Exam 4 Flashcards
1
Q
- A research study using an ABAB design involves the following elements in sequence:
a. treatment, baseline, treatment, baseline
b. baseline, treatment, baseline, treatment
c. baseline, intervention in setting A, baseline, intervention in setting B
d. baseline for group A, treatment for group A, baseline for group B, treatment for group B
A
- B– An ABAB design is a type of single-subject design. It is also an example of a reversal design – a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the “A” phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the “B” phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is again measured (the second “A”), and the behavior is again measured after the treatment is re-applied (the second “B”). Choices C and D are examples of multiple baseline designs. Multiple baseline designs do not involve withdrawal of treatment, but rather, apply the treatment to multiple settings (multiple baseline across settings) or to the same behavior of different subjects (multiple baseline across subjects).
2
Q
- A psychologist is planning to retire in the next few months and has been decreasing her caseload. One of the psychologist’s former clients, who had terminated a few months earlier, phones the psychologist and reports having suicidal thoughts. The psychologist should:
a. inform the client that she is retiring and that she cannot accept any clients
b. refer the client to a colleague immediately
c. meet with the client until the client no longer needs treatment
d. meet with the client until the situation is stabilized and then refer
A
- D– Although this question is referring to a former client, due to the potential danger for a suicidal client, the most appropriate action would be to meet with the client until the situation is stabilized and then refer.
3
Q
- In working with a triangulated family, a structural family therapist would
a. work with the most differentiated family members in order to reduce their emotional reactivity.
b. use a paradoxical intervention by taking steps to increase the family’s initial level of triangulation.
c. train the family in communication skills and techniques.
d. upset the family’s balance by blocking the family from its normal interactional pattern.
A
- D– Minuchin, the founder of structural family therapy, defines triangulation as a family boundary problem in which each parent demands that the child side with him or her against the other parent. According to Minuchin, the therapist’s goal in this and other situations in which parents attempt to deflect conflict onto children is to restructure the parent-child and spousal subsystems so they function correctly. This involves introducing some stress into the family system to upset the family’s balance and block the family from its normal way of interacting. For example, Minuchin describes strategies such as prohibiting children from talking about symptomatic behavior with their parents, rewarding parents for their capacity to nurture and support each other, and restructuring the parents in a coalition against their child.
4
Q
- On the WISC-III, “freedom from distractibility” is measured using which of the following subtests?
a. Digit Span and Digit Symbol
b. Arithmetic and Digit Span
c. Picture Completion and Picture Arrangement
d. Coding and Arithmetic
A
- B– The freedom from distraction factor measures distractibility, concentration, and short-term memory. On the WISC-III, this factor is assessed with the Arithmetic and Digit Span subtests.
5
Q
- According to Erik Erikson, an adolescent who is unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion psychosocial conflict will exhibit:
a. fidelity
b. repudiation
c. mainstream behaviors
d. hopelessness
A
- B– According to Erikson, adolescents who are unsuccessful in resolving the identity vs. identity confusion stage experience either the extreme of “fanaticism” or “repudiation.” Fanaticism occurs when the person becomes overzealous in identification to a particular role to the point that he or she is intolerant of others. Repudiation is the other maladaptive tendency in which the adolescent compensates for a lack of identity by fusing with a group that eagerly provides its members with details of an identity: religious cults, military organizations, or hate groups. The adolescent repudiates his or her membership in the world of adults. Successful resolution of the conflict, on the other hand, results in the virtue Erikson called “fidelity” (A). Fidelity refers to loyalty, although not blind loyalty, to society’s standards.
6
Q
- Which of the following is the most common functional disorder in the elderly?
a. Delusional Disorder
b. Depressive Disorder
c. Dementia
d. Bipolar Disorder
A
- B– To answer this question, it helps to know what the term “functional disorder” means. It is actually a somewhat outdated term: the DSM-III-R distinguished organic mental disorders, which are due to a known physiological cause, from functional disorders, which may or may not have a physiological component but are not directly caused by a known physiological factor. The DSM-IV divides what were previously called organic disorders into two categories: Mental Disorders Due to a General Medical Condition and Substance-Induced Disorders; disorders that don’t fit into either of these categories are called primary mental disorders. Anyhow, this question illustrates that you sometimes have to be familiar with terms that are no longer part of the “official” lingo. If you knew the meaning of the term functional disorder, you would have eliminated Dementia as a choice, since Dementia is always either due to the effects of a general medical condition or is substance induced (or, using the old language, is always an organic mental disorder). Of the remaining choices, the prevalence of Depressive Disorders in the elderly is 5-10%, the prevalence of Delusional Disorder is approximately 4%, and the prevalence of Bipolar Disorder is 1%. So “B” is the correct answer.
7
Q
- According to the Ethics Code, under what condition is it acceptable to provide therapy to a former sex partner?
a. under no condition
b. when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago
c. when the sexual relationship ended at least two years ago and the therapist has determined that the previous relationship
will not affect the ability to provide effective therapy
d. when the therapist determines that the therapeutic relationship will be not be exploitative and is not clinically
contraindicated
A
- A– This is covered by Standard 10.07 of the Ethics Code, which states that “Psychologists do not accept as therapy patients or clients persons with whom they have engaged in sexual intimacies.”
8
Q
- You are treating a patient with both an AXIS I and an AXIS II diagnosis. You know that the insurance company is much more likely to pay for the AXIS I treatment. What should you do?
a. Bill for AXIS I as the diagnosis; state that the AXIS II diagnosis is provisional.
b. Just bill for AXIS I; at present there is not a successful treatment modality for AXIS II disorders
c. Bill for both, but indicate that you are only seeking reimbursement for the AXIS I treatment
d. Write a request to the insurance company providing a clinical rationale for treating both and bill accordingly
A
- D– The best choice when dealing with insurance companies is to behave ethically. Present a clear and complete diagnosis and an appropriate treatment plan. Bill for the stated service. Let the insurance company decide who pays for what.
9
Q
- Psychoanalytic theory and ethology both emphasize
a. critical periods.
b. psychic determinism.
c. the oedipal complex.
d. imprinting.
A
- A– A critical period is a discrete time period during which an organism is particularly sensitive to environmental events that could influence its development one way or the other. Both ethology (the study of animals in their natural habitat) and psychoanalytic developmental theory emphasize critical periods. For example, Lorenz’s research found that the critical period for imprinting in geese is 2-3 days after they are born. And in Freud’s theory of development, the different stages (e.g., oral, anal) represent critical periods for successful or unsuccessful resolution of specific psychosexual conflicts.
