Exam 5 Flashcards

1
Q

An exaggerated immune response to
a typically harmless antigen

A

Hypersensitivity

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2
Q

Develop minutes to hours after antigen exposure
* Mediated by antibodies
* Type I, type II, type III

A

Immediate reactions

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3
Q

Clinical manifestations don’t develop until 24 to 48 hours
after antigen exposure
* Mediated by sensitized T cells
* Type IV

A

delayed reactions

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4
Q

Also known as ANAPHYLACTIC or immediate
hypersensitivity

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity

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5
Q

typically thought of as “ALLERGIES”

A

type 1 hypersensitivity

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6
Q

Commonly occur within seconds to hours after
exposure to an allergen

A

type 1 2 and 3 hypersensitivities

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7
Q

antibody released in hypersensitivity 1

A

IgE antibody

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8
Q

other cells released during type 1 hypersensitivity are

A

mast cells, eosinophils, basophils

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9
Q

what is type 1 hypersensitivity 3 phases

A

sensitization, activation, effector

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10
Q

what phase: IgE binds to Fc receptors on mast cells and basophils.

A

Sensitization phase

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11
Q

Histamine and heparin are released and bind to target organs. what phase?

A

activation phase

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12
Q

Allergy symptoms are produced: Asthma, Eczema, Hay fever, Hives, Anaphylaxis etc. what phase?

A

effector phase

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13
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Type I
Hypersensitivity

A

Rhinitis “hay fever”
Allergic asthma
hives, anaphylaxis

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14
Q

Treatments for Type I Hypersensitivity

A

antihistamines; monoclonal anti- IgE antibody; allergy shots

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15
Q

Known as antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A

Type II Hypersensitivity

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16
Q

Immediate hypersensitivity
▪ IgG and IgM antibodies directed against a cell surface antigen

A

Type II Hypersensitivity

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17
Q

IgG and IgM bind to cell surface antigen which activates complement. which type?

A

type 2 hypersensitivity

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18
Q

transfusion reactions, hemolytic disease of the newborn, autoimmune hemolytic anemia. these are examples of which type of hypersensitivity?

A

type 2

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19
Q

Tests for Type II Hypersensitivity

A

DAT( direct antiglobulin test)
IAT (indirect antiglobulin test-coombs test)

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20
Q

TESTING FOR TYPE 2

A

DAT AND IAT

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21
Q

TESTING FOR TYPE 1

A

RAST TESTS

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22
Q

examples of type 1 hypersensitivity (AAA)

A

allergies, asthma, anaphylaxis

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23
Q

example of type 2 hypersensitivity

A

transfusion reaction, hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), autoimmune hemolytic anemia

