed work teams are self-directed; i.e., they determine their own goals, plan their own work processes, and may even hire their own replacements. A distinguishing characteristic of self-directed work teams is that members are generalists (versus specialists), and each member has (or learns) a broad range of skills. A possible downside of self-directed work teams is that they are associated with higher absenteeism than more traditional work groups.
116
The theory that proposes convergent and divergent thinking as dimensions of intelligence is associated with:
a. Galton
b. Thurstone
c. Guilford
d. Cattell
C-- J.P. Guilford identified 120 elements using factor analysis that he proposed in sum comprise intelligence. Convergent thinking is the ability to group or analyze divergent ideas usually leading to a unifying concept or single solution. Divergent thinking is the ability to generate creative, new ideas or to elaborate or branch off from traditional approaches, such as in brainstorming or “thinking out of the box.” Galton (a.) postulated that intelligence is an inherited trait distributed normally across the population. Thurstone (b.) applied his method of factor analysis to intelligence leading to his proposed theory of Primary Mental Abilities (that individuals possess varying degrees of sub-components of intelligence). Cattell’s (d.) theory distinguished between fluid and crystallized intelligence.
117
Following a stroke or head trauma, which of the following memory functions is most likely to be affected?
a. iconic memory
b. long-term store
c. memory for newly learned information
d. verbal memory
C-- Questions like this can be frustrating because it is really impossible to make blanket generalizations. When the brain is compromised by a medical problem (or by substance use), the nature of impairment always depends on the location in the brain of damage and the extent of damage. However, if memory is impaired, the ability to retain newly learned information is most likely to be affected. Impairment in other types of memory, such as long-term episodic memory or verbal (semantic) memory, usually indicates more severe memory damage in which impairment in learning new information is also present.
118
Which of the following disorders is most likely to respond to pharmacotherapy alone?
a. Bipolar I Disorder.
b. Major Depressive Disorder
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
d. Anorexia Nervosa.
A-- Pharmacotherapy (specifically, Lithium therapy in most cases) is the treatment of choice for manic-depressive illnesses such as Bipolar I Disorder. Pharmacotherapy may be supplemented with adjunctive psychotherapy (e.g., to provide support and coping skills). However, psychotherapy is not considered that useful in treating the core symptoms of Bipolar I Disorder. By contrast, although the disorders in the other choices are commonly treated with medication, they also respond to psychotherapy.
119
Journal reviewers who show strong bias against manuscripts that report results contrary to their theoretical perspective are demonstrating:
a. self-serving bias
b. confirmatory bias
c. fundamental attribution bias
d. self verification theory
B--"Confirmatory bias" or "confirmation bias" is the tendency to seek, interpret, and create information that verifies our existing beliefs. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to attribute one's successes to internal factors and one's failures to external factors. The fundamental attribution bias or error (C) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining a person's behavior. Self verification theory (D) proposes that people seek confirmation of their self-concept.
120
A researcher studying the relationship between age and job satisfaction collects data for a group of young, middle-aged, and older workers. The researcher can expect to find that
a. the young people are most satisfied with their jobs.
b. the middle-aged people are most satisfied with their jobs.
c. the older people are most satisfied with their jobs.
d. there is no difference between the three groups in terms of their job satisfaction.
C-- One of the most stable findings in job satisfaction research is that age is positively correlated with satisfaction. The older the employee, the higher the level of satisfaction he or she tends to report.
121
If a man and a woman are each heterozygous for phenylketonuria (PKU), the probability that their next child will have PKU is:
a. 0%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 100%
121. B-- Knowing that PKU is caused by two autosomal (i.e., not sex-linked) recessive genes would have helped you answer this question correctly. Because it is caused by recessive genes, a child would need to receive the PKU gene from both parents in order to develop the disease. Since both parents are heterozygous they each carry one dominant gene and one recessive gene for PKU, but do not have the disease themselves. Thus, the probability that the father will contribute the PKU gene is 50% and the probability that the mother will contribute the gene is also 50%. Fifty percent times 50% is 25% (0.5 x 0.5 = 0.25). People born with PKU lack the enzyme needed to digest the amino acid phenylalanine, which undigested causes severe brain damage. Most to all of the PKU symptoms can be prevented by early detection and adherence to a diet low in phenylalanine during the first 9 years of life.
122
Although conclusions will vary across different studies, which of the following statements is most supported by the overall body of research on therapy outcome for African-American and Caucasian patients?
a. There is no significant difference in outcome between African-American and Caucasian patients.
b. African-American patients have better outcomes overall than Caucasian patients.
c. Caucasian patients have better outcomes overall than African-American patients.
d. Treatment outcomes for African-American patients are better but only when the therapist is also African-American.
122. A-- Questions like these are difficult to answer, because research in this area is contradictory, and the issue is not resolved. Research has clearly identified a number of variables that potentially interact with race in influencing therapy outcome. For instance, African-American patients tend to have poorer outcomes when working with therapists who are insensitive to or unknowledgeable about racial or cultural issues. There are also studies that show that African-Americans are more likely to terminate therapy prematurely than Caucasians, and even a few studies which show they are likely to have poorer outcomes. However, the bulk of the literature and thinking on this issue supports the notion that race, in and of itself, is not a good predictor of therapy outcome.
123
Stimulus A is paired with stimulus B. Stimulus B is then paired with stimulus C until stimulus C elicits the same response that was elicited by stimulus A. This is an example of:
a. chaining
b. shaping
c. secondary reinforcement
d. higher-order conditioning
123. D-- Higher-order conditioning is a classical conditioning procedure in which two stimuli (CS and US) are paired until the conditioned stimulus (CS) produces the conditioned response (CR) and then the CS (which is now referred to as a US) is paired with another CS to elicit the same response. All of the other choices in this question are operant conditioning terms. Operant conditioning involves behaviors and the consequences that follow, rather than the pairing of stimuli. Chaining (A) is the operant procedure that enables complex behaviors to develop through reinforcement of a sequence of simple behaviors. That is, Behavior A is followed by a reinforcer, which serves as a discriminative stimulus for Behavior B, which is followed by a reinforcer, and so on. Shaping (B) involves reinforcing successive approximations of a desired behavior.
124
Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that:
a. women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal
women.
b. post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal
women or women in the midst of menopause.
c. pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or
women in the midst of menopause.
d. there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.
124. D-- Choice D describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.
125
Transactional leaders who wait for mistakes to be brought to their attention before taking corrective action are engaging in:
a. corrective transactions
b. contingent rewarding
c. passive management-by-exception
d. active management-by-exception
125. C-- Transactional leadership, in its simplest form, is leadership by contingent reinforcement. The leaders' rewards, promises and/or threats of disciplinary actions or punishments motivate the followers. In constructive transactions, the leader may participate in discussing what is to be done in exchange for implicit or explicit rewards and the allocation of desired resources, or they give out assignments, negotiate or contract with followers. The actions of the leader are contingent on whether the followers do what they have been "contracted" to do. Leaders that take corrective action with negative feedback or reprimand only after followers' mistakes have been called to their attention are engaging in passive management-by-exception. In corrective transactions (a.) or contingent rewarding (b.), leaders engage in active management-by-exception (d.) which means they monitor followers’ performance and correct their mistakes if and when they occur.
126
Holland's approach to vocational guidance is based on the assumption that:
a. interests motivate occupational choice
b. behavior is a function of personality-environment congruence
c. job satisfaction and performance are related to a match between aptitude and job requirements
d. interests change in a predictable way over the course of the lifespan
126. B-- Holland's six occupational themes represent both personality and environment types. According to Holland, job satisfaction, productivity, and other behaviors are affected by the congruence or fit between a person's personality and the nature of the work environment.
127
You see a substance abuser who has been referred to therapy as a condition of probation. The man tells you that he is seeking therapy only to avoid jail time and that he does not think he needs therapy. Regarding informed consent in this situation, which of the following statements is true?
a. You don't have to get informed consent because the judge ordered treatment.
b. You don't have to obtain informed consent because convicted criminals don't have the right to refuse treatment.
c. You don't have to obtain informed consent because there's no way that consent can truly be informed in this situation.
d. You cannot treat the patient unless you obtain his informed consent.
127. D-- In working with court-referred patients, psychologists must obtain informed consent from the patients before proceeding. This may seem ridiculous, since many court-referred clients face serious consequences if they don't comply with the court's recommendation to seek therapy. However, in court-referred cases, the client could, theoretically at least, decline treatment and choose jail time or other consequences instead. By contrast, in court-ordered evaluation or treatment, there is no need to get informed consent because the client is mandated by law to participate. However, in such cases, psychologists have other obligations, such as informing the client of the limits to confidentiality.
128
A person's reactions to stress are most negative when the stress is unexpected. Moreover, a person's reactions are most affected by
a. his or her actual capacity to cope with the stress.
b. his or her beliefs regarding his or her ability to cope with the stress.
c. the total number of stressors.
d. the actual availability of adequate social support.
128. B-- It is a person's perception of control or ability to cope that determines his or her response to stress. When a person believes he or she has no control over the situation or does not have the necessary coping mechanisms, stress will have a more detrimental effect.
129
Which of the following is an example of assimilation?
a. Arranging flowers in a vase
b. Changing your clothes to please your spouse
c. Calling the daisies and ferns arranged in a vase "posies"
d. Putting on a coat in the winter
129. C-- Assimilation is when a child incorporates and interprets new information in terms of his or her existing schema.
130
A three-year-old sees a tree with droopy leaves and tells her father that the tree is “tired.” This is an example of:
a. magical thinking
b. animistic thinking
c. egocentricity
d. centration
130. B-- All of the responses are factors in Piaget’s preoperational stage. Animistic thinking is believing that objects, like the tree with droopy leaves, have lifelike qualities such as thoughts and feelings. Magical thinking is believing one has control over objects or events. Egocentricity is believing that others experience the world in the same way and centration refers to the tendency to focus on one detail while neglecting others.
131
Alzheimer's is related to an under production of
a. serotonin
b. GABA
c. Acetylcholine
d. Glutamate
131. C-- Acetylcholine plays a role in learning and memory. Loss of acetylcholine receptors in the cortex and hippocampus occur in Alzheimer's disease.
132
According to recent meta-analyses of child psychotherapy outcome studies, which of the following statements is most true?
a. There are no differences between the effectiveness of behavioral and non-behavioral interventions in the treatment of
children.
b. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with adolescent girls responding best.
c. Girls respond better to psychotherapy than boys, with younger girls responding best.
d. At all age levels, boys respond better to psychotherapy than girls.
132. B-- This is one of the many areas where the results of research are contradictory and somewhat controversial. However, the most recent meta-analyses of research in this area have found that across treatment approaches, girls respond better than boys, with adolescent girls responding best of all. This is somewhat contradictory to earlier research, which found that younger children respond better than older children.
Because the findings of research sometimes contradict each other, it can be frustrating to decide which is the best answer to questions such as these. Of course, you'd want to find an answer that is consistent (or not inconsistent, at least) with the results of all the research. However, if such a response is not available, you should go with the results of more recent research.
133
When random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible, researchers use:
a. Experimental design
b. Quasi-experimental design
c. Developmental research
d. Longitudinal research
133. B-- Quasi-experimental designs are used when random assignment of subjects to groups is not possible. In true experimental design the investigator randomly assigns subjects to different groups which receive different levels of the manipulated variable. Developmental research involves assessing variables as a function of time. A type of developmental research is longitudinal–in these studies the same people are studied over a long period of time.
134
According to Huesmann et al. (2003), the long-term effects of TV violence on children growing up in the 1970-80’s, indicate childhood exposure to media violence:
a. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males
b. predicts young adult aggressive behavior for males and females
c. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males with low social economic status or intellectual ability
d. predicts young adult aggressive behavior only for males and females with low social economic status or intellectual ability
134. B-- Unlike studies on children growing up in the 1960’s which found aggressive behavior only in males, Huesmann et al. (2003) found childhood exposure to TV violence is stimulating an increase in adult aggression in males and females. This effect persists even when the effects of socioeconomic status, intellectual ability, and a variety of parenting factors are controlled. More childhood exposure to TV violence, greater childhood identification with same-sex aggressive TV characters, and a stronger childhood belief that violent shows tell about life “just like it is” predicted more adult aggression regardless of the initial aggressiveness of the child. (See: Rowell Huesmann, L., Moise-Titus, J., Podolski, C., and Eron, L.D. (2003). Longitudinal Relations Between Children’s Exposure to TV Violence and Their Aggressive and Violent Behavior in Young Adulthood: 1977–1992. Developmental Psychology, 39(2), 201–221.)
135
In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as:
a. androgyny
b. sexual bifurcation
c. gender dichotomy
d. sexual dimorphism
135. D-- The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.
136
The cortex is the least developed part of the brain at birth. Subsequent development is due primarily to:
a. the growth of new neurons
b the growth of new neurons and glial cells.
c. increases in the size of existing neurons.
d. myelination of existing neurons.
136. D-- Nearly all of the neurons are present at birth, and continued development of the brain following birth is due primarily to an increased number of dendrites and myelination of the existing neurons.
137
The symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder can be alleviated through cognitive-behavioral treatments and medication interventions that reduce activity in the
a. reticular activating system.
b. inferior colliculus.
c. caudate nucleus.
d. locus coeruleus.
137. C-- The caudate nucleus appears to be overactive in people diagnosed with OCD. L.R. Baxter reports that both behavioral interventions and drug therapy affect metabolic rate in the caudate nucleus (Caudate glucose metabolic rate changes with both drug and behavior therapy for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder, Archives of General Psychiatry, 1992, 49, 681-689). The reticular activating system (answer A), which you should remember by now, is involved in attention and arousal. The inferior colliculus (answer B), controls auditory reflexes, and the locus coeruleus (answer D) may be associated with Depression and Panic Disorder.
138
A psychologist receives a request for information about treatment for a patient from the patient's insurance carrier. The request for a treatment report includes the appropriate signed authorization from the patient. The psychologist should:
a. not provide the information because this is still an unsettled issue.
b. provide only the dates of service and the diagnosis.
c. refuse the request unless the patient himself or herself asks that it be sent.
d. provide the information requested.