10
Q
- A 4-year-old girl cries when her teddy bear falls down the stairs. This is an example of:
a. animism
b. egocentrism
c. magical thinking
d. childhood schizophrenia
A
- A– Animism is the belief that inanimate objects have thoughts, feelings, and other lifelike qualities. Egocentrism (B) refers to thinking, observing, and judging things in relation to the self. Magical thinking (C), which is based on egocentrism, is the erroneous belief that one has control over objects or events. All of the above traits are normal in a preoperational child and do not indicate Schizophrenia (D).
11
Q
- You are seeing a 15 year old girl in therapy. Prior to beginning treatment, you, the girl, and her parents agree that you will maintain the girl’s confidentiality and not discuss anything she reveals in therapy with her parents. In the first session you realize that the girl is very depressed, and during the fifth session she tells you that she wants to kill herself. Under these circumstances, you will:
a. not contact her parents but have the girl sign a “no-suicide contract.”
b. contact her parents only if they are unaware of the girl’s depressed state.
c. contact her parents if you feel the girl is at high risk for attempting suicide.
d. contact the child protective agency.
A
- C– Even though you’ve come to an agreement with the parents and the adolescent, the parents are still the holder of the privilege. Also, whenever someone is a threat to themselves, you have an obligation to take steps to protect them, even when this means violating confidentiality.
12
Q
- Which of the following best describes the purpose of reframing in family therapy?
a. It is a paradoxical technique designed to harness the family’s resistance in the service of positive behavioral change.
b. It is designed to increase the family’s compliance with the therapist’s directives and the treatment plan in general.
c. It is designed to restore the family’s homeostasis, or “balance.”
d. It is designed to increase the family’s ability to differentiate intellectual from emotional functioning.
A
- B– Reframing is a technique of family therapy, especially structural and strategic family therapy. It involves relabeling or redefining a problem behavior in order to get the family to see it in a new light. For example, a therapist might tell a family that a child who frequently “talks back” is expressing insecurity and the need for love, rather than anger and disrespect. The purpose of reframing is usually to increase the family’s compliance with treatment. In the example given, reframing might increase the family members’ willingness to make changes in their own behavior, rather than focusing only on the identified patient.
13
Q
- Recent research suggests that the best treatment for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is
a. biofeedback.
b. relaxation and graduated exposure.
c. cognitive-behavioral therapy.
d. a benzodiazepine.
A
- C– Once again, cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) has been found to be the most effective treatment, probably because it combines a number of behavioral and cognitive interventions.
14
Q
- A significant finding for a one-way ANOVA indicates that the
a. group means were different.
b. sample means were different.
c. population means were different.
d. within-group variance was different.
A
- C– We use statistical tests to make inferences about a population. So if we have significant results, we assume that this represents what happens in the real world – that is, in the population.
15
Q
- Research comparing the relationship between age and therapy outcome has produced mixed results. However, in their most recent meta-analysis of the research, Weisz and his colleagues (1995) found:
a. no relationship between age and outcome.
b. that therapy is more beneficial for children and adolescents than adults.
c. that therapy is more beneficial for children than adolescents, especially among girls.
d. that therapy is more beneficial for adolescents than children, especially among girls.
A
- D– Earlier meta-analyses of the outcome studies for children and adolescents found either no difference for adolescents and children or a slight superiority for children. In contrast, the more recent Weisz et al. meta-analysis found that therapy has better outcomes for adolescents than children, especially female adolescents and when the counselor is a professional or student (versus paraprofessional). Note that Weisz et al. didn’t compare outcomes for children and adolescents to outcomes for adults, but other meta-analyses suggest that adults do somewhat better.
16
Q
- A manufacturing company hires a psychologist to screen job applicants using standardized cognitive ability tests. The company then asks the psychologist to train their human resources staff to administer and score the tests. The psychologist should:
a. agree to do so if the psychologist is able to provide adequate training to the staff
b. agree to do so if the psychologist is able to supervise the human resources staff
c. refuse to do so because cognitive ability tests are not valid predictors of job performance
d. refuse to do so because the human resources staff lacks the appropriate qualifications
A
- D– Ethical Standard 9.07 states, “Psychologists do not promote the use of psychological assessment techniques by unqualified persons.” A human resources staff would be unqualified to use these tests and should not be trained in their use. Contrary to C, cognitive ability tests are considered to be a relatively good predictor of job performance.
17
Q
- When a person with deep dyslexia is presented with the written word “cat,” he is most likely to respond with which of the following?
a. “tac”
b. “dog”
c. “at”
d. “I don’t know”
A
- B– People with deep dyslexia exhibit a number of reading errors including semantic paralexia, which involves producing a response that is similar in meaning to the target word (e.g., dog for cat or arm for leg).
18
Q
- Which of the “Big Five” personality traits is most associated with Antisocial Personality Disorder?
a. low on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
b. low on neuroticism, low on openness, low on extroversion
c. high on neuroticism, low on agreeableness, and low on conscientiousness
d. high on neuroticism, low on openness, low on agreeableness
A
- C– The Big Five personality traits: Openness, Conscientiousness, Extroversion, Agreeableness, and Neuroticism (“OCEAN”) have been matched with several of the personality disorders. Antisocial Personality Disorder was found to be associated with low scores in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness and generally higher scores in Neuroticism and Extroversion. Note that “neuroticism” is sometimes referred to as its opposite: “emotional stability”.
19
Q
- Structural equation modeling is used to:
a. classify participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors.
b. to evaluate convergent and divergent validity.
c. to identify homogeneous groups from a collection of observations.
d. to evaluate predictive relationships between measured variables and latent factors.
A
- D– Structural equation modeling is a technique used to evaluate or confirm the cause-and-effect or hypothesized relationship between both measured and latent variables. Classifying participants into criterion groups based on their status or score on two or more predictors (a.) is referred to as discriminant function analysis. Convergent and divergent validity is evaluated (b.) using the multitrait-multimethod matrix. Cluster analysis (c.) is a method for grouping objects of similar kind into respective categories. It can be used to discover structures in data without providing an explanation/interpretation.
20
Q
- A woman who has been abused by her husband comes to therapy. What would a family systems therapist do first in this case?
a. invite the husband into therapy
b. teach her how to manage her husband’s anger
c. find out if the woman is currently safe from abuse and, if necessary, rehearse an escape plan with her
d. explore patterns of abuse in her family of origin
A
- C– The key word in this question is “first.” The first concern in this case – for a systems therapist as well as any other therapist – is to ensure the client’s safety, and only choice C addresses this issue. If the client’s safety were not an issue, A would probably be the best answer, since systems therapists would focus on the whole system rather than its constituent parts. In other words, they would want to work with the couple rather than just one of the spouses. Choice D sounds like something an extended family systems (Bowenian) therapist would do. Although Bowen’s work is based on systems theory, so are many other schools of family therapy. Therefore, D is the third best answer – A, which applies more generally to systems theory, is better.
