Exam 3 Flashcards
1
Q
- The occipital lobe is to the temporal lobe as
a. vision is to hearing.
b. receptive language is to expressive language.
c. vision is o touch.
d. hearing is to smell.
A
- A– The visual cortex, which is responsible for visual perception, recognition, and memory, is located in the occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex. The auditory cortex, which is involved in the mediation of auditory sensation and perception, is located in the temporal lobe.
2
Q
- The effects of Fetal Alcohol Syndrome
a. are irreversible and long-term.
b. remit within the first six months in about 25% of cases.
c. are reversible if proper nutrition is provided to the child.
d. remit by the age of six except for lingering learning difficulties.
A
- A– The term Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS) refers to a set of severe and complex deficits in children produced by prolonged and heavy maternal alcohol use during pregnancy. Symptoms vary depending on the amount of alcohol consumed; typical features included growth retardation, microcephaly, irritability, and a variety of physical illnesses. In most cases, the symptoms are irreversible.
3
Q
- Leader-Member Exchange Theory (LMX) emphasizes:
a. the relationships a leader has with members can be divided into two groups referred to as the “in-group” and the “out-
group. ”
b. adhering to formal organizational expectations yields increased access and opportunity
c. principles of fairness in members achieving a quality relationship with a leader
d. leaders and members use exchanges to achieve mutually beneficial outcomes
A
- A– Leader member exchange theory (LMX) emphasizes that the nature of the relationship between a leader and member is the determining factor as to whether a member belongs to the “in-group” or the “out-group” and that not all members of the organization achieve the same quality relationship. Improved organizational effectiveness and achieving leader/employee needs satisfaction is the general objective. LMX theory suggests a developing leader-member relationship that moves through three phases: stranger, acquaintance, and partner. The relationship between the leader and members of the “out-group” is marked by a lower quality with both parties only completing their formal role obligations. Whereas, the relationship with the “in-group” members moves from low quality, one way, self-oriented and scripted to high quality, reciprocal, group oriented and negotiated exchanges. Given their status with the leader, in-group members have more decision-making influence, access to resources and responsibility than those in the out-group. The leader, in exchange for the additional effort of these members, provides more support, trust and initiative beyond the obligations of the job. Research indicates LMX theory is positively related to “higher job satisfaction, stronger organizational commitment, and better subordinate performance” (Yukl, 1998). LMX theory has been criticized as being discriminatory (i.e., increased opportunity for one group and formal expectations for another) and counter to principles of fairness among subordinates. The theory does not propose inequitable treatment of members rather it explains how relationships with various members can develop. LMX research suggests that leaders become cognizant of their attitudes toward all members and create methods for all employees to freely enter the in-group. (See: Northouse, P.G. (2001). Leadership Theory and Practice, second edition. Thousand Oaks, CA: Sage Publications, Inc. and Yukl, G. (1998). Leadership in organizations (4th ed.) Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.)
4
Q
- In contrast to feminist therapists, non-sexist therapists:
a. emphasize the importance of therapist self-disclosure
b. focus more on individual change than social change
c. de-emphasize the effects of gender on personality development
d. stress the egalitarian nature of the therapist-client relationship
A
- B– Note that this question is asking how non-sexist therapy differs from feminist therapy. A key distinction is that non-sexist therapy is more concerned with personal responsibility and personal change, while feminist therapy places equal or greater emphasis on the sociopolitical contributions to pathology and the need for social change.
5
Q
- A primary determinant of whether an individual would be more appropriately diagnosed with Borderline Intellectual Functioning (BIF) instead of Mental Retardation is:
a. IQ of 71 to 75 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning
b. IQ of 71 to 75 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning
c. IQ of 71 to 84 with significant deficits in adaptive functioning
d. IQ of 71 to 84 without significant deficits in adaptive functioning
A
- B– Included in “Other Conditions that may be a Focus of Clinical Attention,” a DSM-IV-TR diagnosis of Borderline Intellectual Functioning is defined as “an IQ in the 71-84 range.” Given the somewhat vague definition, BIF may be difficult to distinguish from Mental Retardation. To determine the differential diagnosis, the DSM states that a diagnosis of Mental Retardation may be appropriate when IQ is between 71 and 75 and there are significant deficits in adaptive functioning. Therefore, level of adaptive functioning for people with IQs between 71 and 75 is a primary determinant of whether the appropriate diagnosis is BIF or Mental Retardation.
6
Q
- Significant evidence of retrograde and anterograde amnesia, restlessness, and fluent aphasia are most characteristic of which stage in Alzheimer’s Dementia?
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fourth
A
- B– Alzheimer’s Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit), resulting in retrograde and anterograde amnesia. During this intermediate stage, patients often exhibit restlessness, flat or labile mood, fluent aphasia, and begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage – Stage 3 – which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3, they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.
7
Q
- If a student scored between 1 and 2 standard deviations above the mean in a normal distribution of scores, you could conclude that the student’s
a. T-score is greater than 70
b. z-score is greater than 2
c. percentile rank is between 68 and 95
d. percentile rank is between 84 and 98
A
- D– If a score falls between 1 and 2 standard deviations in a normal distribution we can readily conclude that it’s T score is between 60 and 70 and it’s z-score is between 1 and 2 (since z-scores are stated in standard deviation units). We can, therefore, eliminate choices “A” and “B.” To determine percentile ranks you can do a simple calculation if you know the areas under a normal curve. Remember that 50% of all scores in a normal distribution fall below the mean and 50% fall above the mean. And 68% of scores fall within +/- 1 SD of the mean. If you divide 68% by 2, you get 34% (the percentage of scores that fall between 0 and +1 SD). If you then add that 34% to the 50% that fall below the mean, you get a percentile rank of 84. Thus, the 84 percentile score is equivalent to 1 SD above the mean. The same calculation is used for determining the percentile rank at 2 standard deviations. Since 95% of all scores fall within +/- 2 SD, we divide 95% by 2 which equals 47.5 and add that to the 50% which falls below the mean, which totals 97.5 (rounded off = 98). Thus, the percentile rank is between 84 and 98.
8
Q
- Based on his animal learning and cognition research, Wolfgang Kohler concluded that learning is:
a. insightful
b. the result of reinforcement and punishment
c. the result of trial-and-error
d. biologically-based
A
- A– A co-founder of Gestalt psychology, which focuses on perception, Kohler’s research revealed that animals, like humans, appear to experience insight or an “aha” experience while solving problems.
9
Q
- Your client has moved out of state. She has called and left you a voice mail message requesting that you send her records to a new therapist. She leaves her new therapist’s number and address but not her own. You have a current written release from her on file. You note that she has one outstanding balance of $200. You should
a. contact the therapist and try to get the client’s number.
b. send all the records.
c. send a summary along with an invoice.
d. send the summary along with an invoice indicating the amount still owed.
A
- A– This would be your best choice. It never hurts to take the most conservative approach, which in this case would be to try and contact your client and discuss the situation with her. It will be helpful to know the purpose of the request. Your client has a right to a copy of her records and a right to have them sent to where she chooses, but your best course of action would be to discuss the situation with her. You would not send her bill to another therapist.