138. D-- This ethics question will have some of you stumped unless you deal with these types of clinical situations regularly. In practice, clinicians often get requests for information, especially with insurance companies using managed-care organizations to approve visits. Similar authorizations are necessary when information is released from a hospital, from a clinic, and so forth. The confidentiality of information belongs to the patient. It is up to him or her to waive that confidentiality, as we assume he or she has done by signing the release. In addition, such authorizations should specify the type and extent of information that the patient authorizes to be released, for what purposes, and to whom.
139
Memory for the rules of logic and inference is part of
a. procedural memory.
b. semantic memory.
c. episodic memory.
d. read-only memory
139. B-- Long-term memory has been divided into three components: semantic memory, procedural memory, and episodic memory. Semantic memory includes memory for the rules of logic and inference, as well as knowledge about language (e.g., what words mean and how they are used). Procedural memory includes information about how to do things, such as how to drive a car. Episodic memory contains information about events that have been personally experienced. Read-only memory (ROM) is not part of long-term memory -- it is a computer term.
140
Typically, the onset of the SSRIs antidepressant effect begins within a few:
a. months
b. weeks
c. days
d. hours
140. B-- Current clinical practice indicates that at least 2 to 3 weeks of continuous SSRI use are necessary for the antidepressant effects to manifest in patients. The results of a meta-analysis conducted by Posternak & Zimmerman (2005), of 47 double-blind, placebo-controlled trials conducted between 1981 and 2000, found most of the antidepressant effects occurred during the first 2 weeks. Review of the studies, found only 13 cohorts (19.7%) from 8 studies showed a pattern where there was an increased antidepressant effect from weeks 3 to 6 compared with weeks 1 to 3. (See: Posternak, M.A. & Zimmerman, M. (2005). Is there a delay in the antidepressant effect? A meta-analysis. Journal of Clinical Psychiatry. 66(2); 148-158.) Additionally, research on the time course of improvement for seven different types of antidepressants, compared to placebo, indicates almost no differences between treatment modalities and found mean values around day 12-14 for improvement and day 18-20 for response. (See: Stassen, H., Angst, J., & Szegedi, A. (2003) How to assess the onset of antidepressant effect: Empirical data on 2788 patients. Pharmacopsychiatry 36:265)
141
A diagnosis of Mental Retardation requires the person to have subaverage intelligence and:
a. an I.Q. score of 55 or below
b. two or more Learning Disorders
c. onset before age 18
d. clinically significant deficits in social skills
141. C-- According to the DSM-IV-TR, the three criteria for a diagnosis of Mental Retardation are (1) significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning (an IQ score of70 or less), (2) deficits in at least two areas of adaptive functioning, and (3) onset before age 18. A person with MR could also be diagnosed with one or more Learning Disorders (B) (if the specific deficit is out of proportion to the severity of the MR), but this is not required for a MR diagnosis. Deficits in social skills (D) may be present, but this is only one of several possible deficits in adaptive functioning.
142
142. The factor loading for Test A and Factor II is .80 in a factor matrix. This means that:
a. only 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis
b. only 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by the factor analysis
c. 80% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II
d. 64% of variability in Test A is accounted for by Factor II
-- The correlation coefficient for a test and an identified factor is referred to as a factor loading. To obtain a measure of shared variability, the factor loading is squared. This example, the factor loading is .80, meaning that 64% (.80 squared) of variability in the test is accounted for by the factor. The other identified factor(s) probably also account for some variability in Test A, which is why (b.) is not the best answer.
143
A psychologist is asked by the attorney for the father in a divorce procedure to determine, in his expert opinion, which parent is better able to care for the children. The father is in the same state as the psychologist but the mother is in a distant state. The psychologist should
a. agree to evaluate the father and give his opinion as requested as long as the conclusions are not influenced by who pays the
fee.
b. evaluate the father but not send the report until asked for it by the judge.
c. evaluate the children and both parents before giving such an opinion.
d. refuse to accept this work since there can be no firm predictions made as to which parent would be better able to care for
the children.
143. C-- The basic principle is that you can't give an opinion as to which parent will be better able to care for the children unless you interview both parents and the children. Otherwise, all you can attest to is your findings about the psychological health of whomever you evaluate. You can't, if you only see one of the parents, opine as to which one is better: You'd have no basis to come to such a conclusion.
144
A pianist comes to your office for therapy after having sustained a head injury in a recent car accident. He has lost sensation in the fingers of his left hand and feels he "must be going crazy" because this is such a strange occurrence. Before you pull out the DSM-IV, you refer him to a neurologist because you suspect the head injury may have caused damage to the
a. precentral gyrus.
b. postcentral gyrus.
c. lateral fissure.
d. central sulcus.
144. B-- You are a very informed psychologist who knows that loss of sensation due to brain injury is likely to involve the somatosensory cortex. You are also aware that the somatosensory cortex is located on the postcentral gyrus in the parietal lobe, not the precentral gyrus (answer A). You also know that the lateral fissure (answer C) separates the temporal lobe from the overlying frontal and parietal lobes and that the central sulcus (answer D) divides the frontal and parietal lobes.
145
Which of the following is one of the first signs of AIDS-related dementia?
a. loss of abstract thinking functions
b. mild memory loss for recent events
c. seizures
d. apathy
145. B-- AIDS dementia complex occurs in about 2/3 of all AIDS patients. Usually, one of the first cognitive signs of dementia (both in AIDS and non-AIDS patients) is a loss of concentration and a mild memory loss, especially for recent events.
146
According to APA's Guidelines for Providers of Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations, which of the following suggestions is most useful when working with a client from a minority background?
a. Therapists should treat the client just like any other client.
b. Therapists should remember that culture and ethnicity are significantly related to therapeutic issues.
c. Therapists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture.
d. Therapists should assume that the client's problems are due to discrimination and bias.
146. B-- APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations were designed to provide suggestions to psychologists working with ethnic, linguistic, and culturally diverse populations. One of the suggestions is to "recognize ethnicity and culture as significant parameters in understanding psychological processes."
147
A therapist using Beck's cognitive approach to therapy would rely primarily on which of the following to induce desirable changes in a depressed client?
a. Socratic questioning
b. interpretation
c. reflecting
d. clarification and explanation
147. A-- Questioning is a very important strategy in Beck's cognitive therapy and, in fact, the majority of communications by the therapist take the form of questions designed to help the client consider particular issues, options, and so on.
148
Approximately 50% of children with Autism fail to speak or develop language skills. Those that do speak are most likely to show
a. pronoun reversal.
b. phoneme omissions.
c. phonological errors.
d. syllable reversal.
148. A-- Children with Autistic Disorder are often mute and, if they speak, they exhibit a number of language abnormalities. A common abnormality is echolalia; another is the reversal of pronouns (e.g., using "you" instead of "I").
149
The technique which allows a researcher to identify the underlying (latent) factors that relate to a set of measured variables and the nature of the causal relationships between those factors is:
a. structural equation modeling (SEM)
b. cluster analysis
c. Q-technique factor analysis
d. survival analysis
149. A-- Structural equation modeling is a multivariate technique used to evaluate the causal (predictive) influences or test causal hypotheses about the relationships among a set of factors. Cluster analysis (b.) is used to identify homogeneous subgroups in a heterogeneous collection of observations. Q-technique factor analysis (c.) determines how many types of people a sample of people represents. Survival analysis (d.) is used to assess the length of time to the occurrence of a critical event.
150
___________________ may result in a job performance measure having low validity, even though it is reliable.
a. differential validity
b. criterion contamination
c. criterion deficiency
d. researcher deficiency
150. C-- Criterion deficiency refers to what is missed or deficient in the criterion used. For example, if typing speed is used as the sole criterion for determining successful job performance by a secretary, it would be a deficient criterion, since typing speed is only one of several skills needed to be a successful secretary. Differential validity ("A") refers to a test which has significantly different validity coefficients for different subgroups. Criterion contamination ("B") occurs when a rater's knowledge of an employee's performance on a predictor biases how the employee is rated on a criterion.
151
151. In a job selection decision, age can be used as an exclusionary criterion
a. never.
b. if there is a ruling from the appropriate federal agency allowing it.
c. if there is a significant difference in mean ages of incumbents and applicants.
d. if age is directly related to job performance.
151. D-- Any limiting criterion is acceptable in a job selection procedure as long as the criterion is shown to be job-related. For instance, you could exclude people with very poor eyesight as air traffic controllers, you could exclude people with very little stamina and strength as firefighters, and so forth. Thus, if an employer can empirically demonstrate that being a certain age is a bona-fide occupational requirement, it could be used as a job criterion. Let's say you were hiring painters to work on the Golden Gate Bridge. You might very well find that people over age 60 couldn't do the job safely and well. If you could prove this finding empirically, you could use age as a criterion. Note, however, that if an employer is challenged on the use of a discriminatory exclusionary criterion, the employer bears the legal burden of demonstrating that it is job relevant.
152
152. A psychologist compliments several of his co-workers on their clothing. One of his female co-workers indicates that she is not comfortable with these type of comments and asks him to stop. He complies with her request. His behavior is:
a. Unacceptable
b. Unethical
c. Sexual harassment
d. Acceptable
152. D-- His behavior is acceptable. According to Standard 3.02 (Sexual Harassment): “Sexual harassment is sexual solicitation, physical advances, or verbal or nonverbal conduct that is sexual in nature, that occurs in connection with the psychologist's activities or roles as a psychologist, and that either (1) is unwelcome, is offensive, or creates a hostile workplace or educational environment, and the psychologist knows or is told this or (2) is sufficiently severe or intense to be abusive to a reasonable person in the context. Sexual harassment can consist of a single intense or severe act or of multiple persistent or pervasive acts." In this case the co-worker evidently found the psychologist's comments offensive. The psychologist upon learning this stopped his behavior.
153
153. If a job selection test has lower validity for Hispanics as compared to White or African-Americans, you could say that ethnicity is acting as a:
a. confounding variable
b. criterion contaminator
c. discriminant variable
d. moderator variable
153. D-- A moderator variable is any variable which moderates, or influences, the relationship between two other variables. If the validity of a job selection test is different for different ethnic groups (i.e. there is differential validity), then ethnicity would be considered a moderator variable since it is influencing the relationship between the test (predictor) and actual job performance (the criterion). A confounding variable (A) is a variable in a research study which is not of interest to the researcher, but which exerts a systematic effect on the DV. Criterion contamination (B) is the artificial inflation of validity which can occur when raters subjectively score ratees on a criterion measure after they have been informed how the ratees scored on the predictor.
154
154. Which of the following would be used to determine the probability that examinees of different ability levels are able to answer a particular test item correctly?
a. criterion-related validity coefficient
b. item discrimination index
c. item difficulty index
d. item characteristic curve
154. D-- Item characteristic curves (ICCs), which are associated with item response theory, are graphs that depict individual test items in terms of the percentage of individuals in different ability groups who answered the item correctly. For example, an ICC for an individual test item might show that 80% of people in the highest ability group, 40% of people in the middle ability group, and 5% of people in the lowest ability group answered the item correctly. Although costly to derive, ICCs provide much information about individual test items, including their difficulty, discriminability, and probability that the item will be guessed correctly.
155
155. The suicide rate for African-American adolescent males over the past few decades has been:
a. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been an increase in the rates for both groups.
b. lower than the rate for white adolescents males, but there has been an increase in the rates for both groups.
c. higher than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has recently been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
d. lower than the rate for white adolescent males, but there has been a decrease in the rates for both groups.
155. B-- Across all age groups and both genders, the suicide rate is higher for whites than for African-Americans. Of all demographic groups, the one associated with the highest increase in suicide rate over the past few decades is young white male -- the rate has almost tripled. The rate has also gone up among African-American males, but not by as much. And here's an additional piece of information that's not directly related to this question: In African-Americans, suicide occurs at the highest rate among individuals between the ages of 20-34; among whites, the highest rate of suicide occurs near the end of the life cycle.
156
156. As an organizational psychologist, Dr. Jobb will recommend frame-of-reference training in order to
a. improve the accuracy of selection decisions.
b. enhance communication among team members.
c. reduce rater biases on performance appraisals.
d. improve leadership effectiveness.
156. C-- This is one of those concepts that you either know or don't know, so it wouldn't be worth a lot of time trying to figure out the right answer. Now you know: Frame-of-reference training is used to improve rater accuracy by teaching raters to focus on the various characteristics and requirements that contribute to good job performance.
157
157. Korsakoff's syndrome is a form of Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder that is due to
a. dehydration.
b. thiamine deficiency.
c. vitamin C deficiency.
d. sensory impairment.
157. B-- The DSM-IV refers to Korsakoff's syndrome as Alcohol-Induced Persisting Amnestic Disorder due to Thiamine Deficiency. The disorder is characterized by anterograde and often retrograde amnesia, and causes damage to neurons in the thalamic and hypothalamic brain regions. When a person displays early signs of the disorder, it can sometimes be prevented through large doses of thiamine. However, once brain neurons become damaged, thiamine treatment cannot reverse the syndrome.
158
158. If someone achieves a score of 30 on a standardized test with a standard error of measurement of 5 points, what is the approximate probability that the person's true score is between 20 and 40?
a. 2/3
b. 4/5
c. 9/10
d. 19/20
158. D-- The range given in the question encompasses the obtained score plus and minus two standard errors of measurement. That is, the standard error of measurement is 5, and the range is 10 points (2 X 5) below the obtained score to 10 points above the obtained score. One thing you should memorize is that there is about a 95% probability that a person's true score lies within two standard errors of measurement of the obtained score. But even if you knew that, you might have had trouble with this question, since the choices are given as fractions, not percentages. To answer it correctly, you needed to figure out that 19/20 is the fractional equivalent of 95%.
159
159. A woman who was in a serious car accident six months ago sees a picture of a car in a newspaper and becomes anxious. This is an example of
a. mediated generalization.
b. higher-order conditioning.
c. classical conditioning.
d. Posttraumatic Stress Disorder.
159. A-- The question describes an example of a phenomenon that you may have learned is called stimulus generalization. That is, the woman has been conditioned to respond with anxiety to cars and therefore exhibits the same response to a similar stimulus -- a picture of a car. This process is also sometimes referred to as mediated generalization. In this context, the term "mediated" means that the picture has never been paired with the original source of anxiety (i.e., the accident). Therefore, in order for the picture to cause anxiety, some cognitive mediation must be taking place.
160
160. The primary associated feature of the Somatoform Disorders is
a. panic attacks.
b. anxiety and depression.
c. addiction to analgesics or mild tranquilizers.
d. somatic delusions.
160. B-- The Somatoform Disorders (such as Somatization Disorder, Conversion Disorder, Somatoform Pain Disorder, Hypochondriasis, and Body Dysmorphic Disorder) are characterized by physical symptoms which have no known physical cause and are believed to be caused by psychological factors. The DSM identifies anxiety and depression as associated features of each of these disorders. You might have gone for addiction to analgesics or tranquilizers, since it seems to make sense. However, excessive use of analgesics (which are not addictive anyway) is identified as a possible associated feature of Somatoform Pain Disorder only.
161
161. A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions?
a. indifference
b. indifference or exaggerated jocularity
c. frustration and irritation
d. rage
161. B-- The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions – the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.
162
162. The findings from longitudinal research on divorce risk factors by John M. Gottman and his colleagues indicate:
a. suppression of negative affect is associated with a high risk of divorce
b. suppression of negative and positive affect is associated with a high risk of early divorce
c. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of early divorce
d. criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling predicts a high risk of later divorce
162. C-- Longitudinal research by John M. Gottman and his colleagues investigated the interactions between married couples that predict divorce. The results indicated a combination of criticism, defensiveness, contempt and stonewalling, referred to as the “four horseman of the Apocalypse,” is associated with a high risk for early divorce. This is considered to be the first seven years of marriage, which is when half of all divorces are known to occur. The suppression of affect, both positive and negative, is predictive of later divorce or the period during which the first child reaches 14 years of age. (See: Gottman, J.M. & Levenson, R.W. (2000). The Timing of Divorce: Predicting When a Couple Will Divorce Over a 14-Year Period. Journal of Marriage and the Family, 62, 737-745.)
163
163. Research by Sue and his colleagues (1991) suggests that which of the following clients is most likely to return for a second session of psychotherapy?
a. an African-American client
b. a Latino-American client
c. an Anglo-American client
d. an Asian-American client
163. D-- Studies on therapy dropout rates have produced inconsistent results. This question is asking about a particular study, however (Sue et al., 1991), which found that African-Americans have the highest dropout rates, while Asian-Americans have the lowest dropout rates.
164
164. A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have?
a. apraxia
b. dysarthria
c. paraphasias
d. dysprosody
164. C-- Paraphasias involves the production of unintended syllables, words, or phrases during the effort to speak. Verbal paraphasia is a dominant symptom within the more general category of anomia which refers to word finding difficulty. When an individual is unable to evoke, retrieve, or recall a particular word then an incorrect word or phrase is substituted for an intended or target word. Apraxia (a.) of speech (AOS) is a disorder of articulation in which individuals have difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately. Dysarthria (b.) is the collective name for a group of motor speech disorders caused by a disturbance in the neuromuscular control of speech, due to either central or peripheral nervous system damage, and manifested as weakness, slowness, or incoordination of speech. It involves difficulty in articulation, not in word finding or grammar. Prosody is the variation in stress, pitch, and rhythm of speech by which different shades of meaning are conveyed. Dysprosody (d.) includes difficulties in rhythm and intonation, affecting enunciation, pronunciation and patterns of stress.
165
165. Which of the following is the most likely indicator that a person is feigning a memory disorder?
a. The person has lost memory of personal identity but his memory for most other past events is intact.
b. The person's semantic memory is impaired but his procedural memory is intact.
c. Verbal memory is intact but non-verbal memory is impaired.
d. Memory for recent events in impaired but memory for remote events is intact.
165. A-- The symptom of loss of personal identity is rare. When it does occur (e.g., in Dissociative Fugue, Dissociative Identity Disorder, and sometimes in Dissociative Amnesia) it is almost always associated with loss of memory for other information. The DSM-IV warns clinicians first to rule out malingering when a person presents with loss of personal identity. Intact memory for most other past events would be a strong indicator that such a person is malingering.
166
166. Stuart's operant interpersonal therapy:
a. is based on object relations theory
b. encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of one's partner
c. discourages the use of a "quid pro quo" approach among couples
d. maintains that successful marriages are based on contingent punishments
166. B-- Richard Stuart applied operant conditioning and social exchange theory in the context of marital therapy. He encourages couples to focus on positive aspects of each other and to use reciprocal reinforcement or "quid pro quo." He maintained that in successful marriages rewards exceed costs and are built on positive reinforcement, rather than negative reinforcement, punishment, or coercion.
167
167. The research has shown that, in the treatment of nicotine dependence, adding a behavioral intervention to nicotine replacement therapy
a. has little or no effect in terms of either short- or long-term abstinence.
b. has little additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but does improve long-term abstinence.
c. has some additional effect in terms of short-term abstinence but doesn't improve long-term abstinence.
d. has a substantial effect on both short- and long-term abstinence.
167. B-- This question is difficult since the research on this issue has been inconsistent. However, there is evidence that a combined treatment (behavioral intervention plus nicotine replacement therapy) is best, especially in terms of long-term abstinence (abstinence for six months or more). See, for example, R. C. Klesges et al., Smoking cessation: A successful behavioral/pharmacologic interface, Clinical Psychology Review, 1996, 16(6), 479-496.
168
168. You have been attempting to collect payment from a former patient of yours who did not pay for his final two months of therapy. One day, you get a letter from a state hospital where that former patient is now currently a patient. The letter includes a request for a copy of your records of the patient's treatment along with a signed release of information. In this situation, you should
a. refuse to supply any information to the hospital until the bill is paid.
b. send a summary of the records to the hospital along with a copy of a bill for the unpaid therapy fees.
c. go to the hospital and talk to the patient about the situation.
d. provide the information requested by the hospital.
168. D-- The issue here is that you can't withhold records under your control that are “requested and needed for a client's/patient's emergency treatment solely because payment has not been received (Ethical Standard 6.03). Thus, you must provide the requested information in this instance.
169
169. The basic assumption of Howard Gardner’s theory of intelligence is reflected best in which of the following statements
a. Intelligence is best defined in terms of the ability to deal with abstract concepts.
b. Intelligence assessment requires the use of simple quantified measures such as paper-and-pencil tests.
c. In assessing intelligence, learning to be an efficient processor of information is more important than genetic factors.
d. In assessing intelligence, the society in which a person lives evaluates how intelligent a person is thought to be.
169. D-- Howard Gardner initially defined intelligence as an ability to solve real-life problems, to generate new problems, and to create something meaningful or offer a service that is valued within a person's culture or local community. He developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist.
170
170. National surveys comparing rural and urban areas rates of mental disorders indicate:
a. prevalence rates are not statistically different
b. prevalence rates are significantly higher in rural areas for most mental disorders
c. prevalence rates are significantly higher in urban areas for most mental disorders
d. prevalence rates are statistically different with some disorders more common in rural or urban areas
170. A-- While study to study reported rates of mental illness have varied somewhat, the most consistent finding is that there are few statistically significant differences in the rates of mental disorders in urban and rural areas. Epidemiological surveys like the National Comorbidity Survey, the Epidemiologic Catchment Area Study and a recent Healthcare for Communities (HCC) survey of 9,585 individuals living in rural and urban areas, found no significant differences in the prevalence of the major types of mental illness (See: Tang, L., et al., (2001), Report on the Survey Method for the Household Survey of Healthcare for Communities, 1997-1998, Los Angeles, Health Sciences Research Center, UCLA).
171
171. Which of the following is not a recommendation of APA's Guidelines for Providers of Service to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations?
a. Psychologists should downplay their own culture and emphasize the client's culture.
b. Psychologists should help clients understand, maintain, and resolve their own sociocultural identification.
c. Psychologists should seek to help determine whether a so-called "problem" stems from racism or bias in others so that
clients don't inappropriately personalize problems.
d. Psychologists should work to eliminate biases, prejudices, and discriminatory practices.
171. A-- Although these Guidelines do emphasize the need to consider, respect, and understand the client's cultural background, they don't advise psychologists to downplay their own backgrounds. The other choices are all paraphrases of statements contained in these Guidelines.
172
172. Meta-analyses on gender differences in leadership have found that female leaders are:
a. more effective than male leaders overall
b. less effective than male leaders overall
c. equally effective as male leaders overall
d. more effective than male leaders in first-level management positions, but males are more effective in middle management
positions
172. C-- Eagly and colleagues conducted a series of meta-analyses on the effects of gender on leadership. They found that overall, male and female leaders are equally effective. However, certain gender differences in leadership were found to exist. For example, female leaders were more effective when the leadership role was defined as "feminine" and males were more effective when the role was defined as "masculine." Contrary to D, males were found to be more effective in first-level management positions and females were more effective in middle management positions. One interpretation of this finding is that lower-level management requires more technical skills, whereas middle-level management requires more human relations skills [A. Eagly, S. Karau, M. Makhijani, Gender and the effectiveness of leaders: A meta-analysis, Psychological Bulletin, 117(1), 1995, 125-145].
173
173. The best example of a secondary prevention program is
a. a rehabilitation program.
b. crisis intervention.
c. a community education program.
d. Head Start.
173. B-- Secondary prevention involves early detection and intervention for a problem in order to reduce its duration and keep it from getting worse. Crisis intervention, suicide hotlines, and screening tests are all examples of secondary prevention.
174
174. Children with a history of bilateral otitis media score lowest on which of the following WISC subtests?
a. freedom from distractibility
b. perceptual organization
c. processing speed
d. verbal comprehension
174. D-- Bilateral otitis media means inflammation of the left and right middle ear. Middle ear infections in early childhood, especially severe infections, have been associated with the development of Learning Disorders later in childhood. As you might expect, hearing loss in children most often affects verbal comprehension. In a study of children 8- to 10-years-old who had a history of otitis media between birth and 3 ½ years of age, but have since been free of the disease, reading level was found to be more than a year below grade level and scores on the Verbal Comprehension factor for the WISC-R (now the WISC-III) were significantly lower than controls (J. S. Kindig & H. C. Richards. Otitis media: Precursor of delayed reading. Journal of Pediatric Psychology, 2000, 25(1), 15-18).
175
175. Which of the following is most associated with unusual perceptual experiences?
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
b. Panic Disorder
c. Adjustment Disorder
d. Dysthymic Disorder
175. B-- Panic attacks are characterized by at least four of ten symptoms. These may include derealization or depersonalization, which are types of perceptual disturbances.
176
176. The difference between insanity and psychosis is that:
a. insanity is a legal term and psychosis is a term used in mental health literature
b. insanity is an outdated term and is no longer applied in legal cases, while psychosis is used both in mental health and legal
literature
c. insanity is legally a broader term, and subsumes the term psychosis
d. insanity refers to disturbances in thought and emotion, while a psychotic disturbance, by definition, affects thought only
176. A-- Insanity is strictly a legal term; it usually means that a person is in such a mental state that he or she cannot distinguish between right or wrong. Psychosis, on the other hand, is a psychiatric term.
177
177. Clomipramine and fluoxetine alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder by affecting levels of
a. epinephrine.
b. norepinephrine.
c. dopamine.
d. serotonin.
177. D-- If you're unsure about the correct answer to a question about neurotransmitters, serotonin is usually a good guess since it's involved in so many functions and activities. And, in fact, in OCD, the usefulness of the antidepressant drugs is believed to be due to their ability to increase serotonin activity.
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178. People with which of the following disorders experience a heightened recall of past experiences that have negative connotations with limited recall of past experiences that have neutral or positive connotations?
a. Major Depression
b. Hypochondriasis
c. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
d. Avoidant Personality Disorder
178. A-- This one is so easy that you may have thought it was a trick question and picked the wrong answer! Depressed people are the ones who tend to focus on negative events while ignoring neutral and positive ones.
179
179. The parents of a child with Mental Retardation are most likely to say that, during infancy, one of the earliest signs that something "was wrong" was
a. the child’s failure to cuddle.
b. the child’s lack of eye contact.
c. the child's lack of interest in the environment.
d. the persistence of primitive reflexes.
179. C-- Answers A and B are more characteristic of Autistic Disorder, and answer D is more likely in cerebral palsy or other serious motor disorder. Lack of age-appropriate interest in the environment is one of the earliest signs of retardation.
180
180. A 16-year-old girl tells her therapist that she wants to kill herself and that she's been thinking of using her mother's prescription pain pills to overdose. The therapist then tells her that he will have to tell her parents about her suicide risk. The girl becomes enraged and says that she would not have disclosed the information if she knew that the therapist would tell her parents. The therapist should:
a. agree not to tell the parents if the girl agrees to a no-harm contract
b. agree not to tell the parents, but tell them without the girl's knowledge
c. tell the parents and refer the girl to another therapist because she will probably not be able to trust the therapist again
d. tell the parents and apologize to the girl for having to do so
180. D-- According to both ethics and law, a psychologist may disclose confidential information without the client's consent to protect the client from harm. This applies to minors and adults alike. In this case, it would most likely be appropriate to inform the girl's parents about her suicide risk. The reasons for this should be explained to the girl and the therapist should apologize for the breach of confidentiality. Given the apparent level of risk involved, it would probably not be sufficient to rely on a no-harm contract (A). It would certainly be inappropriate and countertherapeutic to lie to the client (B). And it may not be necessary to refer the client (C). If handled empathically, it is likely that the girl will come to understand the therapist's reasons for disclosing to the parents and may come to appreciate that her safety was his overriding concern.
181
181. In old age, the best predictor of adaptation would be:
a. health.
b. number of grandchildren.
c. marital status.
d. SES level.
181. A-- This is tough. All of the distractors mentioned predict good adaptation in our older age. But the best answer is good health, according to the research.
182
182. Patterson's coercive family interactive model would predict
a. parents who "bribe" their children to act appropriately will meet with limited success.
b. hostile aggressive children change a parent's disciplinary technique.
c. children initially learn aggressive behaviors from their parents.
d. children often learn aggressive behavior at school and then this generalizes.