21
Q
- Immigrant children who complete bilingual education programs, as compared to counterparts who are submerged in “English-only” education, end up
a. more deficient in both the native language and in English.
b. more proficient in the native language but more deficient in English.
c. more deficient in the native language.
d. at least equally proficient in English.
A
- D– Research investigating outcomes of quality bilingual education programs shows that immigrant children in these programs learn English and subject matter as well as or better than immigrants in English-only programs.
22
Q
- Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except:
a. the olfactory system
b. the hippocampus
c. the prefrontal region
d. the striate cortex
A
- D– Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis. (See: Gould, E., and Gross, C.G. (2002). Neurogenesis in Adult Mammals: Some Progress and Problems. The Journal of Neuroscience. 22, 619-623.)
23
Q
- For children with Enuresis (Not Due to a General Medical Condition), the most likely co-diagnosis is:
a. Major Depression
b. Separation Anxiety Disorder
c. Sleepwalking or Sleep Terror Disorder
d. Specific or Social Phobia
A
- B– According to DSM-IV-TR, although the prevalence rates of some disorders are higher among children with Enuresis, most do not have a co-existing disorder. DSM lists Encopresis, Sleepwalking Disorder, and Sleep Terror Disorder as other disorders that are most likely to be present. (Note that Sleepwalking and Sleep Terror Disorders are the only disorders given that occur during sleep, which is also usually the case with Enuresis. Noticing this would have helped you pick the correct answer.)
24
Q
- Which of the following is most appropriate for referring to a group of research participants?
a. “borderlines”
b. “disabled persons”
c. “individuals confined to a wheelchair”
d. “people who have cerebral palsy”
A
- D– According to APA’s Publication Manual (2001), authors should avoid perpetuating demeaning attitudes in their writing. It is recommended that people be put before their disabilities and not labeled as their disabilities. Thus, “borderlines” (A) would more accurately and sensitively be referred to as “people diagnosed with borderline personality disorder.” Similarly “disabled persons” (B) are better described as “people with (or who have) a disability.” Thus, choice D is appropriate. The phrase, “individuals confined to a wheelchair” (C) does put the people first; however, it is overly negative and suggests continued helplessness, which should be avoided. Instead, the manual recommends using emotionally neutral expressions, for example, “individuals who use a wheelchair.”
25
Q
- To study attachment, a researcher has a mother of a one-year old stand on the deep side of the visual cliff, while the child is placed on the shallow side. The researcher finds that when a mother smiles, the child crosses to its mother, but, when the mother frowns, the child does not approach her and cries. This phenomenon is referred to as:
a. social distancing.
b. social referencing.
c. social facilitation/inhibition.
d. social comparison.
A
- B– Even if you had never heard of social referencing, you may have been able to pick the right answer by the process of elimination (i.e., hopefully, you know what social facilitation, social inhibition, and social comparison are since they are topics that could appear on the exam and are covered in the study materials; social distancing is a ficticious term). Social referencing is considered a sign of attachment between a child and its caregiver.
26
Q
- Erikson proposed that psychosocial development continues throughout the lifespan. Successful resolution of the conflict of the final stage of development results in:
a. formation of intimate relationships.
b. participation in activities that promote the welfare of future generations.
c. development of mature ego defenses.
d. development of a sense of meaning.
A
- D– The final stage in Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development occurs in late adulthood and involves a conflict between integrity and despair. Successful resolution occurs when the individual gains “wisdom” and finds meaning in life.
27
Q
- Dr. Que has recently started working with a family consisting of a mother, father, and five year old boy. The parents say the boy has become “impossible to manage” and they don’t know what to do to control him. Dr. Que believes he will get a better idea of the family’s dynamics if he is able to observe them at home. When he suggests this, the parents say that, because of their religious beliefs, they cannot allow this. Dr. Que should:
a. refer the family to a therapist from the same religious background.
b. impress upon the parents his need to observe them at home in order to best serve the interests of the child.
c. determine if there is an alternative and mutually agreeable location for the observation.
d. contact child protective services immediately.
A
- C– This type of situation is covered by ethical requirements related to cross-cultural counseling. (See, for example, APA’s Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services to Ethnic, Linguistic, and Culturally Diverse Populations.) There’s certainly not any information given that warrants a call to child protective services. Also, it’s not necessary to make a referral, and it wouldn’t be a good idea to manipulate the parents into doing something they don’t want to do.
28
Q
- The Drugs-R-Us company wants to compare the effectiveness of 3 new antidepressant medications. Patients with depression are randomly assigned to one of the three medications and depressive symptoms are measured at weeks 1, 6, and 12. Which type of research design would be most appropriate for this study?
a. ABAB
b. between subjects
c. within subjects
d. mixed
A
- D– A mixed research design has at least one between-subjects independent variable and at least one repeated measures variable (or within-subjects variable). Since this study is comparing the effects on three different groups of subjects (i.e., a between-subjects variable) combined with the use of a repeated measures (within-subjects) variable, it would be considered a mixed design. An ABAB design is a type of reversal design, in which a baseline measure of a behavior is obtained (the “A” phase), the behavior is again measured after a treatment is administered (the “B” phase), the treatment is removed or reversed and the behavior is measured again (the second “A”), and the treatment is then re-applied (the second “B”) and a final behavior measure is taken.
29
Q
- Adding more items to a test would most likely:
a. increase the test’s reliability
b. decrease the test’s validity
c. have no effect on the test’s reliability or validity
d. preclude the use of the Spearman-Brown prophecy formula
A
- A– Lengthening a test, that is, adding more test items, generally results in an increase in the test’s reliability. For example, a test consisting of only 3 questions would probably be more reliable if we added 10 more items. The Spearman-Brown formula (D) is specifically used to estimate the reliability of a test if it were lengthened or shortened.
30
Q
- Which of the following is the most valid predictor of post-divorce adjustment in children two years after the divorce?
a. whether children got to live with the parent they wanted
b. the degree to which parents fought before the divorce
c. whether or not parents are engaged in ongoing conflict after the divorce
d. how the children felt during the divorce process.
A
- C– Many researchers have noted that continued exposure of children to parental conflict – whether it be while their parents are married, during the divorce process, or after a divorce – is associated with a variety of adverse effects and is a very high risk factor for maladjustment.