10
Q
- A young child is brought in by his parents because he is having difficulty sleeping through the night. He wakes up frequently, crying that “the big monster” is chasing him. The preliminary diagnosis is:
a. primary insomnia
b. sleep terror disorder
c. nightmare disorder
d. sleepwalking disorder
A
- C– Nightmare disorder is marked by repeated awakenings accompanied by detailed recollection of frightening dreams. According to DSM-IV-TR, the dream content commonly focuses on imminent physical danger to the person such as pursuit, attack, or injury. Sleep terror disorder (response “B”) involves episodes of abrupt awakening, usually with a panicky scream; however, a dream is not recalled.
11
Q
- According to family therapists:
a. when one family member improves, others will improve also.
b. no member of a family will improve unless all members improve.
c. if the identified patient improves, the family system will improve.
d. if the family system changes, the identified patient will improve.
A
- D– You needed to approach this question from the point of view of a system. A system means that everything functions together. Knowing just that little piece, you probably could have gotten to the correct answer: once the system changes, the individuals will change. The work is at the systems level, not at the individual level. The alternative stating that “no member will improve unless all members improve” comes close to this idea, but it’s not exactly the point of system theory. And, besides, you don’t have to have all members improving before any one member improves. According to systems theory, individual symptoms can remit, however, without systemic change, other problems (either in that individual or in another family member) will arise.
12
Q
- Hypnosis would least likely be used in the treatment of:
a. Substance Abuse.
b. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder.
c. Specific Phobia.
d. chronic pain.
A
- B– Hypnosis is contraindicated in individuals who have difficulty giving up control, such as obsessive-compulsive patients, or those who have difficulty with basic trust, such as paranoid patients. By contrast, hypnosis is often employed in the treatment of the other disorders. In the treatment of Substance Abuse, varying degrees of success have been reported; however, it continues to be used. It is also commonly used to help induce relaxation and/or gain access to painful memories in treating individuals with Anxiety Disorders; moreover, according to some, it is particularly effective in treating individuals with Specific Phobia because they are highly hypnotizable. Finally, hypnosis is also commonly used in the treatment of medical conditions that have a psychological component such as asthma, chronic pain, obesity, etc.
13
Q
- Failure to recognize one’s functional deficits is referred to as:
a. agnosia
b. anosognosia
c. apraxia
d. receptive aphasia
A
- B– Failure to recognize one’s functional deficits is referred to as anosognosia. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe. Agnosia (A) is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia (C) is a loss in ability to perform motor acts. And receptive aphasia (D), also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, is the loss of the ability to comprehend language, which also results in the production of inappropriate language.
14
Q
- A psychologist who drinks five cups of coffee before each therapy session in order to be alert has decided that she will “go cold turkey” at the beginning of the next month. Prochaska and DiClemente (1992) would say that she is in the following stage of change.
a. contemplation
b. preparation
c. action
d. maintenance
A
- B– This is one of those rare theories where the name of the stages actually sounds like what they signify. Prochaska and DiClemente listed five stages in the change process. The first stage is precontemplation when the person has little insight that there is a need for change. The second stage (answer A) is contemplation; the person is aware of and considering the need for change, but has not committed to it. The third stage is preparation (answer B) which is an indication of the person’s clear intent to take action in the future. Taking that action is the fourth stage (answer C). Maintenance (answer D) is when our psychologist consolidates the change and takes steps to prevent the relapse (Stages of change in the modification of problem behaviors, in M.Hersen et al,. eds. Progress in Behavior Modification, Vol. 28, Sycamore, IL, 1992).
15
Q
- Overcorrection typically involves:
a. restitution, guided movement, and positive practice.
b. restitution, positive practice, and negative reinforcement.
c. positive practice, cognitive reattribution, and community reintegration.
d. restitution, negative reinforcement, and cognitive reattribution.
A
- A– Overcorrection is a behavioral technique designed to eliminate undesirable behaviors and promote alternative ones. In overcorrection, the person is required first to correct the consequences of a negative behavior (e.g., clean up the shards of a vase he broke); this is called restitution. Then, the person must repeatedly practice alternative behaviors; this is referred to as positive practice. In many cases, the person is physically guided through the restitution and/or positive practice phases.
16
Q
- From the perspective of humanistic schools of psychology, psychopathology would be seen as being due to:
a. man’s irrational nature, which interferes with a disciplined course of behaviors to enhance personal growth.
b. defenses that interfere with one’s own natural tendency toward personal growth.
c. biological factors that inhibit personal growth.
d. a lack of insight into one’s past, which interferes with the tendency toward personal growth in the present.
A
- B– The humanistic school of psychotherapy, which is exemplified by approaches to therapy such as person-centered therapy, Gestalt therapy, and transactional analysis, emphasizes human capacities and potentialities rather than deficiencies. From the humanistic perspective, we have a natural tendency toward self-actualization or personal growth. Neurosis or pathology occurs due to defensive distortions (e.g., blocks to awareness in Gestalt therapy, or conditions of worth in person-centered therapy) that prevent this natural tendency from operating.
17
Q
- In a meta-analysis of the relationship between self-efficacy beliefs and achievement outcomes, Stajkovic and Luthans (1998) found self-efficacy was positively and strongly related to work-related performance and:
a. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity
b. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by locus of performance
c. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is moderated by task complexity and locus of
performance
d. the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance is not influenced by task complexity or locus of
performance
A
- C– The results of Stajkovic and Luthans’ meta-analysis found self-efficacy positively related to work-related performance and that the relationship is moderated by task complexity and situational factors present in work environments. The two moderators appear to weaken the relationship between self-efficacy and work-related performance, with the relationship weakest for the higher levels of task complexity and field settings. Situational factors and organizational practices identified as influences on the relationship between self-efficacy and performance include: accuracy of task descriptions, definitions and circumstances of the tasks; instruction on necessary technical means and how to use them for successful task performance; physical distractions in the work environment; training programs that enhance employees self-efficacy beliefs of what they can do with the skills they already possess; developing effective behavioral and cognitive coping strategies, becoming more task-diagnostic, conceptualizing ability as an incremental skill; timing of program implementation; clarity and objectivity of performance standards; and personal consequences contingent on performance. (See: Stajkovic, A. D., & Luthans, F. (1998). Self-efficacy and work-related performances: A meta-analysis. Psychological Bulletin, 124, 240-261.)
18
Q
- You pour water from a short, fat glass into a tall, thin glass. You ask a child if there is more water in the thin glass than there was in the fat glass. The child says, “No. The amount of water has not changed.” The child has attained at least the _____________ stage of cognitive development.
a. sensorimotor
b. preoperational
c. formal operational
d. concrete operational
A
- D– The child is displaying the ability to conserve, or understand that the fundamental properties of objects do not necessarily change just because their appearance changes. Conservation develops systematically during the concrete operational stage of cognitive development (ages 7-11).
19
Q
- If a psychologist begins treatment with a client knowing that there is a high probability that the records will be subpoenaed, the psychologist should:
a. not maintain any records in order to protect the client’s best interests
b. maintain adequate records
c. maintain only information about the client which will not be damaging if disclosed
d. maintain records, but only include the minimal requirements in adherence with the law
A
- B– According to APA’s Record Keeping Guidelines (1993, 48(9), 984-986) records should minimally include: identifying data, dates and types of service, fees, any release of information obtained, any assessment, plan for intervention, consultation, summary reports, and/or testing reports. It would, therefore, be unethical (and possibly illegal), not to maintain any records (A). Although records should be written with an awareness of the risk of the client or others gaining access to them, it would likely be incomplete and, therefore, unethical to include only information that will not be damaging (C). Finally, patient records should meet the minimal requirements of federal, state, and local laws; however, Choice D indicates that the psychologist should only meet those minimum requirements. There may be jurisdictions in which the Ethics Code or guidelines have a higher standard than the law; in which case, the psychologist should adhere to the higher standard. Thus, of the options offered, Choice B is the best choice.