182. C-- Patterson's model attributes aggressiveness in children to certain parent-child interactions. According to this model, children initially learn aggressive behavior from their parents who model aggression through their use of harsh discipline and ignore or reinforce their child's aggressiveness. In addition, these actions become increasingly coercive and eventually generalize to school.
183
183. A man says that if he goes to watch his favorite baseball team play, his team will lose, despite the team's excellent record. This man's statement is an example of a(n):
a. delusion
b. fundamental attribution bias
c. illusory correlation
d. self-fulfilling prophesy
183. C-- An illusory correlation is the tendency to overestimate the association between variables that are uncorrelated or only slightly correlated. Because the man's presence at the baseball game is unlikely to affect the outcome, his belief that it would cause the team to lose would be considered an illusory correlation. There is insufficient evidence to indicate that the man's statement represents a delusion (A), which is "a false belief based on incorrect inference about external reality that is firmly sustained despite what almost everyone else believes....and obvious proof or evidence to the contrary" (DSM-IV-TR, p. 821). A fundamental attribution bias (B) refers to the tendency to overestimate dispositional (personality) factors and underestimate situational factors in explaining the behavior of others. Self-fulfilling prophesy effect (D) occurs when our expectations about another person affect that person's behavior.
184
184. Use of which of the following strategies is most likely to increase a person's level of chronic pain?
a. biofeedback
b. active coping
c. passive coping
d. cognitive-behavioral therapy
184. C-- Several studies have found that passive coping strategies (e.g., depending on others, restricting social activities, use of medication for immediate pain relief) result in an increase in subjective pain among chronic pain patients. Conversely, helping patients reduce the frequency of passive coping strategies is believed to result in decreased pain. Active coping strategies (e.g., staying busy or active, distracting attention from the pain), as well as biofeedback and cognitive-behavioral therapy, have most often been found to decrease pain [A. C. Mercado, L. J. Carroll, J. D. Cassidy, & P. Cote, Coping with neck and low back pain in the general population, Health Psychology, 2000, 19(4), 333-338].
185
185. In addition to tolerance and withdrawal, which of the following is a criterion for the diagnosis "Substance Dependence?"
a. daily use of the substance
b. the substance is taken in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended
c. frequent cravings to use the substance
d. recurrent substance-related legal problems
185. B-- Three (or more) of seven criteria are required for diagnosing Substance Dependence: Tolerance; Withdrawal; Substance use in larger amounts or over a longer period of time than was intended (B); Persistent desire to cut down or control substance use; Much time spent obtaining, using, or recovering from substance use; Important social, occupational, or recreational activities are given up or reduced because of substance use; Substance use is continued despite persistent or recurrent physical or psychological consequences caused by the substance use. None of the other choices in this question is a criterion of Substance Dependence; however, Choice D (recurrent substance-related legal problems) is one of the criteria for Substance Abuse.
186
186. A psychologist is working for a company that changes health care providers due to cost-effectiveness. The new provider has a policy that compromises the employee's future limits to confidentiality. The psychologist should
a. refuse to follow the new procedures and leave immediately.
b. outline her points of dissatisfaction and send it to the new provider.
c. make clear with each client the company's new limits to confidentiality.
d. organize a strike and call CNN.
186. C-- According to Standard 3.11 (Psychological Services Delivered To or Through Organizations), “Psychologists delivering services to or through organizations provide information beforehand to clients and when appropriate those directly affected by the services about (1) the nature and objectives of the services, (2) the intended recipients, (3) which of the individuals are clients, (4) the relationship the psychologist will have with each person and the organization, (5) the probable uses of services provided and information obtained, (6) who will have access to the information, and (7) limits of confidentiality. As soon as feasible, they provide information about the results and conclusions of such services to appropriate persons." If you choose answer A and leave abruptly, you are abandoning your client. You may also want to do answer B—outline your points of dissatisfaction—but this wouldn't be your first or most important consideration.
187
187. A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by:
a. the all-or-nothing principle
b. the “law of effect”
c. Weber’s law
d. the “law of proximity”
187. C-- Weber’s law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber, the “just noticeable difference” in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.
188
188. Children’s memory for early events:
a. cannot be recalled by most after age 3
b. is limited and constant
c. changes after age 2
d. changes as it develops over time
188. D-- Recent research has found that babies memories are not lost, rather they are updated continually as learning progresses. Their ability to recall is influenced by the same factors and conditions that impact recall in older children and adults. These include: the nature of the events; the number of times they experience them; and the availability of cues or reminders. Children from ages one to three are all capable of both immediate and long-term recall of specific events in their lives. Infants tested at two, four, and six months can recall details about hidden objects, their location, and size. The failure in retrieving memories from the first years of life (a.) refers to the phenomenon of infantile amnesia. Infantile amnesia has been theorized to be the result of a lack of schematic organization of experience, a different in way of encoding in early childhood, and, more recently, the importance of language development. Studies on memory and language development suggest that memories are made initially as the result of the child talking about them with someone else. As the ability to reason develops, the memory securing conversations are carried out within the child him/herself (See: Bauer, P. J. (1996). What do infants recall of their lives? Memory for specific events by one- to two-year-olds, American Psychologist, 51 (1), 29-41. and Meltzoff, A. N. (1995). What infant memory tells us about infantile amnesia: Long-term recall and deferred imitation. Journal of Experimental Child Psychology, 59, 497-515.)
189
189. A mother, father, and teenage son come to see you for family therapy. The family emigrated to the United States from a Latin American country five years ago. The son is not getting along with his parents and disobeys them constantly. Which of the following is a likely explanation for their problem?
a. different levels of acculturation within the family
b. the son has Conduct Disorder
c. this is a common style of interaction in Latino families
d. the son is frustrated because he is having trouble with the English language
189. A-- In immigrant families, a possible cause of conflict is differential levels of acculturation within the family -- that is, some members of the family may adopt the values and behavioral patterns of the new culture faster than others. This is especially true when one of the family members is an adolescent, who will likely have both greater contact with and a stronger desire to be accepted by peers in the new culture.
190
190. Componential, experiential, and practical are the three aspects of which intelligence model?
a. Gardner
b. Cattell and Horn
c. Sternberg
d. Perkins
190. C-- Robert Sternberg’s triarchic model of intelligence consists of three interacting components: the componential, or analytical, aspect includes the methods used to process and analyze information; the experiential, or creative, aspect refers to how unfamiliar circumstances and tasks are dealt with; and the practical, or contextual, component refers to how people respond to their environment. (Beyond IQ, New York, Cambridge University Press, 1985). Howard Gardner (a.) developed the theory of multiple intelligences which currently lists eight intelligences: linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical intelligence, bodily-kinesthetic, spatial, interpersonal, intrapersonal and naturalist. (See: Gardner, Howard (1983; 1993) Frames of Mind: The theory of multiple intelligences, New York: Basic Books.) Raymond Cattell and John Horn (b.) identified the dimensions fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and visual-spatial reasoning. David Perkins identified three dimensions to intelligence: the neural, the experiential, and the reflective that are considered contrasting causal factors that all contribute to intelligence. (See: Perkins, David. Outsmarting IQ: The Emerging Science of Learnable Intelligence. Free Press. 1995.)