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24
Q

example of type 3 hypersensitivity

A

autoimmune diseases such as SLE and RA

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25
Sequelae to infections
type 3 hypersensitivity
26
treatments for type 1 hypersensitivity
allergy shots, antihistamines, epi pens
27
testing for type 1
RAST or RIST testing
28
common allergies of type 1:
food, dust mites, pollen
29
Small antigen–antibody complexes precipitate out and deposit in tissues.
type 3
30
Complex-mediated hypersensitivity
type 3
31
causes CELL DESTRUCTION due to complement
type 2
32
Complexes bind with complement; vasodilation and Vaso permeability increase. Process results in TISSUE DAMAGE
type 3
33
conditions associated with type 3
RA, SLE, post strep GN
34
testing for type 3
ANA, RF, and Complement
35
Cell-mediated hypersensitivity; Also known as type 4Delayed hypersensitivity
type 4
36
Hypersensitivity peaks 48 to 72 hours after antigen exposure
type 4
37
clinical examples of type 4 are
intracellular pathogens and contact dermatitis
38
Antigen applied to skin surface. Test for contact dermatitis
patch test
39
Antigen injected intradermally; used for PPD
Mantoux testing method
40
Test for tuberculosis exposure
PPD (Protein purified derivative)
41
Disorders in which immune responses are targeted toward self-antigens and result in damage to organs and tissues in the body
autoimmune disease
42
Antibody produced against an antigen found in an individual’s own cells, tissues, or organs
autoantibody
43
what are ANA'S
anti nuclear antibodies used for screening autoimmune diseases
44
Directed against antigens in cell nuclei
ANA'S
45
uniform staining of entire nucleus; due to antibodies to dsDNA, anti-histones, or DNP and seen in SLE, drug-induced lupus, and many other rheumatic autoimmune diseases
Homogeneous (Diffuse)
46
(Native DNA) staining of the outer edges of nucleus; antibody to dsDNA seen in SLE
Peripheral (rim)
47
discrete fluorescent specks throughout the nuclei; due to anti-ENA and seen in patients with SLE, scleroderma, and other rheumatic autoimmune diseases
Speckled
48
a few large areas of fluorescence representing the nucleoli within the nuclei; due to antibodies to RNA and RNP and seen mainly in patients with systemic sclerosis; Anti-RNA
Nucleolar
49
numerous discrete speckles (about 46) in the nuclei of each cell; due to antibodies to proteins in the centromeres of the chromosomes and seen mainly in patients with the CREST syndrome
Centromere
50
homogenous ANA pattern indicative of what
SLE usually
51
a peripheral rim pattern is usually indicative of what?
SLE(highly suggestive)
52
a speckled Ana pattern is usually indicative of what?
SLE diagnosis
53
a nucleolar ana pattern is indicative of what?
scleroderma, sjogren's syndrome
54
a centromere ana pattern is indicative of what?
CREST
55
testing using Hep-2 cells plus fluorescent anti-human IgG cells
Indirect Immunofluorescent Test
56
A chronic systemic inflammatory disease that affects multiple organ systems
SLE
57
Involves the Joints, Kidneys and Neurologic symptoms; butterfly rash
SLE
58
key antibodies in SLE
anti-ds DNA, anti- sm
59
ana patterns for SLE?
Homogeneous, Peripheral & Course Speckled
60
Chronic arthritis of the peripheral joints that can progress to joint deformity and disability
Rheumatoid Arthritis
61
IgM Autoantibody directed against the Fc portion of IgG ✓ capillary swelling, inflammation, deposits of immune complexes; initiates complement cascade
RF
62
Used to confirm positive RF tests ✓ Allows earlier diagnosis an earlier treatment which may reduce joint erosion and deformity.
anti-CCP antibody
63
found in patients with other connective tissue diseases like SLE
RF
64
anti-RNA antibodies directed against tear / salivary ducts
Sjogren’s Syndrome
65
Anti-RNA antibodies; Anti-SS-A & Anti SS-B are key antibodies in what?
Sjogren’s Syndrome
66
Antibodies against the proteins in the centromere of chromosomes; includes CREST syndrome
Systemic sclerosis, SSc (Scleroderma)
67
what does CREST stand for?
Calcinosis , Raynauds, Esophagus dysfunction, Sclerodactyly, Telangiectasia
68
what does ACID stand for?
Allergies, Cytotoxic mediated, Immune complex, Delayed response
69
autoantibody directed against receptor for TSH
Grave's disease
70
autoantibody directed against Basement membrane (kidney, lungs)
Goodpasture's Disease
71
autoantibody directed against thyroglobulin
Hashimoto's Thyroiditis
72
autoantibody directed against Myelin Sheath of Nerves or Myelin Basic Protein
Multiple Sclerosis
73
autoantibody directed against Acetylcholine Receptors at Neuromuscular Junctions
Myasthenia Gravis
74
autoantibody directed against RF (IgM) directed against IgG (Fc)
Rheumatoid Arthritis
75
autoantibody directed against Salivary duct/tear duct
Sjogren's Syndrome
76
Normal TSH; ↓ FT4, Considered Chronic Lymphocytic thyroiditis ▪ Results in Hypothyroidism.
Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
77
Hyperthyroid; weight loss and exophthalmos (bulging eyes); Goiter firm; Decreased TSH & Inc FT4; Trab (antibodies to TSH receptors)
Graves Disease
78
Hyperglycemia; Antibodies against Islet cells of pancreas;fatigue, thirst, frequent urination; Lab results: high blood glucose, high Hgb-A1C
Type I Diabetes (Juvenile Diabetes)
79
Affects small intestines; triggered by dietary gluten; antibodies against gliadin
Celiac Disease
80
antibodies against the myelin basic protein; destruction of CNS; lab test: looking for oligoclonal bands in protein electrophoresis of CSF
Multiple Sclerosis
81
affects neuromuscular system; antibodies against acetylcholine receptors.
Myasthenia Gravis
82
antibodies to basement membranes lining the renal glomeruli and lung alveoli.
Anti-Glomerular Basement Membrane Disease (Goodpasture’s syndrome)
83
monoclonal gammopathies: characterized by a clone of identical plasma cells and overproduction of an immunoglobulin component called Myeloma Protein (M protein).
Plasma Cell Dyscrasias
84
malignancy of mature plasma cells, excess Plasma cells in BM
Multiple Myeloma
85
CD markers of Multiple Myeloma
CD38, CD56, CD138
86
The monoclonal immunoglobulin mostly seen in patients serum with M.M?
IgG
87
what is found in patients urine that has M.M?
Bence Jones protein
88
renal failure and bone pain is seen in what proliferative disorder?
Multiple Myeloma
89
what does the acronym CRAB stand for?
hyperCalcemia, Renal failure, Anemia, Bone lesions
90
kappa lambs light chains in urine is also called what?
bence jones protein
91
malignant proliferation of WBCs in bone marrow
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
92
CD markers for Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
CD19 and CD22
93
symptom of hyper-viscosity serum is caused from what?
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
94
monoclonal immunoglobulin mostly seen is IgM. which disease?
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
95
Proliferation of Monoclonal IgM in serum
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia