Exam 1 Flashcards
The best predictor of treatment outcome among adult substance abusers is:
a. age b. ethnicity c. history of criminal behavior d. severity of substance abuse problems
D– Most studies have found that the best predictors of treatment outcome for substance abusers are psychiatric severity and problem severity. Other predictive factors include motivation and coping skills at baseline (J. R. McKay & R. V. Weiss, A review of temporal effects and outcome predictors in substance abuse treatment studies with long-term follow-ups: Preliminary results and methodological issues. Evaluation Review, 2001, 25(2), 113-161).
Dementia due to Head Trauma
a. is usually progressive in cases of moderate to severe trauma. b. is usually progressive only in cases of repeated head trauma. c. unlike other forms of Dementia, does not usually involve disturbances in executive functions. d. unlike other forms of Dementia, is associated more with deficits in executive functions than with memory impairment.
B– As described in DSM-IV, Dementia due to Head Trauma is usually nonprogressive when it is the result of a single head trauma. If it is progressive, this usually indicates a superimposed condition (e.g., hydrocephalus).
J. Berry, who views acculturation as a multidimensional construct, would describe an integrated client as one who:
a. Has a low retention of the minority culture b. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture c. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture d. Gets along with others in the workplace
B– J. Barry conceptualizes acculturation as many models existing on a continuum, with the minority culture and the majority or mainstream culture at opposite poles. Integration would be displayed by an individual who has high retention of the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.
Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person’s sense of satisfaction and well-being?
a. neither short-term nor long-term effects b. short-term but not long-term effects c. long-term but not short-term effects d. both short-term and long-term effects
B– Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don’t really affect a person’s long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person’s well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.
According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer?
a. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships. b. The costs of the abuse and the benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal. c. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship. d. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationship.
B– Lenore Walker describes a cycle of violence that involves three stags: tension building, acute battering incident, and loving contrition. According to Walker, most of the benefits of the relationship occur in the third stage, when the batterer offers apologies, assurances that the attacks will never happen again, and declarations of love. The relationship tends to remain stable when the balance between the costs of the abuse and the benefits of the relationship are fairly similar. As violence escalates, the relationship becomes more unstable, and the man escalates his charming behavior in an attempt to restore stability.
A child is reinforced for cleaning up her room and for doing homework. Reinforcement for the homework is stopped. One could predict that cleaning up will:
a. increase and doing homework will decrease. b. decrease and doing homework will also decrease. c. increase and doing homework will increase. d. decrease and doing homework will increase.
A– This question has to do with the behavioral contrast effect. If we are reinforced for performing two different operants, and reinforcement for one of these behaviors stops, we tend to increase the rate of the remaining reinforced behavior. That is probably because the reinforcement that remains seems to become more valuable.
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation:
a. alters the factor loadings for each variable but not the eigenvalue for each factor b. alters the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables c. alters the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor d. does not alter the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables
C– In factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factor although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same.
According to M. Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, a student with an optimistic attribution style who fails an exam in a class which he usually does well in is most likely to say:
a. "I was unlucky" b. "I didn't study enough" c. "the teacher is always a tough grader" d. "the test was hard this time"
D– In Seligman’s theory of learned optimism, attributions of optimistic people are believed to be the opposite of attributions of depressed people. Since depressed people make internal, stable, and global attributions to negative events, optimistic people would tend to make external, unstable, and specific attributions in response to negative events. Therefore, we can readily eliminate “B” (“I didn’t study enough”) since that’s an internal attribution. Choice “C” (“the teacher is always a tough grader”) is a stable attribution. That leaves Choices “A” (“I was unlucky”) and Choice “D” (“the test was hard this time”) – which are both external and unstable attributions. Of the two, however, Choice “D” is better since being unlucky would imply that success is a matter of luck.
To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on
a. the perceptions of employees. b. a job description. c. a job evaluation. d. a task analysis.
C– The doctrine of comparable worth states that workers (in particular, men and women) should get equal pay for performing jobs that have equivalent worth. A job evaluation is a method of determining the worth or value of jobs in an organization. Thus, it is the best answer to this question, because it would be a way of comparing the value of different jobs. Note that many critics believe that current methods of job evaluation contain inherent gender biases. Statistics clearly show that women earn less than men, and some believe that one reason for this is that job evaluation methods undervalue the work that women perform.
- Research investigating the relationship between sexual abuse in childhood and the development of Bulimia Nervosa in adulthood has found:
a. the same rate as in the general population.
b. a higher rate for children who were sexually abused.
c. no significant relationship.
d. a significant relationship for men but not for women.
B– Although some research suggests that there is no relationship between sexual abuse and Bulimia and other Eating Disorders, we have reviewed more recent research that suggests that children who are sexually abused are more at risk.
By the time an individual diagnosed with __________________ reaches middle age, particularly the fourth decade of life, the symptoms often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting all the diagnostic criteria.
a. Histrionic Personality Disorder b. Avoidant Personality Disorder c. Antisocial Personality Disorder d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
- C– The symptoms of Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD), particularly criminal behaviors, often become less evident as an individual grows older (DSM-TR-IV, p. 704). APD has a chronic course and while some symptoms like criminal behaviors may decrease, other symptoms such as difficulties with interpersonal relationships may persist. (See: Paris, J. (2004). Personality disorders over time: Implications for therapy, American Journal of Psychotherapy, 58(4), 420-429.)
The term “group polarization” refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are
a. more risky than those that might be made by individual members. b. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. c. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members. d. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.