31
Q
- During the first of structural family therapy’s three steps, which of the following techniques is most useful?
a. constructing a family map
b. relabeling and reframing
c. enactment
d. tracking and mimesis
A
- D– Structural family therapy entails three overlapping steps: joining, evaluating/diagnosing, and restructuring. Joining is the initial step in structural family therapy. Tracking (identifying and using the family’s values, life themes, etc.) and mimesis (adopting the family’s behavioral and affective style) are methods used to join the family system. Constructing a family map (a.) is a technique used for the structural diagnosis of the family. Relabeling and reframing (b.) are restructuring techniques. Enactment (c.) is used to facilitate diagnosis and restructuring of the family.
32
Q
- What is the most stressful thing about staying in a hospital for a child?
a. Fear of death
b. The hospital environment itself
c. Separation from their parents
d. The hospital food
A
- C– The most stressful thing about staying in a hospital for a child is separation from parents. Many hospitals are beginning to institute “sleeping rooms” for parents to spend the night in.
33
Q
- Release of the sex hormones by the gonads depends on signals from the
a. medulla
b. amygdala.
c. thalamus.
d. hypothalamus.
A
- D– Once again, the hypothalamus is a “good guess” (and the correct response). One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to control the gonads through its influence on the pituitary gland.
34
Q
- According to Berry’s acculturation model, marginalization is characterized by:
a. low involvement in the mainstream culture.
b. low involvement in both the mainstream culture and the minority culture.
c. low involvement in the minority culture.
d. low involvement in the mainstream culture and high involvement in the minority culture.
A
- B– Berry’s model of acculturation distinguishes between two dimensions – retention of the minority culture and maintenance of the majority culture. He proposes that these dimensions are independent, which means that a person can be high on one and low on the other; high on both; or low on both. Berry uses the term “marginalization” to describe the situation where a member of a minority group does not identify strongly with either culture.
35
Q
- A person with Somatization Disorder is most likely to also have which of the following diagnoses:
a. a Substance Abuse Disorder
b. a Personality Disorder
c. Schizophrenia
d. Panic Disorder
A
- B– Somatization Disorder has several frequently occurring comorbid conditions. Research indicates that 61% of Somatization Disorder patients have one or more co-occurring personality disorders. The next most frequent co-diagnoses are Major Depression (55%), Generalized Anxiety Disorder (34%), and panic disorder (26%). Substance-Related Disorders are also frequently associated with Somatization Disorder, however, not as frequently as the above diagnoses. [See: G.O. Glabbard, Treatment of Psychiatric Disorders, Volume 2 (2nd ed.), Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Press, 1995].
36
Q
- A number of books in the popular press have been written regarding the relationship between psychological factors and cancer. Which of the following statements best reflects the outcome of scientific studies of this issue?
a. Psychological factors are related both to the onset of cancer and the success of recovery from it.
b. Psychological factors are related to the onset of cancer but not to the success of recovery from it.
c. Psychological factors are not related to the onset of cancer but are related to the success of recovery from it.
d. Psychological factors are related to neither the onset of cancer nor the success of recovery from it.
A
- C– A number of theories regarding the relationship between psychological factors and the onset of cancer have been proposed. For instance, some authors have proposed that the “Type C” personality, typically described as a cooperative, unassertive patient who suppresses anger and complies with external authorities, is at a higher risk for cancer. However, most research shows that psychological factors and stressful events have a small or no effect on cancer incidence. By contrast, psychological factors do appear to be related to recovery from cancer. For instance, psychological treatments combining support and training in self-hypnosis are associated with higher survival rates and improved quality of life in cancer patients.
37
Q
- The Personality Disorder that has been found to have the best prognosis is:
a. Borderline Personality Disorder
b. Paranoid Personality Disorder
c. Dependent Personality Disorder
d. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder
A
- A– The majority of individuals diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) demonstrate significant reduction or remission of symptoms by middle age or sooner. Longitudinal studies involving those diagnosed in adolescence or early adulthood indicate that symptom resolution with impulsive symptoms are the quickest to resolve, followed by cognitive and interpersonal symptoms and finally affective symptoms are the most chronic and show the least improvement with increasing age. (See: Zanarini, M.C., Frankenburg, F.R., Hennen, J. and Silk, K.R. (2003). The longitudinal course of borderline pathology: 6 year prospective follow-up of the phenomenology of borderline personality disorder, American Journal of Psychiatry, 160, 274-283).
38
Q
- A 12-year-old child has been exhibiting several motor tics and a vocal tic many times each day for the past 6 months. The most likely diagnosis is:
a. Transient Tic Disorder
b. Tourette’s Disorder
c. Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder
d. Tic Disorder Not Otherwise Specified
A
- A– According to the DSM-IV-TR, the Tic Disorders can be differentiated from one another based on duration, variety of tics, and age at onset. Transient Tic Disorder includes motor and/or vocal tics lasting at least 4 weeks but for no longer than 12 consecutive months. Choices B and C could be eliminated because Tourette’s Disorder and Chronic Motor or Vocal Tic Disorder each have a duration of more than 12 months. Finally, Tic Disorder NOS (D) would be appropriate when symptoms last less than 4 weeks, for onset above 18 years, or if an individual presented with only one motor tic and only one vocal tic.
39
Q
- You are hired by a company to evaluate applicants and current employees for the purposes of hiring, promotion, training, and termination. You are told that the company has applicants and employees sign a waiver of confidentiality prior to seeing you. Which of the following best describes your best course of action in this situation?
a. You should tell the employer that the company’s policy violates your ethical obligations and refuse to do the evaluations
until the policy is changed.
b. You should conduct the evaluations but provide the employer only with information that is directly relevant to the purpose
of the evaluation.
c. You should discuss the impact of the waiver with applicants and employees and see if they want to continue with the
evaluation process.
d. You should provide the employer with any requested information since applicants and employees have already signed a
waiver of confidentiality.
A
- C– In any situation, a general waiver is not the best approach. Waivers should be specific in terms of the kind of information that will be revealed. The best answer to this question would probably be some combination of responses A and C (you’d want to discuss the issue with the employer). However, it’s not necessary to refuse to do the evaluations as long as you discuss the implications of the waiver with the applicants and employees, so response C is the best answer.
40
Q
- Continuing Education Credits (CE Credits) earned through an APA approved sponsor means that the program is:
a. sanctioned by APA.
b. endorsed by APA.
c. approved by APA.
d. the responsibility of the sponsor.
A
- D– An organization is approved by the APA to sponsor continuing education programs. The sponsor then becomes responsible for each program. The APA periodically asks for reports from the sponsor, but the specific program is not endorsed, sanctioned, or approved by the APA. Only the overall sponsorship is approved by the APA.
