Exam 5 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. define social psychology
A

scientific study of how we think about influence and relate to one another

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2
Q
  1. define and give an example of the fundamental attribution error
A

When we observe others’ behaviors we underestimate the influence other situation and we attribute their behavior to dispositional ( trait) factors
EX: you roommate get a bad grade on a test. Why? Well she’s stupid and sleeps around

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3
Q
  1. define attitude
A

feelings, often influenced by our beliefs, that predispose our reactions to objects, people, and events.;

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4
Q

describe the central and peripheral routes to persuasion

A

doesn’t engage systematic thinking, but does produce fast results as people respond to incidental cues (such as celebrity endorsements), and make snap judgments. It occurs mostly when people are naturally analytical or involved in the issue.
Environmental advocates may show us evidence of rising temperatures, melting glaciers, rising seas, and northward shifts in vegetation and animal life. Because it is more thoughtful and less superficial, it is more durable and more likely to influence behavior

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5
Q
  1. describe the foot-in-the-door phenomenon
A

the tendency for people who have first agreed to a small request to comply later with a larger request.

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6
Q
  1. describe the circumstances under which cognitive dissonance is likely to occur; How do we reduce our cognitive dissonance?
A

the theory that we act to reduce the discomfort (dissonance) we feel when two of our thoughts (cognitions) are inconsistent. For example, when we become aware that our attitudes and our actions clash, we can reduce the resulting dissonance by changing our attitudes

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7
Q
  1. give an example of the chameleon effect
A

you are with a group of people, one shakes foot, others do too

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8
Q
  1. define conformity; How did Asch test for it?
A

adjusting our behavior or thinking to coincide with a group standard.
He tested by having a group of people working on a problem. One person worked for him and gave an obviously wrong answer. Then others did too because he did.

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9
Q

What conditions increase conformity?

A

are made to feel incompetent or insecure.
are in a group with at least three people.
are in a group in which everyone else agrees. (If just one other person disagrees, the odds of our disagreeing greatly increase.)
admire the group’s status and attractiveness.
have not made a prior commitment to any response.
know that others in the group will observe our behavior.
are from a culture that strongly encourages respect for social standards.

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10
Q
  1. define social norms and tell how they influence our behavior
A

an understood rule for accepted and expected behavior.

They make us act differently so that we will belong in a group

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11
Q
  1. describe Milgram’s experiment on obedience
A

There is a teacher and a learner. The teacher goes in a separate room where he has a shocking device which is hooked up to the learner. The teacher gives the learner word pairs. If the learner gets one wrong you have to “shock” him starting at a low to high shock. The learner starts to scream and beg the teacher to stop but the teacher won’t because the experimenter is there and telling you you have to because it is the rules.

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12
Q

What conditions influenced how obedient Milgram’s subjects were?

A

Experimenter is prestigious, very close, the learner was depersonalized, and there were no models of defiance.

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13
Q

What percentage of participants in the original version of the study appeared to deliver the full range of shocks?

A

65%

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14
Q
  1. Describe what was learned from Milgram’s study about historical events such as the Holocaust
A

Ordered by police to give a list of sheltered Jews, the head pastor modeled defiance: “I don’t know of Jews, I only know of human beings.” Without realizing how long and terrible the war would be, or how much punishment and poverty they would suffer, the resisters made an initial commitment to resist. Supported by their beliefs, their role models, their interactions with one another, and their own initial acts, they remained defiant to the war’s end.

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15
Q
  1. define and give an example of social facilitation
A

stronger responses on simple or well-learned tasks in the presence of others

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16
Q

. Under what conditions is social facilitation (a) most likely to occur? (b) less likely to occur?