C– A group’s decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won’t have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.
The Solomon four-group design is:
a. a quasi-experimental design b. used to analyze the difference scores among four different treatment groups c. used to reduce practice effects d. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting
D– The Solomon four-group design is a true experimental design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not.
A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when:
a. a study includes two or more independent variables
b. a study includes two or more dependent variables
c. there are more than two levels of a single independent variable
d. a study includes at least one independent variable that is a between-groups variable and another independent variable that
is a within-subjects variable
B– A MANOVA (multivariate analysis of variance) is used to analyze the effects of one or more independent variables on two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale. A factorial ANOVA (a.) is used to analyze data when a factorial design, which includes two or more independent variables, is used and the dependent variable is measured on an interval or ratio scale. A one-way ANOVA (c.) is used when a study has one independent variable and more than two independent groups. The split-plot (mixed) ANOVA (d.) is the appropriate technique when at least one independent variable is a between-groups variable and another independent variable is a within-subjects variable.
The Larry P. v. Riles case is important because it:
a. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in Mental Retardation classes. b. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry. c. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants. d. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the APA Ethics Code, such as using patient testimonials.
A– This was a California case related to the use of standardized intelligence tests for assessing children for placement in special classes for the mentally retarded. It’s one of several famous cases and rulings which questioned the validity of using these tests for this purpose. The ruling, which continues to be challenged, banned the use of IQ tests in the placement of minority children in special education classes.
A new professor is teaching her first class on feminist theory. What is she required to do?
a. Present a balanced view of feminist theory vs. other theories b. Concentrate solely on feminist theory; it is a given that there are other views of psychology c. Use it as a forum for presenting her dissertation findings d. Present other theories, but explain why feminist theory is the most appropriate paradigm for women
A– While B and D could both possibly be an option, (A) is more in line with Standard 6.03 (a) which deals with objectivity: “When engaged in teaching or training, psychologists present psychological information accurately and with a reasonable degree of objectivity.”
An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that
a. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate.
b. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one dependent variable.
c. a MANOVA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship
between the independent and dependent variables.
d. a MANOVA involves simpler mathematical calculations.
A– When a study involves two or more dependent variables, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each dependent variable) statistical tests (e.g., multiple one-way ANOVAs) or one MANOVA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type I error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type I error will occur. In an experiment that involves more than one comparison, the probability of at least one Type I error is referred to as the experiment-wise error rate.
A psychologist sees clients at a facility where fees are capitated. What does this mean?
a. providers are paid a fee each time a service is performed
b. clients are billed according to their ability to play
c. clients are required to meet a deductible before their insurance will pay
d. providers receive a fixed dollar amount over a specific period of time to cover the service needs of a fixed number of
clients
D– The term “capitation” refers to a fixed amount of money paid per person, not by the visit or procedure. Managed care companies usually express capitation in terms of cost per member per month. As stated in response “D,” providers are paid a specific dollar amount, for a specific time period, to cover the service needs of a specific number of people. If a provider exceeds his or her capitated payment, he or she may not be able to cover his or her costs and, consequently, may limit his or her services.
The best treatment for someone who has difficulty making friends, is shy, and can’t maintain steady employment is:
a. individual social skills training. b. paradoxical intention. c. token economy. d. group social skills training.
D– Treatment for very shy individuals who have trouble in interpersonal settings (as implied by the fact that the person cannot hold a job) typically involves social skills and assertiveness training. Although both of these treatments can be administered in individual therapy, the group format has a number of advantages: there are multiple models, and opportunities for feedback, support, and vicarious learning. These aren’t available in individual training sessions. Thus, D is the best answer.
The major threat to internal validity of a time-series quasi-experiment would be
a. maturation b. selection. c. regression. d. history.
- D– To get this correct (except if you got it correct by chance), you’d need to know what a time-series design is. Basically, you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. But a major threat to the internal validity of this design is a historical event which could co-occur with your experimental manipulation. You’d have no control over these events and they could be a rival explanation for changes in your measurements.
When helping his younger sister with her homework, an older brother “thinks aloud” while solving problems and gives his sister suggestions and support. This is best described as
a. mentoring. b. scaffolding. c. social facilitation. d. social referencing.
B– The older brother is using techniques associated with “scaffolding,” which was originally described by Vygotsky and refers to the temporary support that parents, teachers, and more experienced children give to a child to help him/her do a task or acquire a skill.
A cross dresser who only gets aroused when wearing women’s clothing would be diagnosed with:
a. Transvestic fetishism b. Exhibitionism c. Transvestism d. Gender identity disorder
A– According to DSM-IV, Transvetic Fetishism is diagnosed when a heterosexual male has recurrent intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving cross dressing. (B) Exhibitionism, involves the exposing of one’s genitals to an unsuspecting stranger (C) Transvestism is not a DSM-IV term (D) Gender identity disorder includes a strong and persistent cross-gender identification with evidence of clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other areas of functioning.
Cognitive dissonance theory suggests that which of the following clients would be most likely to report benefitting from psychotherapy?
a. a wealthy client who pays a very high fee b. a poor client who pays a very high fee c. a wealthy client who pays a very low fee d. a poor client who pays a very low fee
B– According to the theory of cognitive dissonance, a person is motivated to reduce the negative, aversive state that results when his or her cognitions conflict with each other. From the perspective of this theory, the poor client paying a very high fee would experience a state of dissonance. Therefore, this client, more than those in the other responses, would be motivated to believe that he or she is benefitting from therapy.
