Exam 5 - Calcium Channel Blockers Hockerman Flashcards

1
Q

K+ is _____ inside and _____ outside the cell

a. low; high
b. low; low
c. high; low
d. high; high

A

c. high; low

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2
Q

Na+ is _____ inside and _____ outside the cell

a. low; high
b. low; low
c. high; low
d. high; high

A

a. low; high

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3
Q

is calcium low or high INSIDE the cell?

A

very low (100 nM compared to 1.5 mM outside)

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4
Q

is calcium low or high OUTSIDE the cell?

A

high (1.5 mM compared to 100 nM inside)

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5
Q

location of CaV 1.2 receptor (2 locations)

A

cardiac and smooth muscle

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6
Q

function of CaV1.2 receptor

A

Ca2+ entry triggers contraction

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7
Q

membrane potential is set by _____ permeability at rest

a. Ca2+
b. K+
c. Na+

A

b. K+

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8
Q

what structural feature of potassium channels is responsible for the selective and rapid conduction of K+?

A

selectivity filter

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9
Q

blocking of channels in vascular smooth muscle leads to __________

A

vasodilation

(dec in BP; relief of angina)

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10
Q

blocking on channels in cardiac muscle & SA/AV node leads to an __________ effect

A

antiarrhythmic

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11
Q

Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release (CICR):

_____ influx via _____ induces release of _____ from intracellular stores via _____ in the SR

(second and fourth blanks are receptors)

A

Ca2+
CaV1.2
Ca2+
RYR2 (ryanodine receptor 2)

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12
Q

what is required for contraction of cardiac and smooth muscle?

A

extracellular Ca2+

(not required for skeletal muscle)

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13
Q

beta adrenergic modulation of Ca2+ channels: _____ phosphorylation of CaV1.2 inc Ca2+ influx

(the blank is an enzyme)

A

PKA (protein kinase A)

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14
Q

in vascular smooth muscle, what are the two end products that lead to contraction?

A

myosin LC-PO4 (phosphorylated myosin light chain) + actin

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15
Q

cardiac muscle contraction: Ca2+ ions released from the SR binds to _______

A

troponin C

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16
Q

cardiac muscle contraction: Ca2+ binding by troponin C causes displacement of __________

A

tropomyosin

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17
Q

what causes contraction in cardiac muscle contraction?

A

displacement of tropomyosin allows myosin to bind actin -> contraction

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18
Q

skeletal muscle contraction requires mechanical coupling of what two receptors?

A

CaV1.1 and RYR1

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19
Q

what drug is given for subarachnoid hemorrhage (bleeding in space around brain)?

A

nimodipine

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20
Q

3 clinical applications for calcium channel blockers

A

angina, arrhythmia, HTN

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21
Q

which is not one of the 3 distinct chemical classes of calcium channel blockers?

a. dihydropyridines
b. phenylalkylamines
c. organic nitrates
d. benzothiazepines

A

c. organic nitrates

(these are vasodilators)

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22
Q

what do dihydropyridine CCB drugs end in?

A

“-dipine”

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23
Q

what structural element gives nifedipine, amlodipine, isradipine, and other “-dipines” their name?

A

dihydropyridine ring

24
Q

which drug is a short acting DHP formulated with lipids derived from soy and egg, and is given IV to treat hypertension when PO admin of drugs is not possible/desirable?

a. amlodipine
b. nifedipine
c. nicardipine
d. isradipine
e. clevidipine
f. felodipine