41
Q
- The levels-of-processing model of memory includes three levels–acoustic, phonetic, and semantic. All three of these levels have been compared to self-referencing, and the findings indicate
a. semantic is more easily recalled than the others.
b. self-referencing is more easily recalled than the others.
c. phonetic is most easily recalled.
d. semantic is the most difficult to recall.
A
- B– Rogers and associates (Self-reference and the encoding of personal information, Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 1977, 35, 677-688) found that self-referencing (Have I done this before? Where was I?) results in significantly more recall than semantic referencing. Previous to this finding, semantic processing (answer A) had been considered to be the most effective type of information processing.
42
Q
- Which of the following would most likely improve the quality of decision making in a group?
a. increasing the cohesiveness of the group
b. decreasing the cohesiveness of the group
c. increasing emphasis on group consensus
d. use of a directive leader
A
- B– Groupthink is an intensive tendency to seek agreement among members of the group which often results in poor decision-making. You should be familiar with the factors which contribute to groupthink, which include high cohesiveness, homogeneous backgrounds and values, and a strong, directive leader. Since increasing cohesiveness increases the pressure to conform, it is likely that decreasing the cohesiveness of a group should decrease the pressure to conform. In some circumstances, seeking consensus or unanimity can actually improve decision-making; however, it often becomes detrimental when the drive for consensus prevents full consideration of alternative decisions.
43
Q
- Which of the following antidepressants is associated with the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), enuresis, and decreasing the desire to binge and purge?
a. sertraline
b. imipramine
c. paroxetine
d. fluvoxamine
A
- B– Research has shown tricyclic antidepressants (TCA) to be effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, refractory pain syndromes, reducing binging and purging episodes in bulimia nervosa, and as alternatives to the stimulants in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. Furthermore, the TCA, imipramine, is the drug of choice in the treatment of nocturnal enuresis and for the treatment of cataleptic episodes associated with narcolepsy, along with the TCA clomipramine. Sertraline, paroxetine and fluvoxamine are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI). SSRIs are also effective in the treatment of anxiety disorders, reducing binging and purging episodes, and some types of chronic pain.
44
Q
- According to Piaget, which of the following underlies cognitive development?
a. biological maturation
b. biological maturation and environmental stimulation
c. social interactions
d. changes in the ability to process, store, and retrieve information
A
- B– Piaget proposed that cognitive development is the result of a combination of biological maturation and exposure to appropriate environmental stimuli. An implication of this assumption is that, even when a child is biologically ready for cognitive growth, it will not occur unless the child is also exposed to necessary environmental stimulation.
45
Q
- People with red-green color blindness usually:
a. inherit the condition from their mothers
b. inherit the condition from their fathers
c. develop the condition during adolescence
d. produce daughters who are always color blind
A
- A– Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. That is, it is carried on the X chromosome. Since males have one X chromosome, donated by the mother, and one Y chromosome, donated by the father, a male child who receives one color blind gene from the mother will be color blind. However, because it is a recessive trait, females (XX) would need to receive the color blind gene from both parents in order to manifest color blindness – which is highly unlikely. This explains why 7% of American males are color blind, but only 0.4% of females are affected by this condition.
46
Q
- The phenomenon of “theme interference” in an industrial/organizational setting is most analogous to which of the following phenomena in psychotherapy?
a. cognitive restructuring
b. transference
c. resistance
d. catharsis
A
- B– The term “theme interference” is associated with Gerald Caplan’s model of mental health consultation. According to Caplan, theme interference occurs when a worker displaces past or present personal problems onto a task situation at work. More precisely, a theme is a continuing cognitive representation of an unresolved problem or a defeat, and theme interference occurs when the person views a particular work situation in terms of a theme. As you can see, the phenomenon is analogous to transference in psychotherapy, as both involve displacement of past feelings or unresolved conflicts onto a present person or situation. In fact, Caplan refers to theme interference as a minor transference reaction of a special type.
47
Q
- Discriminant and convergent validity are classified as examples of:
a. construct validity.
b. content validity.
c. face validity.
d. concurrent validity.
A
- A– There are many ways to assess the validity of a test. If we correlate our test with another test that is supposed to measure the same thing, we’ll expect the two to have a high correlation; if they do, the tests will be said to have convergent validity. If our test has a low correlation with other tests measuring something our test is not supposed to measure, it will be said to have discriminant (or divergent) validity. Convergent and divergent validity are both types of construct validity.
48
Q
- The assumption that prejudice and discrimination are outgrowths of the drive to enhance one’s own self-esteem is most consistent with the perspective of which theory?
a. social identity theory
b. social comparison
c. self-perception theory
d. self-verification theory
A
- A– According to Tajfel (1982), people strive to maintain and enhance their self-esteem, and this is associated with two components: personal and social identity. Social identity theory states that social identity, the aspect of self-esteem based on group membership, is enhanced by believing one’s own group (the ingroup) is attractive and belittling the members of the other groups (the outgroups). Social comparison theory (b.) proposes people self-evaluate by comparing themselves with similar others when objective information is not available. Self-perception theory (c.) proposes when clear internal cues are absent, individuals infer feelings and beliefs by observed behavior or external cues. Self-verification theory (d.) proposes individuals need and seek confirmation of their self-concept, whether the confirmation is positive or negative.
49
Q
- As a management consultant for a corporation, a psychologist devises a way for employees working in groups to complete their work. The psychologist divides the employees into two teams. Each team has to complete a set of tasks, and all group members are free to work on any or all of the tasks. If all tasks are completed, each team member receives a bonus. If even one of the tasks is not completed, nobody receives a bonus. This is an example of which type of task?
a. additive
b. conjunctive
c. compensatory
d. disjunctive
A
- A– In the literature on the psychology of groups, a distinction between additive, conjunctive, disjunctive, and compensatory tasks is sometimes made. Additive tasks permit the addition of individual efforts so that the outcome is a combination of individual contributions. This is the type of task described by the question: The combined efforts of all group members will determine if the tasks are completed and team members receive a bonus. Let’s briefly go through the other type of tasks: On conjunctive tasks, everyone must achieve a given goal in order for the task to be complete. As a result, task performance depends on the performance of the least competent group member. On disjunctive tasks, the group must choose one of many alternative ways to do the task. Thus, performance on a task depends on the performance of the most competent group member, because if one person can complete the task, the task gets completed. Finally, on compensatory tasks, the average performance of all group members represents the group’s product.