Patients with depression typically have:
a. more rapid onset of REM sleep b. decreased slow wave sleep c. increased percentage of REM sleep d. all of the above
D– Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression (e.g., D. Giles, D. Kupfer, A. Rush, & H. Roffwarg, Controlled comparison of electrophysiological sleep in families of probands with unipolar depression. American Journal of Psychiatry, 1998, 155(2), 192-199).
In an experiment, a psychologist establishes a conditioned startle response to a flashing red light by pairing presentation of the light with a loud noise that naturally elicits a startle reaction. Subsequently, the red light is simultaneously presented with a strong odor just before the loud noise. After many of these conditioning trials, which of the following is likely to occur when the strong odor is presented alone?
a. The strong odor will produce a startle response that is even stronger than the response produced by the red light due to
sensitization of the subject.
b. The strong odor will produce a very weak or no startle response due to habituation.
c. The strong odor will not produce a startle response because blocking will have occurred.
d. The strong odor may or may not produce a startle response depending on the original strength of the subject’s response to
the loud noise.
C– Blocking occurs when a CS is presented simultaneously with a second stimulus just before the US. Although it would seem that the second stimulus should acquire the properties of a CS from this procedure, that’s not what happens. Instead, the second stimulus does not produce a conditioned response. This is referred to as blocking.
According to Piaget, when a child accommodates new information by forming a new schema or modifying an existing one, this results in
a. decentration. b. equilibration. c. assimilation. d. symbolic representation.
B– As defined by Piaget, equilibration is a state of cognitive balance. The need for balance is what motivates the individual to assimilate and accommodate new information.
An adolescent’s behavior is motivated primarily by her needs for power and attention. Her problems would probably be best addressed by a therapist adopting the approach of:
a. Adler. b. Ellis. c. Perls. d. Freud.
A– Probably the best way to approach this question is to see if the notions of power and attention are linked to any of the people listed in the responses. For Adlerians, a desire to belong is a primary motivator of behavior, but this desire may be channeled into the mistaken goals of power, attention, inadequacy, or revenge.
Children with Generalized Anxiety Disorder most frequently worry about:
a. being away from home or close relatives b. being embarrassed in public c. performance in school or sporting events d. having an illness
C– According to DSM-IV-TR, children and adolescents with Generalized Anxiety Disorder frequently worry about their performance or competence at school and in sporting events. They may also worry about catastrophic events like earthquakes or nuclear war. Choice A is more characteristic of Separation Anxiety Disorder. Choice B indicates Social Phobia. And Choice D is characteristic of Hypochondriasis.
According to the central limit theorem,
a. as sample size increases, the shape of a sample distribution becomes more normal. b. as the size of a sampling distribution of means increases, its distribution becomes more normal. c. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means becomes more normal. d. as sample size increases, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approximates the shape of the population distribution.
C– According to the central limit theorem, the shape of a sampling distribution of means approaches normality as sample size increases. The central limit theorem is covered in the Advanced Statistics section of your materials, and you should study it after you have a reasonably solid grasp of the material presented in the rest of the section.
The most effective behavioral technique to reduce a school-aged child’s temper tantrums is:
a. modeling b. extinction c. positive reinforcement d. negative reinforcement
B– Extinction is the elimination or reduction in the frequency of a response achieved by the removal of the reinforcement maintaining the response. The extinction of temper tantrums would entail ignoring the child’s behavior or not reinforcing it with attention. This technique has been found to be effective for reducing temper tantrums. Positive (c.) and negative (d.) reinforcement are used to strengthen behaviors. Modeling (a.) is used to teach new behaviors.
Thinning refers to the process of:
a. switching from a fixed interval to a fixed ratio schedule b. switching from a variable interval to a variable ratio schedule c. switching from an intermittent to a continuous schedule d. switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule
D– Continuous schedules, or reinforcing every response, are associated with quick learning, satiation and extinction. The process of thinning, or switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule, is used to increase the resistance to extinction once a behavior is established.
A psychologist is consulted by the parents of a child who was referred by a pediatrician for evaluation. During the interview with the parents, they report the girl suffered a severe head injury which they haven’t told the pediatrician about. Assuming appropriate consents have been obtained, the psychologist:
a. should have the parents report this to the pediatrician. b. should report this to the pediatrician. c. should not report this until the parents tell the pediatrician first. d. should keep this information to herself.
B– This question looks like one on confidentiality, and, indeed, there are some aspects of confidentiality embedded here. But, more than that, it’s about professional relationships. You’re told in the item stem that all consents have been obtained, so the confidentiality issue was already addressed. The question then is, “What should the psychologist do?” Since we’re all here to help the patient, the most appropriate thing to do is to let the pediatrician know about your findings. You would call (probably call rather than write since calling is quicker) the pediatrician and report your findings. It was the pediatrician who made the referral in the first place, and you have the parents’ consent.
A therapist working from the perspective of Minuchin’s school of thought would examine a family system in terms of
a. multigenerational transmission processes. b. subsystems and boundaries. c. fusion and differentiation. d. communication style.
B– Salvador Minuchin’s Structural Family Therapy is based on and extends general family systems theory. The goal is to restructure maladaptive family structures, including family subsystems and boundaries.
An older brother helps his younger brother to build a fort by giving his brother verbal explanations and suggestions as they go. The researcher who would use this as an illustration of his theory is:
a. Piaget b. Patterson c. Vygotsky d. Erikson
C– This technique is what Vygotsky referred to as “scaffolding” and it is based on his idea that children receive support and teaching from their parents and other more experienced children.