A

e. clevidipine

25
clevidipine's active form is cleaved by what enzymes?
esterases
26
blockade mechanism of dihydropyridines: the (+) enantiomer of Bay K 8644 __________ current, and interferes with __________ a. blocks; opening b. blocks; closing c. potentiates; opening d. potentiates; closing
a. blocks; opening
27
blockade mechanism of dihydropyridines: the (-) enantiomer of Bay K 8644 __________ current, and interferes with __________ a. blocks; opening b. blocks; closing c. potentiates; opening d. potentiates; closing
d. potentiates; closing
28
dihydropyridines are more potent in relaxing _____ muscle, especially which artery?
smooth; coronary artery (DHPs do not compromise cardiac function)
29
tissue selectivity of CCBs are the result of what 2 things?
-amino acid differences in channel splice variants -differences in memb potential properties
30
vascular selectivity of DHPs is observed in _____ assays but not _____ assays a. functional; binding b. binding; functional
a. functional; binding (Idk what this means though)
31
what does voltage-dependence block mean?
affinity of drug for the channel is diff at diff voltages
32
what is it called when DHP drugs bind to closed channels (at allosteric site) and prevent opening?
tonic block
33
clinical considerations for DHPs: reflex tachycardia secondary to vasodilation occurs in all drugs except _________
amlodipine (due to slow onset of action)
34
why is nimodipine used for subarachnoid hemorrhage?
it's selective for cerebral arteries (it can relax arteries in brain that have been contracted due to a brain bleed)
35
clinical considerations for DHPs: DHPs reduce oxygen demand in heart, may inhibit atherosclerosis, and all (except ________) do not depress cardiac function
nifedipine
36
true or false: all DHPs are not highly bound to serum proteins and undergo extensive first pass metabolism in liver
false (they are all highly bound)
37
amlodipine has _____ onset and _____ duration of action
slow; long
38
rapid release __________ may inc risk of subsequent heart attack due to tachycardia a. amlodipine b. nifedipine c. clevidipine d. nisoldipine
b. nifedipine
39
only drug in phenylalkylamine CCB class
verapamil
40
verapamil inhibitory effect on heart is due to what type of block?
frequency dependent block
41
which is the most potent for vasodilation, DHPs, verapamil, or diltiazem?
DHPs
42
verapamil and diltiazem _____ conduction through the SA and AV nodes, reducing heart rate and force of contraction
slows
43
why is reflex tachycardia blunted for verapamil?
bc it is also inhibiting channels in the heart
44
where does verapamil bind in calcium channels? a. allosteric site b. pore
b. pore (blocks Ca2+ influx through pore)
45
true or false: verapamil has marked tonic block and very little freq dependent block
false (marked freq dependece, very little tonic block)
46
what is the only drug in benzothiazepine class (that we talked about)?
diltiazem
47
diltiazem directly inhibits the heart _____ than verapamil, but _____ than DHPs a. less; more b. more; less
a. less; more
48
characteristics of benzothiazepine (diltiazem) block: is it tonic, frequncy dependent, or both?
both (some tonic block, some freq dependence)
49
most common side effect of DHPs (slide 39)
flushing (they are good vasodilators)
50
which is considered a clinically significant side effect of all 3 drugs: diltiazem, DHPs, and verapamil? a. constipation b. ankle edema c. rash d. facial flushing e. dizziness
b. ankle edema
51
what are the 3 clinically significant side effects of DHPs? a. ankle edema b. constipation c. dizziness d. facial flushing e. headaches f. ischemia g. rash h. tachycardia
a, d, h
52
what are the two clinically significant side effects of verapamil? a. ankle edema b. constipation c. dizziness d. facial flushing e. headaches f. ischemia g. rash h. tachycardia
a. ankle edema b. constipation
53
diltiazem's clinically significant side effect (1)
ankle edema
54
potential for drugs selective for CaV1.3: treatment of ______ ______ (studies with _____) (Last blank is a drug)
drug addiction; isradipine
55
potential for drugs selective for CaV2.1: treatment of ______ ______ ______, some types of ______
familial hemiplegic migraine; ataxia
56
potential for drugs selective for CaV2.2: treatment of refractory chronic pain due to what toxin? What drug can treat this?
Conus magus; omega-Conotoxin MVIIA (Ziconotide, Prialt)