20
Q
- According to Brady, the best treatment for reducing a phobic anxiety reaction is one that entails:
a. actual in-vivo exposure to the anxiety-producing stimulus.
b. systematic desensitization and imagined exposure to the stimulus.
c. hierarchical implosion therapy.
d. graded participant modeling.
A
- A– Research has supported the general principle that the more realistic the treatment situation, the better the result with phobias and fears.
21
Q
- If someone presents with complaints and symptoms including anxiety, irritability, and hypomania, and the diagnosed disorder is not exclusively psychogenic, the most likely non-psychiatric cause would be
a. Addison’s Disease.
b. hyperthyroidism.
c. Sleep Apnea.
d. Alcohol Amnestic Disorder.
A
- B– Hyperthyroidism, or over secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland, is a possible physiological cause of symptoms that resemble generalized anxiety or hypomania.
22
Q
- The statement “I’m afraid because I run” would be supported by the theory of
a. Cannon and Bard
b. James and Lange
c. Yerkes and Dodson
d. Miller and Dollard
A
- B– Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard (A) proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson (C) are known for identifying the inverted “U” relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard (D) are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression.
23
Q
- The main difference between these types of resampling tests is the way the resamples are computed. Which of the following is computed with replacements?
a. jackknife
b. bootstrapping
c. permutation test
d. cross-validation
A
- B– Resampling procedures compute a test statistic for each sample or rearrangement with the resulting set constituting the sampling distribution (often called a reference distribution) of that statistic. The sampling (reference) distribution can be used to draw inferences about the model underlying the data. The issue of replacement is one distinction between the provided approaches. Bootstrapping takes the combined samples as representative of the population from which the data came, drawing many samples with replacement, from some pseudo-population. Bootstrapping is primarily focused on estimating population parameters, and it attempts to draw inferences about the population(s) from which the data came. Jackknife (a.) uses less information and fewer samples than bootstrapping. Jackknife subsampling generates different subsets of the original sample without replacement. Permutation test (c.) or randomization procedures begin with the original data then systematically or randomly reorder (shuffle) the data, and then calculating the appropriate test statistic on each reordering. Shuffling data amounts to sampling without replacement. Randomization procedures focus on the underlying mechanism that led to the data being distributed between groups in the way that they are. The cross-validation (d.) uses a part of the available observation to fit the model, and another part to test in the computation of predication error. The objective of cross-validation is to verify replicability of results.
24
Q
- A 10-year old child who has an IQ of 90 is having difficulty doing her homework because she doesn’t make use of effective learning strategies. This child would benefit from training in
a. adaptive skills.
b. metacognitive skills.
c. mindfulness.
d. elaborative rehearsal.
A
- B– Metacognition is the ability to monitor one’s own cognitive processes while thinking, learning, and remembering. It allows us to identify and use appropriate learning strategies, and the research has shown that learners with below-average intelligence can benefit from training in metacognitive skills. (Note that “mindfulness” – response C - is used in the educational psychology literature to refer to effort.)
25
Q
- Which of the following best describes the distinction between shaping and chaining?
a. shaping involves reinforcement for successive approximations of a single behavior; chaining involves providing a chain of
reinforcement for one behavior
b. shaping involves providing successive approximations of a reinforcer for a given behavior over a period of time; chaining
involves reinforcing multiple behaviors with the same reinforcers
c. shaping involves reinforcing component parts of one simple behavior; chaining involves many simple behaviors that are
linked to form a more complex behavior
d. there is no distinction between these two terms; they are essentially synonymous
A
- C– Choice C best describes the distinction between shaping and chaining. Shaping involves reinforcing successive approximations of a single behavior as the person approaches that behavior. For instance, an autistic individual learning to speak might be reinforced first for moving his mouth, then for uttering nonsense sounds, and then for saying a particular word. The successive approximations being reinforced are all components of one behavior. Chaining, on the other hand, involves linking a group of simple behaviors to form a more complex response chain. For instance, a child learning to put on his shirt might first learn to open the drawer, then put his shirt on over his head, and then button the shirt. Each of these behaviors is a separate behavior, but can be linked as a set to constitute the more complex behavior of putting on the shirt.
26
Q
- The second stage of Alzheimer’s Dementia is characterized by:
a. loss of implicit memory
b. loss of short-term memory
c. inability to perform complex tasks
d. inability to recognize family or friends
A
- C– Alzheimer’s Disease is often categorized into 3 stages. In Stage 1, which lasts 2-4 years, short-term memory loss begins. Patients in this stage frequently complain about forgetting where they placed things. In Stage 2, which lasts 2-10 years, there is further memory impairment (mostly explicit rather than implicit) and they begin having difficulty performing complex tasks, such as balancing a checkbook or going grocery shopping. They may get lost in familiar places and become apathetic. In the final stage – Stage 3 – which lasts 1-3 years, there is serious impairment in most areas. During Stage 3 they may lose the ability to speak and become unable to recognize family, friends, or even themselves. They lose all capacity to care for themselves and have difficulty walking, are incontinent, and are ultimately bedridden and often die of an opportunistic respiratory infection.
27
Q
- Scores on the WAIS-III are:
a. ipsative scores
b. percentile ranks
c. ratio I.Q. scores
d. standard scores
A
- D– Scores on the Wechsler I.Q. tests are reported as standard scores. A standard score is a transformed score that reports an examinee’s test performance in terms of the mean and standard deviation of the score distribution. The mean on the WAIS-III is 100 and the standard deviation is 15. Ipsative scores (A) report an examinee’s scores using the examinee him or herself as a frame of reference. Thus, ipsative scores indicate an examinee’s relative strengths and weaknesses in each domain measured. By contrast, normative measures provide a measure of the absolute strength of each domain measured, relative to the normative group. Percentile ranks (B) provide the percentage of cases in a group that fall below a given score. A “ratio I.Q.” (C) is a score derived by dividing mental age by chronological age and multiplying the result by 100. A ratio I.Q. was used in the early version of the Stanford-Binet. However, because the scores could not be compared across ages, it was replaced by standardized scores.
28
Q
- All of the following statements are true of the technique of stress inoculation training, except:
a. its mechanism of action is analogous to that of medical inoculation.
b. it consists of three distinct phases.
c. it is based on the notion that immediate imaginal exposure to a fearful stimulus at its maximal intensity results in rapid
extinction of the fear.
d. it relies heavily on the technique of self-instruction.
A
- C– Meichenbaum’s stress inoculation training is based on the medical inoculation model: the idea is to give the person the opportunity to deal with a low “dose” of anxiety-provoking stimuli, in order to help the person build coping skills (which are analogous to immunity). Contrary to choice C, the technique consists of three steps (education, rehearsal, and real-life application) in which the person’s exposure to stressful stimuli proceeds from least-anxiety to most anxiety-provoking. As part of the training, clients are taught to use appropriate self-statements (i.e., self-instruction) to guide them through the coping process.