50
Q
- The three dimensions of situational control identified by Fiedler include all of the following except:
a. leader-employee relations
b. position or legitimate power
c. role expectations
d. task structure
A
- C– Fiedler’s Contingency Model states leaders have a dominant leadership style that is resistant to change and distinguishes between two types of leaders – high LPC leaders (person-oriented, more focused on maintaining good interpersonal relationships) and low LPC leaders (task-oriented, more focused on successful task performance). Changes in the structure of the situation can improve the chances of success as the leader’s success is contingent on the situation, task to be completed, leader’s style or personality, and the maturity of the group. Fielder proposes task-oriented (low-LPC) leaders are most effective when the leader has either low or high situational control and person-oriented (high-LPC leaders) are most effective when situational control is moderate. According to Fielder, situational control is determined by: leader-member relations, task-structure, and leader position power.
51
Q
- You are a small-town psychologist in a rural area and a client comes in and states that she is depressed and is having headaches. She has babysat with your child several times over the last year. She would like you to give her biofeedback sessions. You should first:
a. Complete the biofeedback treatment and not ask her to babysit in the future.
b. Refer her to her family physician
c. Refer her to a psychologist in another town for therapy; it will be OK for you to complete the biofeedback sessions
d. Refer her to a biofeedback specialist in another town
A
- B– This question is more about an awareness of your limitations than it is about a dual relationship. The first step, whether you decide to take the case or not, should be to refer her to her family physician to rule out medical concerns.
52
Q
- The effectiveness of thermal biofeedback as a treatment for migraine headaches is:
a. less effective than relaxation therapy but more effective than electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback
b. equally as effective as relaxation therapy
c. more effective than relaxation therapy but less effective than electromyogram (EMG) biofeedback
d. more effective than relaxation therapy
A
- D– Biofeedback, a form of complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) that falls under the category of mind-body therapies, refers to a technique that can give people better control over such body function indicators as blood pressure, heart rate, temperature, muscle tension, and brain waves. The National Institutes of Health (NIH) found thermal biofeedback, which measures skin temperature, to be more effective in treating migraines than relaxation therapy. EMG biofeedback, which measures muscle tension, is used as a treatment for tension headaches and data indicates it is equally effective as relaxation therapy. (See: National Institute of Neurological Disorders and Stroke (NIDS) of the National Institutes of Health (NIH). (2001). 21st Century Prevention and Management of Migraine Headaches. [Monograph]. Clinical Courier, 19(11).)
53
Q
- Which of the following bases of social power, as defined by French and Raven, is a consultant most likely to rely on?
a. referent and legitimate
b. coercive and reward
c. referent and expert
d. legitimate and coercive
A
- C– This may be a difficult question for a number of reasons. First, it requires knowledge of two content areas: the function of a consultant, and the bases of social power, as defined by French and Raven. A consultant is an expert or specialist who is hired on an ad-hoc basis to solve a specific, work-related problem. French and Raven described five bases of social power – legitimate, expert, referent, coercive, and reward.
This brings us to the second reason why this question may be somewhat difficult. Consultants clearly rely on expert power, since they are hired as a specialists whose advice is followed because they are considered to be authorities on the matter at hand. It is not so clear that they have referent power, though it is possible, since consultants may serve as respected role models for their clients. However, since choice C is the only one which includes expert power, it must be right. It is also helpful to go through the other bases of social power and rule them out as applying to a consultant. Consultants do not have legitimate power because they do not have administrative authority; that is, the client is free to reject any of the consultant’s suggestions. Moreover, the consultant holds neither coercive nor reward power, since the consultant’s role is not to punish or reward the client.
54
Q
- Which of the following is least likely to cause secondary impotence?
a. medication use
b. alcohol use
c. diabetes mellitus
d. old age
A
- D–Secondary impotence is diagnosed when a man persistently or recurrently fails to attain or maintain an erection even though in the past he has successfully achieved an erection. The erectile reflex is usually unimpaired in older men; therefore, aging alone is not likely to be a cause of impotence. The other responses are common physical causes of secondary impotence
55
Q
- By the age of 6, which of the following are established?
a. gender identity and stability
b. gender identity and constancy
c. gender constancy and stability
d. gender constancy, identity and stability
A
- D– Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory of gender concept development, grounded in Piagetian theory, asserts that children gradually progress through three stages. Gender identity, usually gained by age three, is the ability to correctly label own gender and identify others as boys/men and girls/women. Gender stability - knowledge, usually gained by age four years, that reflects an understanding that one’s gender remains the same throughout life. Gender constancy: realization, around age 5, 6 or 7 years, that one’s gender stays the same even with alterations in appearance, behaviors, or desires.
56
Q
- The cognitive outcomes of malnutrition during the final months of prenatal development are severe because:
a. malnutrition causes degeneration of existing neurons.
b. malnutrition interferes with the development of new neurons and the connections between neurons.
c. malnutrition reduces the production of certain neurotransmitters.
d. malnutrition leads to the development of deformed, nonfunctional neurons.
A
- B– The brain is the last organ to develop, which means that the last few months of prenatal development are most critical. Malnutrition during the final months can lead to irreversible damage due to the fact that it interferes with the development of new neurons and dendrites, which connect the neurons.
57
Q
- Narcissistic, Borderline, and Histrionic Personality Disorders share in common which of the following characteristics?
a. irresponsibility and impulsivity
b. affective instability
c. recurrent suicidal threats
d. a grandiose sense of self
A
- B– The three Personality Disorders listed are all characterized by dramatic, emotional, and/or erratic behaviors. Affective instability is the characteristic shared by all three disorders. Impulsivity and recurrent suicide threats are characteristics of Borderline Personality Disorder only; and a grandiose sense of self describes Narcissistic Personality Disorder, but not the other two disorders (although both do involve disturbances in the sense of self).
58
Q
- Research utilizing functional brain imaging techniques has shown a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) and has linked it to abnormalities in the following brain structures:
a. parietal lobe, hypothalamus, and corpus callosum
b. parietal lobe, striatum, and amygdale
c. frontal lobe, thalamus, and amygdale
d. frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum
A
- D– Recent research has established a biological basis for Attention Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with abnormalities in the right frontal lobe, striatum, and cerebellum most consistently implicated in this disorder. Other areas of the brain, including certain regions of the parietal lobe, have been linked to ADHD to a lesser extent. Using the core symptoms of ADHD and functions of the major brain structures, you may have determined the frontal lobes (mediates higher-order functions), the striatum (part of the basal ganglia and composed of the caudate nucleus and the putamen) and cerebellum (involved in motor activity) are the areas linked to this disorder. (See: J. Giedd et al., Brain imaging of attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder, Annals of New York Academy of Sciences, 2001, 931, 33-49.)
59
Q
- African-American families use an authority structure that can be best characterized as:
a. matriarchal
b. patriarchal
c. egalitarian
d. too diverse to generalize
A
- C– Although African-American families were previously believed to most often have a matriarchal authority structure, more recent authors have concluded that they are typically egalitarian. That is, the husband and wife equally share authority in the family.