A

Good pool player- bring on spectators ends up scoring more, bad pool player- I don’t want anyone to watch ends up scoring less

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17
Q
  1. explain social loafing
A

the tendency for people in a group to exert less effort when pooling their efforts toward attaining a common goal than when individually accountable
you perform less when in a group

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18
Q
  1. describe how a person becomes deindividuated and the effect this has on his/her individual behavior
A

This process of losing self-awareness and self-restraint

You will do more harm if in a mask

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19
Q
  1. describe group polarization
A

the beliefs and attitudes we bring to a group grow stronger as we discuss them with like-minded others

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20
Q

give an example of how group polarization can lead to (a) negative, destructive behavior or attitudes, and (b) positive, constructive behavior or attitudes

A

terrorist group, church

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21
Q
  1. describe the factors that lead to groupthink
A

the mode of thinking that occurs when the desire for harmony in a decision-making group overrides a realistic appraisal of alternatives.
overconfidence, conformity, self-justification, and group polarization

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22
Q

prejudice

A

means “prejudgment.” It is an unjustifiable and usually negative attitude toward a group—often a different cultural, ethnic, or gender group.

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23
Q

stereotypes

A

a generalized (sometimes accurate but often overgeneral-ized) belief about a group of people.

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24
Q

discrimination

A

unjustifiable negative behavior toward a group and its members.

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25
Q
  1. give examples of (a) prejudices that have been reduced in recent decades and (b) prejudices that have increased in recent decades
A

men and women should get equal pay, would vote for woman leader, have interracial relationships and schools
gay and lesbian, Muslims

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26
Q
  1. define the just-world phenomenon and explain how it can lead to instances of blaming the victim
A

the tendency for people to believe the world is just and that people therefore get what they deserve and deserve what they get
well if they would have worked harder, they wouldn’t be homeless. She was wearing a miniskirt and flirted with me, she deserved to be raped

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27
Q

ingroup

A

“Us”—people with whom we share a common identity.

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28
Q

outgroup

A

“Them”—those perceived as different or apart from our in-group

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29
Q

ingroup bias

A

the tendency to favor our own group.

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30
Q
  1. define and give an example of the scapegoat theory of prejudice
A

the theory that prejudice offers an outlet for anger by providing someone to blame
all Arabs are evil

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31
Q
  1. define the other-race effect
A

the tendency to recall faces of one’s own race more accurately than faces of other races. Also called the cross-race effect and the own-race bias

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32
Q
  1. define aggression
A

any physical or verbal behavior intended to hurt or destroy

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33
Q

aggression and explain how genetic, neural, and biochemical influences on it

A

Genes influence aggression. We know this because animals have been bred for aggressiveness—sometimes for sport, sometimes for research
animal and human brains have neural systems that, given provocation, will either inhibit or facilitate aggressive behavior
High testosterone correlates with irritability, assertiveness, impulsiveness, and low tolerance for frustration

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34
Q
  1. explain how frustration can trigger aggression
A

Suffering sometimes builds character. In laboratory experiments, however, those made miserable have often made others miserable
hot temperatures, physical pain, personal insults, foul odors, cigarette smoke, crowding,

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35
Q
  1. discuss the effects of observing filmed violence and pornography on social attitudes and relationships
A

social scripts—culturally provided mental files for how to act. Will be more violent, might think rape is OK

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36
Q
  1. discuss the research on the effects of video games on violence
A

more violent games more violent they are. Dehumanization

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37
Q
  1. define and give an example of the mere exposure effect
A

the phenomenon that repeated exposure to novel stimuli increases liking of them.
We are even somewhat more likely to marry someone whose first or last name resembles our own

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38
Q
  1. list the factors that influence our liking of others and the probability of forming friendships and romantic relationships
A

physical attraction, proximity, similarity

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39
Q
  1. describe the bystander effect
A

the tendency for any given bystander to be less likely to give aid if other bystanders are present.

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40
Q

bystander effect and list factors that increase the likelihood of helping

A

the person appears to need and deserve help, the person is in some way similar to us, the person is a woman, we have just observed someone else being helpful, we are not in a hurry, we are in a small town or rural area, we are feeling guilty, we are focused on others and not preoccupied, we are in a good mood.

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41
Q
  1. define and give an example of social exchange theory
A
the theory that our social behavior is an exchange process, the aim of which is to maximize benefits and minimize costs. 
Giving blood (hurts, time) (reduced quilt, helping others)
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42
Q
  1. define and give an example of reciprocity norms
A

an expectation that people will help, not hurt, those who have helped them.
Gifts need to be equal cost, thought, work

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43
Q

define and give an example of social-responsibility norms

A

an expectation that people will help those dependent upon them even though
I am poor I will donate (going to church)

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44
Q
  1. describe balance theory
A

a way of identifying situations in which we’re motivated to change our attitudes towards others

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45
Q

give examples of balanced and unbalanced triads, and tell what is likely to happen in an unbalanced triad

A

I like you and opera, you like me and opera= good
I like you and hate opera, you like me and I hate opera=good
I like you and opera, you like me and hate opera= bad

46
Q
  1. according to social psychologists, how can prejudice, aggressions, and conflict be overcome?
A

Contact, cooperation, communication, conciliation

47
Q
  1. give a general description of the somatoform disorders
A

disorders with physical symptoms but no physical cause

48
Q
  1. tell what the ancient Greeks thought caused hysteria
A

wandering uterus

49
Q
  1. describe conversion disorder .
A

The condition was so named to describe a health problem that starts as a mental or emotional crisis — a scary or stressful incident of some kind — and converts to a physical problem. See murder, goes blind, but not really not faking/malingering

50
Q
  1. describe hypochondriasis.
A

When people believe they have one or more disorders despite a complete lack of medical evidence- leads to doctor shopping (Denise)

51
Q
  1. describe the symptoms of dissociative amnesia and dissociative fugue
A

memory loss due to psychological rather than physical trauma; rare happens mostly during wartime and after natural disasters may lead to dissociative fugue state- forgetting who you are, moving to a new place, starting new life’ type o retrograde amnisia

52
Q
  1. describe the symptoms of dissociative identity disorder and distinguish this disorder from schizophrenia
A

when people have two or more distinct personalities, each of which is in control at different times DID is from trauma schizophrenia is genetic

53
Q
  1. describe evidence for and against considering dissociative identity disorder to be a genuine disorder
A

controversial, many cases may be the result of shaping by therapist
; if genuine it is caused by severe trauma in childhood

54
Q
  1. list symptoms that lead to the diagnosis of major depression
A

sad, sleepy, loss of interest, feeling worthless, loss of weight, increase or decrease in appetite, thoughts of death or suicide, fatique, brain fog

55
Q
  1. compare the symptoms of bipolar disorder with major depression
A

when not in mania, seems like major depression

56
Q
  1. tell which neurotransmitter is too abundant in bipolar disorder
A

dopamine

57
Q
  1. describe what researchers say about the cause of depression (Hint: problems with neurotransmitters). List several factors that increase the risk of depression
A

reuptake of serotonin too rapid, debilitated by a significant loss, such as a loved one’s death, a ruptured marriage, or a lost job

58
Q
  1. tell what a person’s odds are of developing (a) major depression and (b) bipolar disorder if the person has an identical twin with the disorder
A

The risk of major depression and bipolar disorder increases if you have a parent or sibling with the disorder (Sullivan et al., 2000). If one identical twin is diagnosed with major depressive disorder, the chances are about 1 in 2 that at some time the other twin will be, too. If one identical twin has bipolar disorder, the chances are 7 in 10 that the other twin will at some point be diagnosed similarly. Among fraternal twins, the corresponding odds are just under 2 in 10 (Tsuang & Faraone, 1990). The greater similarity among identical twins holds even among twins reared apart

59
Q
  1. list several warning signs or risk factors for suicide; describe what you should do if you think someone you know is suicidal
A

verbal hints, giving possessions away, or withdrawal and preoccupation with death.
Take them seriously, get help

60
Q
  1. explain why men are more likely to actually kill themselves than women, even though women make more suicide attempts as men
A

women think about family, men want to do the manly thing

61
Q
  1. tell why environmental barriers (like jump barriers on high bridges and reduced availability of loaded guns) can reduce the rate of suicide, and why social suggestion can increase the suicide rate
A

it is impulsive

a celebrity did it, movies tell me to

62
Q
  1. explain what happens to the risk of suicide as depressed people begin to respond to treatment and start to get their energy and motivation back
A

they get the energy to follow through

63
Q
  1. list reasons why, according to your e-book, people engage in non-suicidal self-injury
A

gain relief from intense negative thoughts through the distraction of pain, ask for help and gain attention, relieve guilt by self-punishment, or get others to change their negative behavior (bullying, criticism), or to fit in with a peer group.