29
Q
- From the perspective of Beck’s cognitive therapy, suicidal individuals are characterized by a high degree of hopelessness coupled with:
a. maladaptive interpretations.
b. poor problem-solving skills.
c. the “cognitive triad.”
d. impulsivity.
A
- B– This is a difficult question if you are not familiar with Beck’s work on suicide. Maladaptive interpretations and beliefs are, of course, an important focus in Cognitive Therapy regardless of the client’s problem. However, since this question is asking specifically about suicide, you’d want to choose the response that fits that problem. According to Beck, suicide risk is heightened by a combination of hopelessness and poor problem-solving skills.
30
Q
- The WAIS-III subtest which is least affected by normal aging processes is
a. comprehension.
b. similarities.
c. arithmetic.
d. vocabulary.
A
- D– This is a variation on the question about the “classic aging pattern” on IQ. The accepted finding is that as we get older, certain cognitive functions begin to fail, particularly those which rely on the neurochemical substructure of the nervous system. Thus our speed is not as quick, our motor skills show deficits, etc. But cognitive abilities relying on crystallized processes, such as long-term memory, show little change. Hence, of the alternatives listed here, vocabulary skills would show the least age-related decline. We tend to retain our capacity for language throughout the lifespan.
31
Q
- A job applicant tells his friend that he’s nervous because of his upcoming job interview. When the applicant sees other nervous-looking job applicants in the waiting room before his interview, he believes that they are generally nervous people. This is an example of:
a. self-serving bias
b. actor-observer effect
c. social comparison effect
d. projective identification
A
- B– The actor-observer effect is the tendency to overestimate situational factors and underestimate dispositional factors regarding one’s own behaviors and to underestimate situational factors and overestimate dispositional factors in others. Self-serving bias (A) is the tendency to take credit for our successes and to blame situational factors for our failures. Choice C is not a type of attribution bias. Projective identification (D) is a defense mechanism in which one or more parts of the self are falsely attributed to another, which are then unconsciously accepted by the recipient, and the projector then identifies with the projected part in the other.
32
Q
- You see a client for the first time. She is already receiving treatment from another professional, and she is not clear about why she wants additional treatment from you. In this situation, you should
a. treat the client and let her discuss what she is doing with the other professional when she is comfortable enough to do so.
b. contact the other professional and attempt to work out a coordinated treatment plan with him or her.
c. attempt to discuss with the client the reason she is seeking the services of a second therapist.
d. inform the client that it would be unethical for you to continue therapy with her.
A
- C– In answering ethics questions, it is a good idea to bring to mind the language of the applicable ethical standard and choose the answer that is most consistent with that standard. According to Standard 10.04 (Providing Therapy to Those Served by Others), psychologists should consider treatment issues and the client’s welfare, and discuss these issues with the client, “in order to minimize the risk of confusion and conflict,” and should “proceed with caution and sensitivity to the therapeutic issues.” Of the choices listed, only C states that you would discuss the issue with the client, and is therefore the best answer.
33
Q
- Research suggests that African-American children’s scores on the WISC
a. tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is Caucasian.
b. tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children only when the examiner is African-American.
c. tend to be higher than those of Caucasian children when the examiner is African-American, but lower than those of
Caucasian children when the examiner is Caucasian.
d. are not related to the race of the examiner.
A
- D– Research has suggested that scores of African-American children on the WISC are not reliably related to the race of the examiner. Though some studies have shown that African-American children’s scores on some subtests increase when the examiner is Caucasian, this effect has not been shown to be consistent. In general, African-American children’s scores tend to be lower than those of Caucasian children, regardless of the race of the examiner.
34
Q
- Two applicants score 42 and 45 on an assessment test and the standard error of the difference is 3.5 points. The scores are treated as equivalent allowing the applicant with the score of 42 to be selected on the basis of some other job-related characteristic. This approach is an example of __________________ in selection decision making.
a. top-down
b. cut-off
c. banding
d. multiple hurdles-required to score above on specific level on several measures
A
- C– Based on the principle that a higher score must correlate with better performance on the job, top-down ranking (a.) occurs when an employer selects candidates in the strict highest/lowest order of their test scores. Decisions based on rank ordering when there is no correlation between a higher score and better performance on the job results in adverse impact. Proposed alternatives to reduce adverse impact are using a cut-off score (b.), reflecting the minimal qualifications for the job rather than an unreasonably stringent requirement, and banding. Banding (c.) is based on the assumption that different scores should be viewed as equivalent unless they are statistically significantly different (determined by the standard error of the difference (SED) between scores) and refers to a range of scores being considered as equivalent for selection purposes. Adverse impact is reduced due to lower-scoring applicants being included within the band and banding provides flexibility to select from candidates based on other factors such as ethnicity, gender, work experience, seniority and other job-related factors. Multiple hurdles (d.) approach requires applicants to score above a specific level or pass several measures such as a weighted application, drug test, interview, and skill tests. (See: Campion, M. A., Outtz, J. L., Zedeck, S., Schmidt, F. L., Kehoe, J. F., Murphy, K. R., & Guion, R. M. (2001). The controversy over score banding in personnel selection: Answers to 10 key questions. Personnel Psychology, 54, 149 - 185. and Aguinis, H. (Ed.). (2004). Test-Score Banding in Human Resources Selection. Westport, CT: Praeger.)
35
Q
- Most studies of correlates of industrial accidents indicate that the strongest association is with
a. machine malfunction.
b. organizational ambiance.
c. supervisory attitude.
d. human error.
A
- D– As you can imagine, what people do (or don’t do) is the leading cause of industrial accidents. Not paying attention, daydreaming, not fixing the machine correctly, not training properly, etc., all can lead to accidents. It follows that to correct this problem one would want people trained better and one would want an environment in which attention is paid to possible accident-causing conditions.
36
Q
- The parents of two children, Jimmy, 4, and Janie, 11, divorce without exposing their children to overt conflict. Based on the results on research investigating the effects of divorce on children, you would expect that:
a. Janie will experience more negative effects than Jimmy initially, but Jimmy will experience a more negative delayed
reaction.
b. Janie will experience more negative effects initially as well as a more negative delayed reaction.
c. Jimmy will experience more negative effects initially as well as a more negative delayed reaction.
d. Jimmy will experience more negative effects than Janie initially, but Janie will experience a more negative delayed
reaction.
A
- D– Research by experts in this field, such as Wallerstein, has revealed that developmental level is an important mediator of the effects of parental divorce on children. Apparently, older children are better able to understand what is happening during a divorce than younger children. As a result, they exhibit fewer negative effects at the time of the divorce itself. However, they often display delayed negative effects, such as painful memories and fears that they will have an unsuccessful marriage.
37
Q
- You are working with a couple in marital therapy and are conducting the initial interview. You realize that although the husband doesn’t remember you, the two of you once dated. You should
a. speak to the husband alone, explain the situation and ask him if he feels comfortable with proceeding.
b. see the wife in individual therapy only.
c. refer the couple to another therapist.
d. let the couple know the situation and then proceed with therapy.
A
- C– This question is fairly easy to answer once you remember you are not obliged to provide services for all your referrals. This is an initial interview and you have a situation that involves a multiple relationship. You need to refer this couple to one of your competent colleagues.