You are seeing a client who exhibits all the major symptoms of a Major Depressive episode. You should
a. invite his wife in to aid in completing a more comprehensive family history. b. assess for early child abuse. c. refer him to a psychiatrist for a medical evaluation. d. assess for recent deaths in his family.
C– While the other choices could be options, “all the major symptoms” should tip you off to your client’s level of distress. Standard 1.20 (Consultations and Referrals) states, “Psychologists arrange for appropriate consultations and referrals based principally on the best interests of their patients.”
A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing:
a. paresis. b. hemiplegia. c. quadriplegia. d. paraplegia.
A– The term “paresis” means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or “general paresis”) has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term’s literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.
When you look up to a person, are influenced by that person, identify with that person and hold them in high regard, that person has:
a. Expert power b. Coercive power c. Referent power d. Reward power
C– Referent power is based on a person’s attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power. “A” Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise. “B” Coercive power results from the holder’s ability to punish others. And finally, “D” reward power, results from the holder’s ability to reward others.
Linnehan’s dialectical behavioral therapy is a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy that involves
a. intensive individual sessions. b. family therapy. c. individual and group sessions. d. group therapy.
C– Linnehan uses dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) in the treatment of Borderline Personality Disorder. DBT is a type of cognitive behavioral therapy that emphasizes social skills training, self-soothing exercises, and group dynamics. The patient is offered intensive individual and group sessions that are a combination of psychoeducation and cognitive therapy. DBT has been shown to reduce hospitalization and self-mutilating behavior (Linnehan, Heard, and Armstrong, 1993).
Which of the following is most true of Type I Schizophrenia as described by Timothy Crow?
a. There will be a poor prognosis. b. The symptoms are due to a neurotransmitter abnormality. c. A majority of symptoms will begin in adolescence. d. It will not respond to most antipsychotic medications.
B– Timothy Crow distinguishes between two types (I and II) of Schizophrenia. Type I includes symptoms of delusions or hallucinations, inappropriate affect, and disorganized thinking. It is also thought to more likely be due to neurotransmitter irregularities. Type II symptoms are described by the other three choices, and is also considered to be more likely due to brain structure abnormalities (T.J. Crow, The two syndrome concept: Origins and current status, Schizophrenia Bulletin, 1992, 11, 471-486).
A multivariate analysis of variance would be used to analyze collected data when:
a. the researcher wants to analyze the effects of an extraneous variable b. the researcher wants to remove the effects of an extraneous variable c. the study includes two or more independent variables d. the study includes two or more dependent variables
D– The multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) is a type of ANOVA used when two or more dependent variables are included in a study. Rather than using separate ANOVAs to evaluate the effects of each of the dependent variables, a researcher could use the MANOVA when all the dependent variables are measured on a ratio or interval scale. This also helps to control the experiment-wise error rate.
Working Memory is an expansion of the WISC-III Freedom from Distractibility factor. It is comprised of which of the following scales?
a. Coding, symbol search, digit span b. Arithmetic and digit-span c. Perceptual organization, comprehension, similarities d. Digit-span, picture arrangement, coding
B– The Working Memory scale is comprised of the WISC-III subtests of Arithmetic and Digit-Span and measures numerical ability, attention, and concentration.
When undertaking token economies with seriously disturbed individuals in mental institutions, one of the major problems with the program’s efficacy has to do with
a. generalization of behaviors. b. choice of reinforcers. c. exchange ratio. d. reinforcement value.
A– Use of a token economy involves administering secondary reinforcers such as a token each time the person engages in a desired behavior, or taking away a reinforcer when a person engages in an undesired behavior. The tokens can then be exchanged for primary reinforcers such as food or desired activities. Token economies are commonly used in institutional settings. A problem with them is that behaviors learned often fail to generalize to the real world, since tokens are not available in the real world every time we do something right.
Which of the following personality variables is significantly correlated with job performance across the widest variety of occupations?
a. agreeableness b. emotional stability c. extraversion d. conscientiousness
D– Factor analytic studies have identified five personality dimensions – agreeableness, emotional stability, extraversion, openness, and conscientiousness – that appear to underlie all other personality traits. The dimensions are commonly referred to in the literature “The Big Five.” Of these, conscientiousness has the highest correlation with job performance and training success across a wide range of settings.
You have been seeing a client for several months and believe that treatment has been a success. When you suggest termination to the client, he expresses a desire to continue therapy. Both you and the client are unable to come up with additional treatment goals; however, the client states that he really looks forward to coming to therapy just to talk. In this situation, you should:
a. terminate treatment immediately.
b. terminate treatment after a period of pretermination counseling, in which the client’s reasons for not wanting to terminate
are explored.
c. continue seeing the client until he is ready to end therapy.
d. seek consultation.
B– Ethical standard 10.10 requires that a psychologist terminate a professional relationship when it becomes “reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service.” Prior to termination, the psychologist must “provide pretermination counseling and suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.”
One of the criteria for the diagnosis of autism is:
a. Difficulty with phonemes b. Difficulty with morphemes c. Reversal of pronouns d. Reversal of sentences
C– People with autism rarely speak (about half don’t speak at all) and when they do, speech usually involves abnormalities such as echolalia and reversal of pronouns, for example, saying “you” instead of “I”.