60
Q
- Feature integration theory predicts that the perception of an object as an entity rather than as a cluster of unrelated features depends on:
a. focused attention.
b. integrated attention.
c. selective attention.
d. divided attention.
A
- A– Feature integration theory is what it sounds like. It’s a theory about how an object’s features are integrated, and it proposes that focused visual attention is required for perception of an object to occur.
61
Q
- According to Maslow, there are five levels of human needs that are represented in a hierarchical order. The stage that follows physiological needs is:
a. order
b. safety
c. acceptance
d. self-actualization
A
- B– Maslow’s five basic needs, arranged in hierarchical order of importance, are physiological, safety, social, esteem and self-actualization.
62
Q
- Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with muscular contractions?
a. acetylcholine
b. GABA
c. norepinephrine
d. serotonin
A
- A– Acetylcholine transmits messages from peripheral nerves to muscles which causes the muscles to contract. GABA (B), the most abundant neurotransmitter in the CNS, has an inhibitory role, particularly in the limbic system which controls emotions. Low levels of GABA are also associated with anxiety. Deficits of GABA in the motor regions of the brain are associated with Huntington’s Chorea, characterized by dementia and involuntary jerky movements in the arms and legs. Thus, GABA (or rather, the absence of GABA) does play a role in muscular contractions. However, acetylcholine is more specifically associated with muscular contractions than GABA. Norepinephrine (C) helps regulate arousal, dreaming, and moods. And serotonin (D) is associated with personality, mood, and drive states.
63
Q
- Introducing a goal that requires cooperation between conflicting intergroups results in:
a. increased hostility, increased competition
b. increased hostility, reduced competition
c. reduced hostility, increased competition
d. reduced hostility, reduced competition
A
- D– The introduction of a superordinate goal, one that requires cooperation to accomplish, was found to be the most effective way of reducing or alleviating intergroup hostility and competition in Sherif et al.’s “Robber’s Cave” study.
64
Q
- The object relations approach focuses on the role of ________ in personality development and views it as being an innate drive.
a. sexuality
b. social interest
c. attachment
d. identity
A
- C– Object relations theory emphasizes the role of early attachments between the individual and its caregivers on the individual’s personality development. It also views attachment as an innate capacity that has survival value.
65
Q
- According to a recent meta-analysis on the “big five” traits and job satisfaction, which trait has the strongest relation with overall job satisfaction?
a. agreeableness
b. extraversion
c. conscientiousness
d. neuroticism
A
- D– The meta-analysis of 163 studies linking traits from the 5-factor model of personality to overall job satisfaction by Judge, Heller & Mound (2002) found neuroticism was the strongest, most consistent correlate of job satisfaction and also the Big-Five trait most often studied in relation to job satisfaction. Conscientiousness displayed the second strongest correlation followed by extraversion. The estimated true score correlations with job satisfaction include: Neuroticism (-.29), Conscientiousness (.26), Extraversion (.25), Agreeableness (.17), and (.02) for Openness to Experience. The findings support previous reviews that lower neuroticism and higher extraversion are associated with higher job satisfaction. The study also notes Conscientiousness, previously found to have positive effects in terms of job performance, has been overlooked in studies in terms of job satisfaction. (See: Judge, T.A., Heller, D., & Mount, M.K. (2002). Five-factor model of personality and job satisfaction. A meta-analysis. Journal of Applied Psychology. Vol. 87, No. 3, 530-541.)
66
Q
- A psychologist serves as the head of a social service agency. The psychologist likes the job because, in addition to allowing her to work with clients in a clinical setting, it provides her with the opportunity for raises and promotions. On the Strong Interest Inventory, the psychologist would likely receive high scores for which of the following personality types?
a. investigative and conventional
b. realistic and artistic
c. social and enterprising
d. investigative and enterprising
A
- C– This questions is about Holland’s six personality types – realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional. One’s results on the Strong Interest Inventory include a 3-letter personality type that indicates, in order, which three types best describe the individual. Individuals in the mental health professions typically obtain a 3-letter code of social, enterprising, and artistic (SEA); if you knew this, you knew enough to answer the question. If you didn’t, the question helped you out by telling you that the psychologist likes to work hands-on with clients (which would be characteristic of the social type) and that she is interested in promotions and pay raises (which would be characteristic of the enterprising type).
67
Q
- Relying on the work of Heinz Kohut, a therapist would stress the use of which of the following when working with a narcissistic client?
a. coaching
b. empathy
c. congruence
d. interpretation of drives
A
- B– According to Kohut, a consistent lack of parental empathy is what leads to narcissism in a child in the first place. Therefore, to help the narcissistic client develop a more healthy, cohesive sense of self, the therapist must provide empathy.
68
Q
- You have conducted a study assessing the relationship between salary and job performance, and you find a significant correlation between these two variables. Your assistant tells you that the data fail to take into account a $25.00 cost of living raise which every employee received. You should:
a. decide that the raise invalidated the research.
b. reanalyze the data after the raises have been added to the current salary.
c. not worry about small details; the actual amount is too small to make a significant difference.
d. assume the correlation will not be affected.
A
- D– The basic point being tested here is that if you add a constant to each score – in either or both data sets – the relationship between the two variables won’t be affected. In other words, adding a constant to every score does not affect the correlation coefficient. The same is true of multiplying or dividing all scores by a constant, or subtracting a constant from every score.
69
Q
- A kappa coefficient of .93 would indicate that the two tests
a. measure what they are supposed to.
b. have a high degree of agreement between their raters.
c. aren’t especially reliable.
d. present test items with a high level of difficulty.
A
- B– The kappa coefficient is used to evaluate inter-rater reliability. A coefficient in the lower .90s indicates high reliability. Answer A is a layman’s definition of the general concept of validity.
70
Q
- According to Marlatt’s theory of substance dependence:
a. a relapse of dependence is likely if the person makes non-dispositional attributions for use following a “slip” (use of a drug
after a period of abstinence).
b. substance use is “over-learned” in that it is maintained by itself as well as by multiple cognitive mediators and external
reinforcers.
c. addictions can be easily extinguished.
d. excessive substance use is related to an unresolved need for power.
A
and guilt through a variety of cues and reinforcers, such as advertisements depicting people feeling cheerful when drinking and social occasions in which a carefree attitude is reinforced. In other words, there are a variety of cues and mediators that serve to encourage and reinforce use. Contrary to the person’s expectations, however, excessive substance use only exacerbates problems, such as interpersonal or work-related problems. This leads to more self-criticism and guilt, which the person again attempts to relieve by using. In other words, substance use is self-reinforcing – it is the cause of and the expected solution to the same problems. And it is “over-learned” in that, due to the multiplicity of its antecedents, it becomes a strongly ingrained behavior.