38
Q
- Findings from the National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions (NESARC) indicated the highest prevalence of alcohol abuse was among:
a. Asians
b. Hispanics
c. Whites
d. Blacks
A
- C– In 2001-2002, the National Institute on Alcohol Abuse and Alcoholism (NIAAA) conducted the NESARC study gathering data from over 43,000 individuals, age 18 or older, in non-institutionalized and group housing populations. The survey data provides estimates on alcohol and drug use, alcohol use disorders (AUDs), utilization of alcohol treatment services, and comorbid DSM–IV disorders. In a trend analysis of AUDs over the past decade, Grant et. al. found the prevalence of alcohol abuse increased while the prevalence of dependence declined between 1991–1992 and 2001–2002. The prevalence of abuse was greater among Whites than among Blacks, Asians, and Hispanics and the prevalence of dependence higher among Whites, Native Americans, and Hispanics than among Asians. Both abuse and dependence were more common among men and younger respondents. (See: Grant, B., Dawson, D.A., Stinson, F.S., Patricia Chou, S. P., Dufour, M.C., & Pickering, R. P. (2004). The 12-month prevalence and trends in DSM–IV alcohol abuse and dependence: United States, 1991–1992 and 2001–2002. Drug and Alcohol Dependence 74:223–234. and NIAAA. (2006) National Epidemiologic Survey on Alcohol and Related Conditions: Selected Findings. Alcohol Research & Health. 29:2.)
39
Q
- A psychologist working for an Employee Assistance Program (EAP) has seen a client who was referred by her supervisor. The supervisor asks the psychologist if the employee has kept the appointment. The psychologist should
a. provide the supervisor only with this information but nothing else.
b. refuse to give the supervisor this information.
c. provide this information as well as any other information about the client the supervisor is interested in.
d. consult with the manager of the company.
A
- A– When a mental health professional works as part of an EAP, the potential for confidentiality dilemmas is present. Employers, after all, often feel they have the right to know if employees are benefitting from EAPs, but mental health professionals must understand the importance of confidentiality — including, in most circumstances, the confidentiality of whether a person is or is not a client or patient. In the context of EAPs, however, it is considered acceptable to give the relevant information to relevant people; specifically, it’s OK to tell the supervisor (or the referring person in the organization) if the employee keeps a scheduled appointment, if treatment is needed, and if the employee has agreed to and accepted treatment. All other information should be kept confidential (barring, of course, the employee’s consent to release it).
40
Q
- A college psychology instructor gives a battery of psychological tests to some of his students who volunteered to be participants. Based on these tests, he finds that one of the participants is at risk for emotional disturbance. He talks to this student and suggests counseling. At the same time, he informs the director of the college counseling office who is a friend of his. According to APA ethical principles, the professor acted
a. unethically, because he revealed this information to a third party.
b. ethically, because he acted in accord with the student’s welfare.
c. ethically, because he had responsibilities to the college as well as to the student.
d. unethically, because he isn’t a clinician.
A
- A– Suggesting counseling to the student is ethical and appropriate. However, barring an emergency situation characterized by imminent danger, informing a third party is unethical.
41
Q
- Which of the following is a mental health service that HMOs must provide under federal requirements?
a. pre- and post-pregnancy counseling.
b. psychodynamically oriented psychotherapy.
c. inpatient psychiatric care.
d. short-term outpatient evaluative crisis intervention.
A
- D– Federal laws regarding qualification for an HMO requires that the company provide “short-term (not to exceed 20 visits), outpatient evaluative crisis intervention services”, and “medical treatment and referral for alcohol and drug addiction.” These are the only qualifications related to mental health services. Most HMOs provide certain additional services, because doing so reduces their costs in the long-run.
42
Q
- A 14-year old is brought to therapy after he is caught stealing from a local store. His parents say they have been having trouble with their son for the past two months – they are constantly fighting, and he is irritable and sullen most of the time, occasionally has outbursts of anger, spends most of his time in his room playing with video games, has been caught smoking, and doesn’t seem to sleep as much as he should. These symptoms are most suggestive of
a. ADHD.
b. Conduct Disorder.
c. Dysthymic Disorder.
d. Major Depressive Disorder.
A
- D– The key to recognizing the correct answer to this question is knowing that, in children and adolescents, Major Depression often involves an irritable (rather than depressed) mood as well as acting out behaviors.
43
Q
- In late childhood and adolescence, sibling relationships tend to become egalitarian; however, during middle childhood they can best be described as:
a. distant and distrustful
b. conflicted and close
c. abusive and uncaring
d. dominant and submissive
A
- B– During middle childhood sibling relationships are characterized by a combination of conflict and closeness. During this period siblings typically fight and experience friction, yet also report having greater warmth and companionship with each other.
44
Q
- According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language?
a. social relationships
b. internal cognitive structures
c. schemas
d. scaffoldings
A
- A– For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child’s language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget (answer B and C) who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. Answer D “scaffolding” is Vygotsky’s term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.
45
Q
- The primary function of a school psychologist is to
a. treat children with emotional and/or learning problems.
b. identify children who need special help and make appropriate referrals.
c. train classroom teachers in operant learning techniques.
d. assess, consult, and make recommendations.
A
- D– This was a bit tough because both B and D are correct. However, B is a narrow answer; school psychologists have other functions besides evaluating children and making referrals. They assess children, report their findings, consult with parents and teachers, and make recommendations for further intervention. Their recommendations may or may not involve a referral; for instance, they may recommend an intervention aimed at the teacher or parent rather than the child. In sum, since school psychologists have broad functions, the broader answer is better in this case.
46
Q
- Which of the following statements is most consistent with Lewin’s field theory?
a. As a person moves towards one of the goals in an approach-approach conflict, it becomes less attractive and the other goal
becomes more attractive.
b. Leadership is a function of the relationship between a task and the environment.
c. Behavior is a function of the relationship between the person and the environment.
d. A person’s “life space” is equivalent to Jung’s notion of the collective unconscious.
A
- C– According the Lewin’s field theory, behavior is a function of the relationship between a person and his or her environment. Lewin used the following formula to express this relationship: B = f(P,E) where B is behavior, P is the person, and E is the environment. Choice “A” is the opposite of Lewin’s prediction. That is, when faced with an approach-approach conflict, the selected choice becomes more attractive while the other choice becomes less attractive. “Life space” is also a central concept in field theory but refers to everything in a person’s psychological environment – not the collective unconscious.
47
Q
- The four main stages of neural development are:
a. meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination
b. mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination
c. differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination
d. proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination
A
- D– Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded (insulated) by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
48
Q
- A researcher who is interested in determining the correct language to use in referring to members of ethnic minorities in a research article should refer to information published by
a. the US Census Bureau.
b. the American Psychological Association (APA).
c. the research committee in the setting where the research takes place.
d. the state licensing board.
A
- B– The Publication Manual of the American Psychological Association is the authority on questions of style (e.g., word usage, formatting) in research articles. It includes a section on choosing nouns referring to racial and ethnic groups.
49
Q
- Which of the following statements best reflects the cross-cultural findings on emotions?
a. Most researchers have only found fear, anger, and sadness to be universal emotions.
b. Most researchers agree on the existence of 12 basic emotions.
c. Most researchers have disputed the existence of universal basic emotions.
d. Most researchers have agreed on the existence of at least 6 basic emotions, but have disagreed on the inclusion of several
other emotions as basic.