What is the approximate probability that a person with a Schizophrenic brother (not an identical or fraternal twin) would also have Schizophrenia?
a. 60% b. 45% c. 10% d. 0.5%
C– The concordance rate for Schizophrenia among siblings is about 10%. If you didn’t know this, you might have been able to guess the correct answer. A rate of 60% or 45% probably should have seemed too high. And 0.5% is at the low end of estimates of the approximate lifetime prevalence rate of Schizophrenia and therefore should have seemed too low to be the concordance rate among related individuals.
When looking at an item characteristic curve (ICC), which of the following provides information about how well the item discriminates between high and low achievers?
a. the Y-intercept b. the slope of the curve c. the position of the curve (left versus right) d. the position of the curve (top versus bottom)
B– An item response curve provides one to three pieces of information about a test item – its difficulty (answer C); its ability to discriminate between high and low scorers (answer B); and the probability of answering the item correctly just by guessing (answer A).
An intervention targeting Bronfenbrenner’s microsystem will focus on
a. family members. b. family members and/or classmates. c. school and church. d. parents’ work and friends.
B– Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model distinguishes between four interacting environmental levels that range from the most proximal to the most global. The microsystem is the individual’s immediate environment and includes parents, siblings, caregivers, classmates, and teachers.
Raising the cutoff score on a predictor test would have the effect of
a. increasing true positives b. decreasing false positives c. decreasing true negatives d. decreasing false negatives.
B– A simple way to answer this question is with reference to a chart such as the one displayed under the topic “Criterion-Related Validity” in the Test Construction section of your materials. If you look at this chart, you can see that increasing the predictor cutoff score (i.e., moving the vertical line to the right) decreases the number of false positives as well as true positives (you can also see that the number of both true and false negatives would be increased).
You can also think about this question more abstractly by coming up with an example. Imagine, for instance, that a general knowledge test is used as a predictor of job success. If the cutoff score on this test is raised, fewer people will score above this cutoff and, therefore, fewer people will be predicted to be successful. Another way of saying this is that fewer people will come up “positive” on this predictor. This applies to both true positives and false positives.
Your managed care company denies to pay for further sessions for a client and requests that you do not tell the client of its decision. In this situation, you should
a. terminate with the client as requested. b. continue to provide treatment to the client if you believe the client could benefit from treatment. c. inform the client of all aspects of this decision that are relevant to treatment. d. seek the advice of an attorney regarding a possible lawsuit against the managed care company.
C– This question is not so much about managed care as it is about informed consent procedures. Whether or not a patient’s treatment is being financed by a managed care company, a psychologist should inform clients of relevant information regarding treatment at the outset of the professional relationship and continue to provide such information as it arises throughout treatment. Due to the nature of managed care companies, there may be more concerns that need to be discussed with managed care patients than with other clients. But the general informed consent requirement applies to this situation as well as many others.
The other choices don’t really address the issue raised by the question. Both choices “A” and “B” describe two possibly acceptable responses to this situation, but neither are requirements – whether or not you would continue to see the patient would depend on a number of factors, including the patient’s needs and your policies. Choice “D” implies that the managed care company’s actions are illegal and have caused you harm, but the question does not provide enough information for you to reasonably conclude that this is true.
According to Self Verification Theory, a person who believes that he dances poorly would prefer to be told by friends:
a. "You are a pretty bad dancer" b. "You are not a bad dancer" c. "You should become a professional dancer" d. nothing about dancing
A– Self Verification theory proposes that people need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, regardless of whether their self-concept is positive or negative. Thus, people prefer to be right rather than happy. According to this theory, a person who dances poorly would prefer to be told so (assuming the other’s evaluation matches the person’s self evaluation).
According to current research, the best predictor(s) for alcoholism would be
a. family history of alcoholism. b. environmental stresses and opportunities for observational learning. c. interpersonal pressure and identifications. d. age and SES.
A– If you wanted to find the best single predictor, you’d find out about alcoholism in the natural relatives of the patient. Even if the person is adopted away from the natural parents, the genetic connection is still the strongest one we have. So, when doing an initial assessment, you could ask about alcohol/drug abuse among family members. By the way, a good guess in answering any question structured as “the best predictor of (some disorder)” is “family history of that disorder.” You won’t be right 100% of the time, but you will be the majority of the time.
All of the following statements regarding item response theory are true, except
a. it cannot be applied in the attempt to develop culture-fair tests. b. it's a useful theory in the development of computer programs designed to create tests tailored to the individual's level of ability. c. one of its assumptions is that test items measure a "latent trait." d. it usually has little practical significance unless one is working with very large samples.
A– Item response theory is a highly technical mathematical approach to item analysis. Use of item analysis is based on a number of complex mathematical assumptions. One of these assumptions, known as invariance of item parameters, holds that the characteristics of items should be the same for all theoretically equivalent groups of subjects chosen from the same population. Thus, any culture-free test should demonstrate such invariance; i.e., a set of items shouldn’t have a different set of characteristics for minority and non-minority subgroups. For this reason, item response theory has been applied to the development of culture-free tests, and choice A is not a true statement.
The other choices are all true statements about item response theory, and therefore incorrect answers to this question. Consistent with choice B, item response theory is the theoretical basis of computer adaptive assessment, in which tests tailored to the examinee’s ability level are computer generated. As stated by choice C, an assumption of item response theory is that items measure a latent trait, such as intelligence or general ability. And, finally, research supports the notion that the assumptions of item response theory only hold true for very large samples (choice D).