You might have gone for choice A, since you probably knew that Marlatt is associated with a theory of relapse prevention that has to do with attributions regarding the reasons for “slips.” However, according to Marlatt, a slip is likely to lead to a full-blown relapse when the person makes dispositional attributions for it, such as when the person blames him or herself. Relapse prevention involves teaching the person to make non-dispositional attributions, such as blaming the situation or the nature of the disease. So this question illustrates the importance of reading carefully and processing what you read, rather than relying on the recognition of “buzzwords.”
71
Q
- Kohler’s classic studies of the role of cognition in learning examined the behaviors of:
a. apes
b. dolphins
c. ducklings
d. rats
A
- A– Wolfgang Kohler is best known for his research with chimpanzees, which is a type of ape. (Apes are considered more like humans than monkeys or lower primates.) In his classic experiments Kohler placed food outside the reach of the chimps to assess their problem solving abilities. In one study, food was placed outside the chimp’s cage, and the chimp was given two sticks, neither of which was long enough by itself to reach the food. As the chimp was sitting with the two sticks in his hand, he suddenly seemed to have an “a-ha!” experience: He quickly fit the two sticks together and used the new, elongated stick to reach the food. Kohler called this sudden novel solution “insight learning,” which he attributed to a sudden cognitive restructuring of the environment. If you chose ducklings (A) you were probably thinking of Conrad Lorenz’ research on instinctual behaviors.
72
Q
- A therapist who assigns a couple the task of looking for things in their relationship that they would like to continue is most likely using which of the following therapeutic approaches?
a. behavioral
b. solution-focused
c. structural
d. strategic
A
- B– Solution-focused therapy uses a variety of techniques including formula tasks that help clients become aware of solutions they already have in place. For example, using the formula first session task the therapist asks the clients to observe, and describe in the next session, what happens in their lives that they would like to continue to have happen.
73
Q
- Cluster analysis would most likely be used to
a. construct a “taxonomy” of criminal personality types.
b. obtain descriptive information about a particular case.
c. test the hypothesis that an independent variable has an effect on a dependent variable.
d. test statistical hypotheses when the assumption of independence of observations is violated.
A
- A– The purpose of cluster analysis is to place objects into categories. More technically, the technique is designed to help one develop a taxonomy, or classification system of variables. The results of a cluster analysis indicate which variables cluster together into categories. The technique is sometimes used to divide a population of individuals into subtypes.
74
Q
- Adapting attitudes and behaviors to fit the expectations of what girls or boys are “supposed to do” within a sociocultural environment is reflective of which gender-role identity development theory?
a. Kagan’s social learning theory
b. Bem’s gender schema theory
c. Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory
d. Freud’s psychodynamic theory
A
- B– Bem’s gender schema theory states children develop schema about what is expected of them as girls or boys and then apply those schemas to their own behavior. Because it emphasizes both social, notably sociocultural factors, and cognitive processes, it is classified as a social-cognitive approach. Kagan’s social learning theory (a.) focuses on social factors role on the development of gender-role identity, yet focuses primarily on the impact of modeling and reinforcement. Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory (c.) emphasizes the cognitive processes that underlie gender-role identity development. Resolution of the psychosexual crisis of the phallic stage of development is the emphasis of Freud’s theory of gender-role identity (d.).
75
Q
- To save time, a personnel manager interviews 10 job applicants and then picks the best one rather than interviewing all 30 people who applied for the job. This type of decision-making is predicted by the:
a. administrative model.
b. rational-economic model.
c. transactional model.
d. nonrational model.
A
- A– This is the way that people usually end up making decisions because they don’t have the time or resources to consider all possible alternatives. According to the administrative decision-making model, this type of decision-making is referred to as “satisficing.” (According to the rational-economic model, decision-making involves considering all possible alternatives.)
76
Q
- According to Carol Gilligan, healthy identity development in early adolescence for females is
a. traceable to a satisfactory infant-mother attachment.
b. related to the girl’s ability to stay connected to self and others.
c. related to the girl’s ability to develop a “gendered-less” identity.
d. closely related to the girl’s acceptance by peers.
A
- B– Gilligan’s research found that girls remain self-confident until about age 11 or 12, when they begin to become disconnected from themselves and others due to denial of their feelings.
77
Q
- Depressogenic schemata such as arbitrary inference and selective abstraction are associated with:
a. Lewinsohn
b. Beck
c. Seligman
d. Ellis
A
- B– Depressogenic schemata, or cognitive distortions, such as overgeneralization, personalization, magnification, arbitrary inference, and selective abstraction are reflected statements in Beck’s “depressive cognitive triad.” Lewinsohn (response “A”) is associated with the findings that depressed individuals’ self-evaluations reflect an unbiased perception of reality and more accurately correspond with observer evaluations, Seligman (response “C”) is associated with the theory of learned helplessness, and Ellis (response “D”) with Reactive Emotive Therapy (RET).
78
Q
- When applied to substance dependence, the specifier “early full remission” means that the client has been without any symptoms of substance abuse or dependence:
a. for at least six months but less than one year
b. for at least three months but less than one year
c. for at least one month but less than one year
d. for at least one year
A
- C– Early full remission, early partial remission, sustained full remission, or sustained partial remission are specifiers used to describe a substance dependence diagnosis. “Early” means that there is more than one month but less than 12 months of remission. “Sustained” means that there is 12 months or longer of remission (response “D”). “Full” means that the person no longer meets any of the criteria for substance dependence or abuse, and “partial” means that one or more of the criteria for substance dependence are still met but the full criteria are no longer met.
79
Q
- Research about job experience with the four day workweek suggests that it is correlated with:
a. Satisfaction and productivity
b. Absenteeism and satisfaction
c. Productivity only
d. Satisfaction, but not absenteeism or productivity
A
- B– Research on the effects of the CWW is mixed. Overall however, productivity is usually unaffected, absenteeism usually declines, and job satisfaction tends to increase, especially among younger and lower-level employees.
80
Q
- Excessive variability in a behavior over time can make it difficult to obtain accurate information about the effects of an intervention on that behavior. Such variability poses the biggest threat for which of the following research designs?
a. single-subject
b. factorial
c. split-plot
d. Solomon four-group
A
- A– In a single-subject research design, the target behavior is measured at regular intervals throughout the baseline and treatment phases. If the behavior changes often in strength, intensity, or frequency, it would be difficult to obtain a clear baseline reading or to determine if the intervention is having the desired effect.