64
Q
  1. tell what is meant by the term “psychotic”
A

mentally unstable

65
Q
  1. give examples of (a) positive symptoms and (b) negative symptoms of schizophrenia
A

hallucinations, delusions

can’t follow plans, social withdraw, being uncomfortable being with people, poor hygiene

66
Q
  1. describe a possible cause of (a) positive symptoms and (b) negative symptoms of schizophrenia
A

over activity of dopamine neurons in the limbic system

Deterioration of frontal lobes, underactivity of dopamine

67
Q
  1. tell which type of neurotransmitter receptor is much more common in the brains of people with schizophrenia than in those without schizophrenia
A

under activity in of dopamine in frontal lobes causes over activity of dopamine in limbic system

68
Q

describe the evidence indicating that viral infections during pregnancy (especially during the second trimester) increase the risk of schizophrenia

A

Your brain is still developing

69
Q
  1. describe the general characteristics that lead to a diagnosis of personality disorder
A

disruptive, inflexible, and enduring behavior patterns that impair one’s social functioning

70
Q
  1. describe the characteristics of antisocial personality disorder and the research on the role of genetic and environmental factors in the cause of the disorder
A

lack of conscience for wrongdoing, even toward friends and family members. May be aggressive and ruthless or a clever con artist
less frontal lobe activity and tissue
childhood maltreatment

71
Q
  1. describe the key characteristics of (b) bulimia nervosa
A

triggered by a weight-loss diet, broken by gorging on forbidden foods. Binge-purge eaters—mostly women in their late teens or early twenties—eat the way some people with alcohol dependence drink—in spurts, sometimes influenced by friends who are bingeing (Crandall, 1988). In a cycle of repeating episodes, overeating is followed by compensatory purging (through vomiting or laxative use) or fasting

72
Q
  1. describe the key characteristics of (a) anorexia nervosa
A

People with anorexia—usually adolescents and 9 out of 10 times females—drop significantly (typically 15 percent or more) below normal weight. Yet they feel fat, fear gaining weight, remain obsessed with losing weight, and sometimes exercise excessively

73
Q
  1. describe the key characteristics of (c) binge-eating disorder
A

Those who do significant binge eating, followed by remorse—but do not purge or fast

74
Q
  1. describe the three major characteristics of attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). What other problems are kids with ADHD likely to have?
A

Over activity, impulsivity, inattentive

In principal’s office, bad grades

75
Q
  1. tell what happens to ADHD in adulthood, and discuss what does and does not cause ADHD
A

continues
caused by low levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in frontal lobes
not caused by food additives, refined sugar, poor parenting

76
Q
  1. describe the goal of psychoanalysis and explain how this is related to the psychoanalytic view of abnormal behavior
A

Freud’s therapy aimed to bring patients’ repressed or disowned feelings into conscious awareness. By helping them reclaim their unconscious thoughts and feelings and giving them insight into the origins of their disorders, he aimed to help them reduce growth-impeding inner conflicts

77
Q
  1. explain the term “resistance” as it applies to psychoanalysis
A

in psychoanalysis, the blocking from consciousness of anxiety-laden material

78
Q

explain how free association and dream interpretation are used in
psychoanalysis

A

censor in psychoanalysis, the analyst’s noting supposed dream meanings, resistances, and other significant behaviors and events in order to promote insight

In free association, psychoanalytic patients are invited to their thoughts. This technique is intended to help the patient learn more about what he or she thinks and feels, in an atmosphere of non-judgmental curiosity and acceptance. Psychoanalysis assumes that people are often conflicted between their need to learn about themselves, and their (conscious or unconscious) fears of and defenses against change and self-exposure

79
Q

Overall, how effective is psychoanalysis? How expensive and time consuming is psychoanalysis, relative to the other forms of psychotherapy discussed in class?