Which of the following is most consistent with the research regarding childhood sexual abuse?
a. the effects are less severe for younger children compared to older children b. the effects are less severe the older the perpetrator is at the time of the abuse c. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a family member d. the effects are less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger
D– Childhood sexual abuse often results in long-term consequences for the victims; however, certain factors have been found to moderate the severity of consequences. For example, the effects are generally less severe when the perpetrator is a stranger rather than a family member. However, approximately 70% of all incidents of childhood sexual abuse are committed by a family member.
The brand name for one of the medications used for ADHD is:
a. Tegretol b. Depakote c. Dolophine d. Dexedrine
D– Dexedrine is sometimes used in the treatment of ADHD. Tegretol and Depakote are both used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. Dolophine is used for the treatment of heroin addiction.
According to Horn and Cattell (1966)
a. crystallized and fluid intelligence become more integrated in later adulthood. b. crystallized and fluid intelligence are uncorrelated. c. crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence. d. fluid (but not crystallized) intelligence depends on exposure to particular cultural and educational experiences.
C– Cattell and Horn distinguish between fluid and crystallized intelligence. The former is independent of specific instruction and is relatively culture free, while the latter depends on exposure to education and is affected by cultural experiences. Cattell and Horn believed that these two aspects of intelligence are highly correlated and that crystallized intelligence develops through the use of fluid intelligence.
Curriculum-based assessment is
a. a form of norm-referenced assessment designed to compare the performance of students to other students who are
receiving the same type of instruction.
b. used to evaluate a curriculum in order to identify how it should be improved or changed.
c. used to compare the curriculum at an educational institution to that of other institutions with similar students and goals.
d. used to evaluate student performance in light of the current curriculum and identify possible modifications in instructional
style.
D– Curriculum-based assessment provides information about a student in the context of the existing curriculum. The results of such an assessment not only indicate the student’s performance level – they also provide feedback about the instruction itself, so that necessary changes can be made to better fit the student’s ability and current knowledge. In contrast to choice A, curriculum-based assessment is criterion-referenced, since it involves evaluating the student’s performance in light of an external standard (the curriculum). Norm-referenced assessment would involve evaluating a student’s performance by way of a comparison to other students. In contrast to choice B, the assessment is not designed to bring about changes in the curriculum itself – rather, its purpose is to help identify progress in terms of the existing curriculum and any change in instruction (e.g., pace, sequencing of topics) that would aid the student’s progress in completing the curriculum.
If you want to keep a borderline patient involved with group therapy, what would be the best technique?
a. You have them consult with a psychiatrist for a medication evaluation. b. You help the patient with the defense mechanism of splitting. c. You invite a client with a histrionic personality disorder to join the group. d. Offer individual therapy in addition to group therapy.
D– Marsha Linehan (1993) has been achieving success with borderline patients with her use of dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) which involves a combination of groups skills training and individual outpatient therapy. This combination has been successful at decreasing premature dropout rates in group therapy, as well as reducing suicide attempts and inpatient hospitalization rates.
The difference between professional ethics and professional values is best stated by which of the following?
a. If a psychologist is ethical, there should be no difference between ethics and values.
b. Ethics are standards for practice set by the profession, while values refer to judgments of right and wrong.
c. Ethics can be stated more specifically than values.
d. Values specifically define appropriate professional conduct, while ethics are a more general code of proper professional
conduct.
B– Response B distinguishes between ethics and values. Values are concerned with what is good and desirable and ethics refer to correct or appropriate practice. Values and ethics are related in that the latter are usually derived from the former; for example, privacy is a value that is reflected in the ethical standard requiring psychologists to obtain clients’ informed consent before releasing information about therapy. Responses A and C are not necessarily true, and answer D is not true since values do not specifically define appropriate professional conduct.
There is evidence that the effectiveness of systematic desensitization for reducing anxiety is actually due to repeated exposure to the feared stimulus, which leads to extinction of the anxiety response. However, systematic desensitization was originally developed as an application of
a. negative reinforcement. b. counterconditioning. c. stimulus discrimination. d. avoidance conditioning.
B– In systematic desensitization, anxiety-arousing stimuli are paired with stimuli that produce an incompatible response (often relaxation). In other words, it was designed to use counterconditioning in order to eliminate an anxiety response. Some research suggests, however, that it is actually just the exposure to anxiety-arousing stimuli, without aversive consequences, that explains the effectiveness of this technique.
The basic requirements of a token economy are:
a. stimulus sensitization, choice of tokens, rate of exchange. b. target behaviors, choice of reinforcers, rate of exchange. c. goal setting, staff cooperation, choice of reinforcers. d. target behaviors, choice of tokens, primary reinforcers.
B– To institute a token economy program, you need to know the behaviors you want to change (the target behaviors). You also need to know what is reinforcing for the client (choice of reinforcer). For a hospitalized schizophrenic, it might be walking around; for a child, it might be a candy treat. You also need to know the relationship between token and the reinforcer (rate of exchange); that is, how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer.
When a multiple regression analysis is employed to predict outcome, there should be
a. low intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion. b. high intercorrelations among the predictors and high correlation of each predictor with the criterion. c. low intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion. d. high intercorrelations among the predictors and low correlation of each predictor with the criterion.
A– This question has come up in other examples throughout the tests. Simply stated, we need to have a high correlation between the predictor and the criterion we’re making predictions about (this eliminates two of the four alternatives). Also, we need to have the predictors themselves be more or less independent of each other. That is, they shouldn’t intercorrelate. If they do, then there’s no point in using all of them – if they all measure the same thing, why not use just one? So, you don’t want the predictors to intercorrelate.