A
- D– Interest in the existence of innate universal (cross-cultural) emotions began with Darwin in 1872 who found that the facial expressions of certain emotions were the same across different cultures. Many researchers since Darwin have tried to identify which emotions are universal. Most have agreed on the existence of at least six basic emotions (happiness, surprise, fear, sadness, anger, and disgust). However, there has been much disagreement on whether other emotions such as interest, guilt, and shame are also universal and innate emotions [See P. Eckman, Are there basic emotions? Psychological Review, 99(3), 1992, 550-553].
50
Q
- In Gestalt therapy, introjection, projection, deflection, confluence and retroflection are examples of:
a. layers of neurosis
b. resistances to contact
c. natural anxiety
d. neurotic anxiety
A
- B– Gestalt therapy focuses on the “here and now” which encourages clients to gain awareness and full experiencing in the present. The term contact refers to interacting with nature and others without losing one’s individuality. Resistances to contact are the defenses that one develops as a self-protective attempt to avoid the anxiety necessitated by change and prevents full experiencing in the present. The question lists the five defenses or types of resistance to contact. The five layers of neurosis (a.), proposed by Perls (1969) to describe the process of working through neurosis are: phony, phobic, impasse, and implosive, explosive. Neurotic anxiety (d.) is the result of not facing normal anxiety.
51
Q
- An actress portrays a philanthropist in a TV series. In each show, she performs an act of kindness toward a downtrodden individual or group. The actress receives a great deal of mail from fans who tell her what a fantastic person she is because she is so willing to share her time and wealth with others who are in need. The response of the actress’s fans illustrates which of the following.
a. the ultimate attribution error
b. the fundamental attribution bias
c. the self-serving bias
d. the selectivity bias
A
- B– The fundamental attribution bias (error) refers to the tendency of people to overestimate the contribution of dispositional factors to an actor’s behavior. In the situation described in the question, the actress’s fans attribute her good deeds to her rather than to the role she plays in the TV series.
52
Q
- A friend complains to you that his four-year old frequently lies to him even when the child will not be punished or experience other negative consequences for not telling the truth. Based on your familiarity with the literature on deception in children, you
a. tell your friend that the child can’t be lying because children are not cognitively capable of doing so until age six or seven.
b. tell your friend that the child must be anticipating negative consequences because, at age four, children lie only in order to
avoid punishment.
c. tell your friend that, without any other symptoms, the child’s behavior is probably normal since young children lie for
several reasons besides avoiding punishment.
d. tell your friend that the child should be evaluated since lying at such an early age is often a warning sign of pathology.
A
- C– Although Piaget and others have argued that young children are cognitively incapable of lying, the research has found that children as young as three lie for various reasons (e.g., to avoid punishment or embarrassment, to obtain rewards).
53
Q
- It is estimated that 60 percent of children with Tourette’s syndrome also have AD/HD. In treating Tourette’s and other Tic Disorders, which of the following medications requires the greatest caution when used for treatment?
a. pimozide
b. fluoxetine
c. clonidine
d. methylphenidate
A
- D– Tourette’s syndrome is a chronic tic disorder that involves vocal and motor tics. Recent estimates indicate 60 percent of children with Tourette’s have AD/HD, and approximately 7 percent of children with AD/HD have tics or Tourette’s syndrome. The symptoms are often mild, and a significant social impact only occurs in rare severe cases. According to recent research, psychostimulant medication is not related to the development of Tourette’s syndrome in children with AD/HD. However, when there is a family history of tics or Tourette’s syndrome, a cautious treatment approach is recommended as some individuals will experience worsening of their tics with stimulant treatment.
54
Q
- Every time a 6-year-old child uses obscene language his mother reprimands him. Unfortunately, the child’s use of obscene language increases. The mother’s reprimands can best be described as:
a. positive reinforcement
b. negative reinforcement
c. positive punishment
d. intermittent reinforcement
A
- A– Despite the mother’s intentions, her reprimands appear to result in an increase in her child’s undesirable behavior. The application of a stimulus following a response that increases the frequency of that response is, by definition, positive reinforcement. Punishment, by definition, always decreases the frequency of a behavior – which did not occur in this case. And the mother’s behavior is not an example of intermittent reinforcement (D) because she is reprimanding the child every time he uses obscene language.
55
Q
- Play in children, as opposed to play in adolescents and adults
a. is solely a form of imitation.
b. contributes to mastery of the environment.
c. is basically a form of entertainment.
d. is for the purpose of competition and attaining power.
A
- B– Many theorists and researchers have identified developmental benefits of children’s play. Piaget, for instance, believed that pretend play was a form of learning about the world, whereby children assimilate new rules and objects into their cognitive schema. In other words, one of the developmental functions of play is to help children learn about and master their environment.
56
Q
- A therapist interested in evaluating the defenses that impact an individual’s current maladaptive behavior patterns would be a practitioner of:
a. personal construct therapy
b. reality therapy
c. object relations therapy
d. solution-focused therapy
A
- C– Object relations therapy, as a psychodynamic therapy, involves an interest in defenses and transferences. Associated with Melanie Klein amongst others, object relations therapy incorporates traditional psychodynamic strategies such as the influence of unconscious processes underlying an individual’s relationships, and identifying and interpreting defenses against anxiety and transferences. George Kelly’s personal construct therapy (a.) combines cognitive, behavioral, and humanistic concepts. It emphasizes the effect of the individual’s perspective on his/her experience of the world. Developed by William Glasser, reality therapy (b.) focuses on an individual’s present issues and problems. Steve de Shazer and other strategic family therapists developed solution-focused therapy (d.) which focuses on the here-and-now and identifying solutions to problems.
57
Q
- According to Beck, a depressed man is most likely to believe that:
a. the world is unfair, his future is hopeless, but he is a good person
b. he is worthless, his future is hopeless, but the world is just
c. he is worthless, his future is hopeless, and the world is unfair
d. he is worthless, the world is unfair, but his future is hopeful
A
- C– Depressed people tend to distort their perceptions and interpret events from a negative perspective. Beck referred to the “cognitive triad” which consists of negative thoughts about the self, future, and the world. Choice C best represents the cognitive triad.
58
Q
- In Ainsworth’s “strange situation,” a child exhibits the disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. This pattern is most associated with:
a. a difficult temperament.
b. mental retardation.
c. early maltreatment.
d. early enrollment in daycare.
A
- C– The disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern was added to Ainsworth’s original three patterns by Mary Main, who found it to be a common pattern among children who had been mistreated by their caregivers.
59
Q
- Which of the WAIS-III factors is most stable across the lifespan?
a. perceptual organization
b. processing speed
c. verbal comprehension
d. working memory
A
- C– Of the four WAIS-III factors, Verbal Comprehension is the most stable across the lifespan, followed by Working Memory, Perceptual Organization, and Processing Speed.