A

Not very effective, very expensive, takes a lot of time Face to face therapy only takes weeks or months not years

80
Q
  1. briefly explain the roles of active listening and unconditional positive regard in client-centered therapy. What is the main goal of this approach, and who was the founder of the approach?
A

Carl Rogers
active listening—echoing, restating, and seeking clarification of what the person expresses (verbally or nonverbally) and acknowledging the expressed feelings.
a caring, accepting, nonjudgmental attitude, which Carl Rogers believed would help clients to develop self-awareness and self-acceptance.

81
Q
  1. compare and contrast psychoanalysis and behavior therapy
A

Proponents of behavior therapy, however, doubt the healing power of self-awareness. (You can become aware of why you are highly anxious during exams and still be anxious.) They assume that problem behaviors are the problems, and the application of learning principles can eliminate them. Rather than delving deeply below the surface looking for inner causes, behavior therapists view maladaptive symptoms—such as phobias or sexual disorders—as learned behaviors that can be replaced by constructive behaviors.

82
Q
  1. describe the contribution made by Mary Cover Jones to behavior therapy
A

Her strategy is to associate the fear-evoking rabbit with the pleasurable, relaxed response associated with eating.

83
Q
  1. describe systematic desensitization, including the use of anxiety hierarchies
A

a type of exposure therapy that associates a pleasant relaxed state with gradually increasing anxiety-triggering stimuli. It has your rank the parts of the fear

84
Q
  1. describe aversion therapy and explain why it is especially useful in eliminating undesirable behaviors
A

a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol)

85
Q
  1. give examples of the use of positive reinforcement and omission training (time out) in controlling abnormal behavior. What is the immediate impact on behavior when omission training begins?
A

an operant conditioning procedure in which people earn a token of some sort for exhibiting a desired behavior and can later exchange the tokens for various privileges or treats.

86
Q
  1. compare and contrast behavior therapy and cognitive-behavior therapy
A

therapy that teaches people new, more adaptive ways of thinking; based on the assumption that thoughts intervene between events and our emotional reactions; therapy that applies learning principles to the elimination of unwanted behaviors.

87
Q
  1. tell whether clients’ perceptions of psychotherapy are usually positive. Why may clients’ perceptions be misleading indicators of the effectiveness of psychotherapy?
A

Since depression is recurring, patients don’t think it is effective because it will last 6 months then they are depressed again.

88
Q
  1. describe how (a) placebo effects and (b) regression toward the mean explain why clients and therapists may erroneously believe psychotherapy was helpful when it was not
A

One is the placebo effect—the power of belief in a treatment. If you think a treatment is going to be effective, it just may be (thanks to the healing power of your positive expectation).
the tendency for extreme or unusual scores to fall back (regress) toward their average.

89
Q
  1. describe the main conclusion from outcome studies (as opposed to clients’ or therapists’ perceptions) about the effectiveness of psychotherapy
A

Those not undergoing therapy often improve, but those undergoing therapy are more likely to improve more quickly, and with less risk of relapse.

90
Q

st 3 types of alternative therapies that are considered unsupported by scientific evidence

A

rebirthing therapies
recovered-memory therapies
energy therapies

91
Q
  1. define evidence-based practice
A

Using this approach, therapists make decisions about treatment based on research evidence, clinical expertise, and knowledge of the client.

92
Q
  1. discuss the findings regarding the commonalities among different forms of psychotherapy
A

hope for demoralized people, a new perspective, empathetic caring trusting relationship

93
Q
  1. describe the procedure called “trephining” and explain what it was supposed to do
A

cutting holes in skull, to let out demons

94
Q
  1. describe Hippocrates’s contribution to the modern view of abnormal psychology
A

mental disorders are physical not supernatural

95
Q
  1. describe Hippocrates’s theory about what caused abnormal behavior, and describe the treatment based on his theory
A

due to fluid embalance- black bile yellow bile, blood, phlegm

96
Q
  1. explain the role of religion in shaping people’s beliefs about mental illness during the Middle Ages
A

back to spiritual means of mental illness

97
Q
  1. discuss what happened in the late 1700s that was a turning point in the treatment of psychological abnormalities
A