A primary reinforcer is the same as:
a. A conditioned reinforcer b. The first reinforcer used c. Pseudoconditioning d. An unconditioned reinforcer
D– A primary reinforcer is the same as an unconditioned reinforcer. These are items that acquire their reinforcing value without special training. Food and water are examples of primary reinforcers.
According to Kohlberg’s theory, which of the following would be the best example of conventional morality?
a. maximizing individual gains b. support of social standards c. behaving solely in line with one's own conscience d. behaving in such a way as to avoid risk and cost to the individual
B– Conventional morality is the second level of Kohlberg’s three levels of moral reasoning. It is between pre-conventional morality, where the behaviors we view as moral are those that result in a reward or avoidance of punishment; and post-conventional morality, where we function according to our own conscience, no matter what the conventional wisdom is. The person at the conventional level supports the social order. He or she believes in that which is approved of by others or by societal standards is moral.
Huntington’s Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of:
a. dopamine b. epinephrine c. GABA d. norepinephrine
C– Huntington’s Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).
According to social learning theory, job training would be most effective when using:
a. behavioral modeling b. vestibule training c. reinforcement on a variable interval schedule d. reinforcers tailored to each employee’s needs
A– According to Bandura’s social learning theory (or theory of observational learning), it is possible to learn a given behavior merely by watching a model perform it. Behavioral practice and reinforcement, though they influence the probability that a behavior will be learned, are not absolutely necessary for the behavior to be imitated. Therefore, Choices C and D, which involve reinforcement procedures, can be eliminated. Vestibule training (B) involves a simulation of work conditions, although it does not necessarily involve modeling.
Wernicke’s, Broca’s and conduction aphasia share which of the following difficulties?
a. repeating what is said b. word prosody c. reception d. expression
A– Difficulty repeating words just spoken and recalling the name of familiar objects are characteristic of all three disorders. Conduction aphasia is due to damage to the nerve fibers that connect Broca’s to Wernicke’s area and the most typical result is difficulty repeating what one has heard. Wernicke’s, or receptive aphasia, primarily affects comprehension which results in impairment in spoken and written language, and anomia or problems recalling words. Broca’s aphasia is characterized by difficulty expressing language, including difficulty repeating what is said.
Which of the following models of leadership provides a “decision tree” to help a leader determine whether an autocratic, consultative, or consensual decision-making approach is best given the nature of the work situation?
a. Fiedler's contingency model b. Hersey and Blanchard's situational model c. Vroom and Yetton's normative model d. House's path-goal model
- C– You may have been able to answer this one through the process of elimination if you knew that the models described by Fiedler, Hersey and Blanchard, and House don’t include a decision-tree, which is provided by the Vroom and Yetton model.
A psychologist who obtained a Ph.D. in experimental psychology wants to change her specialty to clinical psychology. To meet the requirements set forth by the General Guidelines for Providers, the psychologist must
a. complete an internship in clinical psychology under the supervision of a professional clinical psychologist. b. complete appropriate doctoral-level classes and supervised post-doctoral training. c. obtain a Ph.D. in clinical psychology from an accredited college or university. d. meet her state's requirements for licensure in clinical psychology.
B– The licensing exam often contains questions such as these, and in approaching them, you should remember these buzzwords: training AND experience. Specifically, the Specialty Guidelines state that “professional psychologists who wish to qualify as clinical psychologists meet the same requirements with respect to subject matter and professional skills that apply to doctoral and postdoctoral education and training in clinical psychology.” Choice “B” is the only one that includes an element of both training and experience, and is therefore the best answer. Moreover, unlike as stated by choice “C”, a second Ph.D. would not be necessary – doctoral level coursework in clinical psychology would be sufficient to meet the academic training aspect of this requirement.
The drug most often abused by teenagers is
a. alcohol. b. tobacco. c. marijuana. d. cocaine.
A– According to the latest survey completed by the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (who keep statistics on these types of things) of teenagers aged 12-17, alcohol was their drug of preference. Asked about their drug use in the previous month, 21% had consumed at least one alcoholic drink, 18.2% had smoked cigarettes and 8.3% had used marijuana.
An elevated F score on the MMPI-2 (i.e., the F is greater than 70 and the K is very low) indicates that the:
a. person is answering in a socially desirable manner. b. score should be considered in relation to the total profile. c. person is likely being careless or deliberately malingering. d. total profile can be considered valid.
C– The validity scales on the MMPI-2, of which the F is one, are checks on response styles. Specifically, the F scale indicates if the person is answering in a deviant way, or is perhaps actually deviant. The higher the F, the more the answers suggest that the person is attempting to appear odd, disturbed, etc.
Premature termination would be most likely to occur when
a. an African-American client has a Caucasian therapist. b. an African-American client has an African-American therapist. c. a Caucasian client has an African-American therapist. d. a Caucasian client has a Caucasian therapist.
A– Research with African-American clients on the relationship between therapist-client racial similarity and therapy effectiveness has yielded contradictory results and suggests that this relationship is mitigated by a variety of factors. A clearer relationship exists between similarity and premature termination, with the probability of premature dropout increasing when an African-American client works with a racially dissimilar therapist.
In the context of expectancy theory, valence refers to:
a. the willingness of a worker to exert effort. b. the strength of the worker's needs. c. the desirability of the job itself. d. the desirability of the consequences of performance.
D– Expectancy theory predicts that motivation is related to three phenomena: beliefs about the relationship between effort and performance; beliefs about the relationship between performance and outcomes; and the desirability of those outcomes. The latter is referred to as valence.