191
191. According to Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, a person in the dissonance stage would experience:
a. appreciation of the self and depreciation of the dominant group
b. depreciation of the self and appreciation of the dominant group
c. appreciation of the self and the dominant group
d. conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the dominant group
191. D-- Even if you were unfamiliar with Sue and Sue's Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model, you may have been able to guess correctly if you realized that the term "dissonance" refers to conflict. Sue and Sue's (1990) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model (R/CID) is an elaboration of the Minority Identity Development model (MID) proposed by Atkinson, Morton, and Sue (1989). Both models describe the same stages (conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness) but the R/CID model elaborates on individuals' attitudes toward self and others. During the Conformity stage, a person depreciates the self (and others of the minority group) but appreciates the dominant majority group. During the Dissonance stage, minority individuals experience conflict between appreciation and depreciation of the self and the majority group. In the Resistance and Immersion stage, the individual appreciates the self and depreciates the majority group. In the Introspection stage, the person again experiences conflict and questions the basis of his or her appreciation and depreciation of self and others. And, finally, in the Integrative Awareness stage, the person experiences self-appreciation and selective appreciation of the majority group [D. W. Sue and D. Sue, Counseling the culturally different: Theory and practice, 3rd edition, 1999, New York, John Wiley].
192
192. A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as:
a. partial
b. petit mal
c. tonic-clonic
d. generalized
192. A-- Seizures are generally divided into two main types: "partial" or "focal," and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that side of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a "partial" seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called "partial seizure with secondary generalization." Partial seizures are further subdivided into "simple partial seizures," which have no alteration of consciousness, and "complex partial seizures," which do alter consciousness. The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff.
193
193. Decisions made by a group are typically better than those made individually when:
a. the group is highly cohesive
b. the group leader is directive
c. the task requires a high degree of creativity
d. members of the group have complementary skills
193. D-- One of the major obstacles to good group decision-making is groupthink. Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group, which prevents full consideration of alternative decisions, to the point where the decisions reached may become irrational. Some of the factors which contribute to groupthink include: high group cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. A group consisting of members with complementary skills is not homogeneous, and would be less likely to succumb to groupthink. Contrary to Choice C, tasks which require a high degree of creativity tend to be performed better by individuals than groups.
194
194. Which of the following would most indicate malingering (i.e., an attempt to "fake bad") on the MMPI-2?
a. high K score
b. high F score
c. low F score
d. high L score
194. B-- An elevated F score, particularly within the range of 80 to 99 suggests malingering ("faking bad"), exaggeration of difficulties, resistance to testing, or significant psychopathology. All of the other choices, i.e., high K, high L, and low F scores indicate the reverse, that is, an attempt to be viewed in an overly favorable light ("faking good"). (G. Groth-Marnat, Handbook of psychological assessment, 2nd ed. New York, John Wiley, 1990).
195
195. Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy can best be described as:
a. linear and reductionist
b. non-linear and holistic
c. relativistic and abstract
d. elitist and futile
195. A-- Traditional Western approaches to individual psychotherapy emphasize linear causal relationships and are reductionistic, that is, they tend to explain complex phenomena in terms of relatively simple principles. Non-linear, holistic, and relativistic are terms used to describe non-western and systems approaches.
196
196. Recent research indicates the most effective treatment for antisocial behavior in juvenile offenders is:
a. behavioral-reinforcement
b. structured family intervention with parental training
c. multi-systemic therapy
d. victims family therapy
196. C-- Multisystemic Therapy (MST), targeting chronic, violent, or substance abusing juvenile offenders at high risk of out-of-home placement, is consistent with social-ecological models of behavior and findings from causal modeling studies of delinquency and drug use. The approach views individuals as being nested within a complex network of interconnected systems that encompass individual, family, and extrafamilial (peer, school, neighborhood) factors. MST is a goal-oriented, intensive family- and community-based treatment that addresses the multiple determinants and factors in each youth’s social network that are contributing to his or her antisocial behavior. It is provided using a home-based model of services delivery with a typical treatment duration of approximately 4 months. Intervention strategies include strategic family therapy, structural family therapy, behavioral parent training, and cognitive behavior therapies. MST interventions typically aim to improve caregiver discipline practices, enhance family affective relations, decrease youth association with deviant peers, increase youth association with prosocial peers, improve youth school or vocational performance, engage youth in prosocial recreational outlets, and develop an indigenous support network of extended family, neighbors, and friends to help caregivers achieve and maintain such changes. MST has demonstrated long-term reductions in criminal activity, drug-related arrests, violent offenses, and incarceration. Controlled studies also showed that MST outcomes were similar for youths across the adolescent age range (i.e., 12-17 years), for males and females, and for African-American vs. white youths and families. (See: Curtis, N. M., Ronan, K. R., & Borduin, C. M. (2004). Multisystemic treatment: A meta-analysis of outcome studies. Journal of Family Psychology, 18, 411-419.)
197
197. All of the following are factors that typically distinguish Dissociative Amnesia from amnesia due to known physical causes, except
a. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is primarily for autobiographical information.
b. in Dissociative Amnesia, cognitive abilities are usually preserved.
c. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss can be reversed.
d. in Dissociative Amnesia, memory impairment is typically limited to information occurring immediately before an
emotional trauma.
197. D-- In Dissociative Amnesia, memory loss is usually for information acquired after the emotional trauma that brings on the symptoms. There is typically a gap or a series of gaps in recall for the individual's life history. By contrast, in some forms of Amnestic Disorder (e.g., in Amnestic Disorder Due to a Brain Injury), memory loss is typically for information in a circumscribed period of time immediately before the injury occurs. All of the other choices describe features that typically distinguish between Dissociative Amnesia and amnesia due to known physical causes.
198
198. Which of the following structures develops last?
a. cerebellum
b. frontal lobe
c. occipital lobe
d. temporal lobe
198. B-- The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.
199
199. Behavioral assessments are useful for determining behavioral:
a. contingencies
b. consequences
c. constraints
d. interventions
199. A-- A behavioral assessment identifies “contingencies,” which is a term for the antecedents of and consequences that maintain the behavior one is planning to alter. While a behavioral assessment may be undertaken to determine the best behavioral treatment, it may also be done for research purposes with no goal of offering treatment, or to see if a previous treatment was effective. Behavioral contingencies is more inclusive than consequences (response “B”) or interventions (response ”D"), and therefore the correct answer.
200
200. A culturally-encapsulated therapist:
a. exhibits a bias that involves interpreting all of the presenting problems of minority clients as the direct result of cultural
factors.
b. has had little or no contact with members of minority groups and exhibits a lack of interest in working with these
individuals in therapy.
c. attempts to overcome his or her cultural biases by adopting a "culture-blind" perspective that may or may not be
appropriate.
d. tends to accept cultural stereotypes about members of minority groups without question and is unaware of his or her
cultural biases.
200. D-- The notion of cultural encapsulation was originally described by Wrenn in 1962. A primary characteristic of a culturally-encapsulated counselor is an acceptance (usually unconscious) of traditional cultural stereotypes.