Philippe pinel treated people with respect and dignity; Dorthea Dix supported reform in US

98
Q
  1. describe how ECT is done today
A

get short acting anesthesia and muscle relaxants; 6-12 treatments over 3-6 weeks

99
Q
  1. list the most serious negative side effect that can accompany ECT and tell why many people still choose to undergo ECT, despite the risk
A

long term memory loss, it is very effective

100
Q
  1. describe the original purpose of the lobotomy. What behavioral changes did it cause? Explain why it is seldom used today.
A

cutting the nerves connecting the frontal lobes with the emotion-controlling centers of the inner brain calmed uncontrollably emotional and violent patients. Did help with violence, but also reduces all voluntary movement

101
Q
  1. describe repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation (rTMS) and deep-brain stimulation. Tell what disorder these treatments are used for.
A

the application of repeated pulses of magnetic energy to the brain; used to stimulate or suppress brain activity
neural hub that bridges the thinking frontal lobes to the limbic system. This area, which is overactive in the brain of a depressed or temporarily sad person, calms when treated by ECT or antidepressants. To experimentally excite neurons that inhibit this negative emotion-feeding activity,
depression, parkinsons

102
Q
  1. list the five major types of drugs (e.g., antipsychotic drugs, antidepressants, etc.) that are used to treat psychological disorders, and specify the disorder that each drug is used to treat
A
antipsychotic - schizophrenia
antidepressant- depression
mood stabilizers- seizures
antianxiety(anxiolytics)- anxiety
ADHD- ADHD
103
Q
  1. describe some of negative side effects of traditional antipsychotic drugs, including tardive dyskinesia. Are these side effects permanent?
A

Permanent disfiguring movements

Reduce positive symtoms, sluggishness, tremors and twitches

104
Q
  1. describe the effects of the new antipsychotic drugs. What are the benefits and problems associated with this drug?
A

Obesity, diabetes

Less movement problems, reduce positive and negative symptoms

105
Q
  1. list the disadvantages of antianxiety drugs
A

addictive, prevents you from learning to control anxiety, insomnia

106
Q
  1. tell how long it takes most antidepressant medications to work.
A

1-6 weeks

107
Q

Tell how most antidepressants work. Are there permanent side effects of these drugs?

A

They work by increasing the availability of norepinephrine or serotonin, neurotransmitters that elevate arousal and mood and appear scarce during depression.
Dry mouth, constipation, weight gain

108
Q

Distinguish between tricyclic antidepressants and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and give examples of each. How do SSRIs work?

A

Tricyclic- amitriptyline imipramine- blocking the reabsorption or breakdown of both norepinephrine and serotonin
SSRI- Prozac, Zoloft, paxil- slow the synaptic vacuuming up of serotonin, blocks the reabsorption and removal of serotonin from synapses

109
Q
  1. evaluate the effectiveness of lithium treatment and list some of the problems associated with it. What drug is used as an alternative to lithium to treat bipolar disorder?
A

when he administered lithium to a patient with severe mania and the patient became perfectly well in less than a week
requires blood tests and can cause seizure dyfunction
Depakote

110
Q
  1. tell what methylphenidate (Ritalin) is used to treat
A

ADHD

111
Q
  1. list the elements of therapeutic lifestyle change and tell how effective such changes are in relieving depression
A

Aerobic exercise, 30 minutes a day, at least 3 times weekly (increasing fitness and vitality, stimulating endorphins)
Adequate sleep, with a goal of 7 to 8 hours a night (increasing energy and alertness, boosting immunity)
Light exposure, at least 30 minutes each morning with a light box (amplifying arousal, influencing hormones)
Social connection, with less alone time and at least two meaningful social engagements weekly (satisfying the human need to belong)
Anti-rumination, by identifying and redirecting negative thoughts (enhancing positive thinking)
Nutritional supplements, including a daily fish oil supplement with omega-3 fatty acids (supporting healthy brain functioning)