The validity coefficient of a new job selection test is 0.25. This test would most likely be useful when:
a. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very low b. the percentage of correct hiring decisions without the new test is very high c. there are many applicants for few job openings d. there are few applicants for many job openings
C– This question is referring to a test’s incremental validity. Incremental validity is the increase in decision-making accuracy resulting from the use of a particular predictor. Three factors influence the incremental validity of a test: 1) the base rate, or the percentage of correct hiring decisions made when the test is not used; 2) the test’s validity coefficient; and 3) the selection ratio, or the ratio of job openings to total applicants (for instance, if 100 people are applying for 5 positions, the selection ratio is 5/100, or .05).
Incremental validity is greatest when the base rate is moderate, the validity coefficient is high, and the selection ratio is low. The Taylor-Russell tables can be used to determine a test’s incremental validity, given specific values for the base rate, validity coefficient, and selection ratio. We can eliminate Choices A and B because a moderate base rate maximizes the usefulness of a selection test more than a low or high base rate does. Contrary to Choice D, a low selection ratio (many applicants for few job openings) is better than a high selection ratio.
You are a psychologist in private practice and, due to a heavy case load, you decide to work with another psychologist. The second psychologist will see many of the clients and share office space with you. You agree to give this psychologist 50% of all fees received. This arrangement is
a. unethical, because the ethical standards prohibit fees for referrals. b. unethical, because it threatens the best interests of the clients. c. unethical, because the clients will be misled about their fees. d. ethical.
D– There is nothing inherently unethical about this arrangement, and it is not barred by APA’s ethical standards. The standards do prohibit payment for referrals that are based on the referral itself and not based on services rendered. However, both psychologists in this case will apparently be rendering services, so the arrangement appears acceptable.
A man is able to achieve erections during sleep, but, has difficulty achieving or maintaining erections during sexual activities. The most appropriate diagnosis would be:
a. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder b. Male Erectile Disorder c. Sexual Aversion Disorder d. Sexual Dysfunction Not Otherwise Specified
B– Male Erectile Disorder is characterized by a persistent or recurrent inability to attain or maintain an erection until completion of sexual activity. This best fits the description in this question. Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder (A) is diagnosed when a person has persistently deficient or absent sexual fantasies and desire for sexual activity. Since the question did not indicate that the man in this question lacked sexual desire, we should not assume that to be the case. Although, if a lack of desire was also present, both diagnoses would be given. There also is no evidence of extreme aversion to, or avoidance of, all genital contact with a sexual partner – which eliminates Sexual Aversion Disorder (C). And Sexual Dysfunction NOS (D) is reserved for sexual dysfunctions that do not meet the criteria for any specific sexual dysfunction.
Severe maternal malnutrition during the third trimester is correlated with a number of intellectual, social, and motor deficits in children. Which of the following statements regarding the physiological correlates of these deficits is most true?
a. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to result in incomplete development of the autonomic nervous
system.
b. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester seems to have its most severe negative impact on the developing brain.
c. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is most likely to cause physical disabilities that prevent the child from
developing at a normal rate.
d. Maternal malnutrition in the third trimester is not likely to have a significant physiological effect on the developing fetus;
observed deficits in these children are probably due to social and environmental causes.
B– Severe prenatal malnutrition is likely to have differential effects, depending on when in pregnancy it occurs. In the first trimester, it can result in congenital malformations and spontaneous abortion. In the third trimester (as well as in the first 3-6 months after birth), it is most likely to have a negative effect on the central nervous system – specifically, the brain. Studies have suggested that these children often have an abnormally low number of brain cells and brain weight. The specific behavioral consequences may include apathy, unresponsiveness to environmental stimulation, irritability, an abnormally high-pitched cry, intellectual deficits, and lags in motor development.
One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors in the therapy process is that
a. more seriously disturbed clients have better outcomes in therapy. b. higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcomes. c. age is significantly related to therapy outcome. d. men are more likely to seek therapy.
B– One of the most consistent findings of the research on client factors is that higher levels of intelligence predict better therapy outcome (Luborsky, 1989). Answer A is incorrect because seriously disturbed individuals actually have poorer outcomes (Garfield, 1994). In regard to answer C, age appears to be unrelated to therapy outcome and answer D would have to state that women are more likely to seek therapy to be correct (Luborsky et al., 1989).
When a psychologist believes that her patient’s records will be used in a legal proceeding, she should:
a. rewrite them to meet the higher standards of a forensic setting b. avoid the use of any psychological terminology in favor of legal terminology c. maintain them in the same kind and quality as all of her patients' records d. maintain them in the kind and quality consistent with reasonable scrutiny in an adjudicative forum
D– According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists (1991), “When forensic psychologists conduct an evaluation or engage in the treatment of a party to a legal proceeding, with foreknowledge that their professional services will be used in an adjudicative forum, they incur a special responsibility to provide the best documentation possible under the circumstances.”
The realization that gender is unaffected by superficial changes in appearance or activity is referred to as:
a. gender constancy b. gender stability c. gender identity d. ego-dystonic transvestism
A– Gender concept develops in a predictable sequence of stages during childhood. The first stage is known as “gender identity,” which is the ability to categorize self and others as male or female. There is evidence that gender identity develops as early as 9 months or as late as 3 years, depending on how the researchers define it. The next stage, which develops by 4 years of age, is “gender stability,” which is an understanding that one’s gender does not change over time. The final stage is known as “gender constancy,” which is characterized by an understanding that gender stays the same despite changes in appearance. Gender constancy is achieved by age 5 or 6.