60
Q
- Which of the following medications would be most effective in the treatment of premature ejaculation?
a. lithium
b. risperidone
c. fluoxetine
d. bupropion
A
- C– One of the side effects of SSRI antidepressants is delayed ejaculation. This side effect has been used to benefit those with premature ejaculation. Although the FDA has yet to approve any drug for the treatment of premature ejaculation, several studies have found that even extremely low doses of SSRIs can prolong ejaculation by at least 5 to 10 minutes. Many physicians have, therefore, begun recommending SSRIs for this purpose, either on a daily basis, or four hours before intercourse. In this question, fluoxetine (Prozac) is the best choice because it is the only SSRI listed. The only other antidepressant choice in this question is bupropion (Welbutrin), which is an atypical antidepressant known for not causing the same sexual side effects as the SSRIs. In fact, there is some evidence that bupropion increases sexual responsiveness.
61
Q
- Although Jasper has worked for the same company for nearly 15 years, he has no friends at work and never eats lunch or takes breaks with his coworkers. Jasper hasn’t been to a party for eight years. He says he’d like to go to parties but he feels no one will want to talk with him and that people will make fun of him. He also says that he often feels lonely. The best diagnosis is
a. Schizoid Personality Disorder.
b. Paranoid Personality Disorder.
c. Avoidant Personality Disorder.
d. Schizotypal Personality Disorder.
A
- C– The combination of social avoidance, fear of humiliation, and loneliness are characteristic of Avoidant Personality Disorder.
62
Q
- A social-role theorist might contend that minority clients drop out of treatment more readily when matched with a white therapist, because:
a. the therapist indicates discomfort
b. higher power or status groups are more adept at reading or perceiving members of lower status groups than those from
lower status groups reading people from higher status groups.
c. lower power or status groups are more adept at reading or perceiving members of higher status groups than those from
higher status groups reading people from lower status groups.
d. the client lacks awareness of the differences in power and status.
A
- C– Social-Role theorists assert that individuals in positions of lower power and status are better at reading/perceiving members of higher status groups than are those from higher status groups at reading people from lower status groups. Thus, for example, women may be more adept at attending to men, than men are at attending to the feelings and experiences of women. Similarly white therapists may be less familiar with the culture and life experience of minority clients than are minority therapists with white clients (See: Sue, S. & Zane, N. (1987). The role of culture and cultural techniques in psychotherapy: A critique and reformulation. American Psychologist, 42, 37-45.)
63
Q
- Which of the following is either a symptom of or a requirement for the DSM-IV diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder?
a. onset before the age of 2 ½
b. fear that the attachment figure will die
c. symptoms do not persist after the age of 18
d. need for constant attention from the primary attachment figure
A
- B– Separation Anxiety Disorder involves developmentally inappropriate and excessive anxiety concerning separation from home or from those to whom the individual is attached. For a diagnosis to be made, three signs or symptoms must be present, one of which is excessive worry that harm will befall a major attachment figure. Thus, B is the best answer. Contrary to choice A, the onset of the disorder need not be before the age of 2 1/2; in fact, separation anxiety in infancy is considered to be developmentally appropriate. Choice C may have been more difficult to eliminate: Although a diagnosis of Separation Anxiety Disorder requires an onset before the age of 18, symptoms may persist after the person turns 18. An excessive need for attention (choice D) is a commonly associated feature of this disorder, but it is not a core symptom.
64
Q
- A person who takes the MMPI-2 obtains a score of 62 on the depression scale. This means that
a. the person is probably clinically depressed.
b. the test results are not valid.
c. the person’s score is 1.2 standard deviation units above the mean.
d. the person’s score is 12 raw score points above the mean.
A
- C– A T-score is a standardized score, which means that it indicates how many standard deviation units a given raw score is above or below the mean. The T-score distribution has a mean of 50 and a standard deviation of 10. This means that a score of 62 – 12 T-score points above the mean – is 1.2 standard deviations above the mean, since 10 X 1.2 is 12.
65
Q
- Which of the following descriptive words for tests are most opposite in nature?
a. speed and power
b. subjective and aptitude
c. norm-referenced and standardized
d. maximal and ipsative
A
- A– Pure speed tests and pure power tests are opposite ends of a continuum. A speed test is one with a strict time limit and easy items that most or all examinees are expected to answer correctly. Speed tests measure examinees’ response speed. A power test is one with no or a generous time limit but with items ranging from easy to very difficult (usually ordered from least to most difficult). Power tests measure level of content mastered.
66
Q
- There is some evidence that children of divorced parents have more academic problems than children from intact families and that
a. girls of divorced families exhibit poorer academic performance than boys of divorced families.
b. boys of divorced families exhibit poorer academic performance than girls of divorced families.
c. the negative effects of divorce on academic performance are not moderated by gender.
d. the negative effects of divorce on academic performance are observed in younger (but not older) children.
A
- B– The studies have consistently shown that children of divorce do more poorly in school than children of intact families. In addition, these negative effects tend to be more pronounced for boys than for girls and for children who are older at the time of the divorce.
67
Q
- Studies on gender differences in physical development suggest that, until about age _____, girls should be able to compete effectively with boys in baseball and other sports.
a. 7
b. 10
c. 12
d. 15
A
- C– Most physical differences between boys and girls do not become prominent until puberty. Before puberty, boys and girls are about equal, for instance, in terms of speed and strength, implying that they should do about equally well in many sports.
68
Q
- Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to impair:
a. working memory
b. long-term memory
c. language comprehension
d. motor functioning
A
- A– The prefrontal cortex has been associated with many functions including decision-making, attention, planning, and most recently, working memory. [See J. D. Cohen, W. M. Perlstein, T.S. Braver, L. E. Nystrom, J. Jonides, E. E. Smith, & D. C. Noll, Temporal dynamics of brain activity during a working memory task. Nature, 386, 1997, 604-608].
69
Q
- A group member has idiosyncratic credits. This refers to the idea that the member has:
a. Upward mobility
b. Brownie points
c. Unusual behaviors
d. Referent power
A
- B– Idiosyncratic credits are related to minority influence. Hollander (1985) found that in order to become either the leader of a group or successfully challenge the majority opinion of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish his or her credentials as a “competent insider”. By becoming accepted, member’s idiosyncracy credits are accumulated, which are like “brownie points”.
70
Q
- According to behavioral theory, depression is generally considered to result from:
a. negative punishment
b. noncontingent punishment
c. prolonged extinction
d. having to make finer and finer stimulus discriminations
A
- C– There are several behavioral models of depression but probably the oldest is the operant conditioning model, which describes it as the result of being on an extinction schedule for an extended period of time. The depressed person has had little or no access to reinforcement.
71
Q
- Alloy, Abramson, and Metalsky have revised the learned helplessness model of depression and de-emphasized the role of
a. punishment.
b. reinforcement.
c. helplessness.
d. attributions.
A
- D– Alloy, Abramson and Metalsky (1989) theorize that attributions are only important when they contribute to feelings of hopelessness. They expand upon this idea in their article, Hopelessness depression: A theory-based subtype of depression, Psychological Review, 1989, 96(2), 358-372.
72
Q
- The mesencephalon does not contain which of the following?
a. substantia nigra
b. hypothalamus
c. inferior colliculus
d. superior colliculus
A
- B– The area of the brain referred to as the “midbrain” is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. The substantia nigra (a.) is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain’s sensorimotor system. The inferior colliculus (c.) is part of the tectum and is involved in audition. The superior colliculus (d.) is also part of the tectum and mediates vision. The hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon. The diencephalon and the telencephalon make up the forebrain.
73
Q
- For the prevention and treatment of childhood sleep disorders, Ferber recommends that by six months parents should:
a. provide only verbal comfort or a pat on the back if the child cries
b. rock the child until he/she falls asleep
c. feed the child before putting him/her to bed or provide the child with a bottle at bedtime
d. be flexible regarding the child’s natural sleep cycle
A
- A– Dr. Richard Ferber, along with other experts, recommend a progressive waiting period to help children fall asleep and stay asleep. The method, sometimes referred to as “Ferberizing” involves putting the baby to bed while he or she is still awake. If the child cries, parents are instructed to wait a predetermined interval –usually five minutes. At that time they are instructed to go in to check and comfort the child verbally, but without rocking, feeding, or picking up the child. After doing this, they are to leave the room. If the child cries again, they are to wait 10 minutes before providing the same response. After each successive time the interval is increased until the child falls asleep. Contrary to Choice “D,” Ferber recommends sticking to a regular schedule; however, he does acknowledge that under certain circumstances, for instance, if the child is sick or you are traveling, you may need to be flexible regarding the schedule.
74
Q
- In schizophrenia, haldol is used primarily to treat:
a. negative symptoms
b. apathy
c. psychotic symptoms
d. blunted affect
A
- C– Antipsychotic drugs such as haldol (butyrophenones) are more effective for alleviating the positive symptoms of schizophrenia: hallucinations, delusions, disordered thought, and agitation, than the negative symptoms: apathy, blunted affect, autism, and social withdrawal. In clients with schizophrenia, antipsychotics induce a “neuroleptic state” characterized by emotional quieting (decreased hallucinations and delusions), psychomotor slowing (less agitation, impulsivity, and aggressiveness), and affective indifference (lower arousability and lack of concern with the external environment).
75
Q
- Which of the following statements regarding therapy records is most consistent with the Ethics Code?
a. A patient’s therapy records must be kept for at least three years after termination.
b. A patient’s therapy records must be destroyed seven years after termination.
c. A therapist can destroy records before the legally required time period to keep them has elapsed if the therapist believes
that doing so is necessary to prevent the use of obsolete records.
d. Records can be kept longer than is legally required, at the therapist’s discretion.
A
- D– To understand why choice D is correct, let’s go through the other choices. State laws vary regarding how long therapy records must be kept following termination; some states do and some states don’t have any laws that identify a minimum time period during which records must be maintained. The Ethics Code states that therapists must follow relevant laws, but they do not lay out any specific time guidelines for maintaining records. Therefore, since state laws vary, any option that identifies a specific time frame for maintaining records (such as choices A and B) has got to be wrong. Choice C implies that it is ethically permissible to violate the law. This is untrue, even if you believe that a violation of the law serves your client’s best interests. This leaves choice D, which is correct. The state laws relating to this issue outline a minimum time period for maintaining records, but they don’t identify a maximum. In other words, therapists can keep records as long as they want, as long as they follow other ethical standards related to records, such as preventing the misuse of obsolete records.
76
Q
- ADHD is implicated in functioning in the
a. frontal lobe.
b. parietal lobe.
c. temporal lobe.
d. hypercortical lobe.
A
- A– There is good reason to suspect that delayed or disturbed functioning in the frontal lobes may be involved with ADHD. Psychophysiological research in earlier decades has suggested underactivity in the frontal lobes of ADHD patients (Hastings and Barkley, 1978). More recently, numerous neuropsychological studies have shown deficits in performance by ADHD children on tests that were presumed to assess frontal lobe or executive functions, supporting frontal lobe involvement (Barley, 1997b; 1992).
77
Q
- George Kelly emphasized that:
a. people view the world through cognitive schemas
b. individuals progress from infantile dependency to mature interdependency
c. psychopathology is caused by past traumatic events
d. psychopathology is caused by a maladaptive “style of life”
A
- A– George Kelly was perhaps the first cognitive theorist and introduced his “psychology of personal constructs” in 1955. A construct, which is synonymous with a schema, is a cognitive template through which the world is interpreted. Choice B represents a major tenet of Self-in-Relation Theory. Choice D uses the language of Adler. And choice C is contrary to what Kelly believed. He believed that individuals’ interpretations of events are more important than the events themselves.
78
Q
- Compared to traditional neuroleptics, risperidone:
a. is significantly more effective in treating the “positive” symptoms of psychotic disorders
b. has a higher risk of causing cognitive blunting
c. has a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms
d. has a lower risk of tardive dyskinesia
A
- D– Risperidone (brand name Risperdal) is one of several atypical antipsychotics that has emerged in the last 10 years or so. Risperdal has also become the most prescribed antipsychotic medication. The most significant difference between the traditional antipsychotics and the newer atypical antipsychotics is that the atypicals have a much lower incidence of causing tardive dyskinesia and extrapyramidal side effects. However, they are generally considered to be equally effective in treating the positive symptoms (e.g., hallucinations, delusions) of Schizophrenia. They have often been considered to be more effective for treating the “negative” symptoms (e.g., affective and cognitive blunting, apathy, poverty of speech); however, the research for this remains inconclusive.
79
Q
- Solomon, Pyszczynski, and Greenberg’s terror management theory proposes anxiety or “terror” results from the conscious awareness that human beings have of the inevitability of their death and is best dealt with by:
a. religious faith
b. consensual validation
c. mortality salience
d. self-esteem and a cultural worldview
A
- D– According to terror management theory (TMT), individuals utilize two things to manage the terror associated with the fear of death: a cultural worldview and self-esteem. Consensual validation (b.), or others’ agreement with one’s own worldviews and self-concept, is critical for the effectiveness of cultural worldviews and self-esteem. An outside group, person or differing ideas that clash may threaten the validation system (religion, political ideology) that provides a sense of security. Studies have found increased mortality salience (c.), encountering or recently thinking about death, results in people strongly connecting to their worldview elements like religious beliefs or national pride and increased emergence of prejudices against an outside group in addition to creating a longing for structure, order, acceptance of quick, easy answers to problems and foregoing careful consideration of all options. (See: Pyszczynski, T., Solomon, S., & Greenberg, J. (2003). In the Wake of 9/11: The Psychology of Terror. Washington, D.C.: American Psychological Association. and Solomon, S., Greenberg, J. & Pyszczynski, T. (1991). “A Terror Management Theory of Social Behavior: The Psychological Functions of Self-Esteem and Cultural Worldviews.” Advances in Experimental Social Psychology, 24, Zanna, M.P. (Ed).)
80
Q
- A therapist working from the perspective of Beck’s cognitive therapy would approach the treatment of Panic Disorder by
a. having the client identify maladaptive thoughts that precede panic attacks and then restructuring those thoughts.
b. connecting the panic attacks to the client’s overall attributional styles.
c. teaching the client methods of self-reinforcement to use when he or she is not having a panic attack and methods of self-
punishment to use when he or she is having one.
d. identifying and modifying the client’s interpretation of panic attacks and their associated physical symptoms.
A
- D– Cognitive therapists believe that Panic Disorder is connected to “catastrophic misinterpretations” of bodily sensations, symptoms, and mentation. The client’s “overcastrophization” of early signs of the attack such as hyperventilation results in a full-blown attack. Thus, at least initially, therapy focuses on identifying and modifying the client’s misinterpretations of symptoms and thoughts immediately before and during the attack.
