Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Serology 1 > ex 4 study guide > Flashcards

ex 4 study guide Flashcards

1
Q

recent acute infection is indicated by what antibody

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

when should a convalescent specimen should be drawn

A

10-14 days after acute specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how much increase should there be between acute and convalescent titer to be considered diagnostic?

A

a four fold increase in titer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IgM negative and IgG positive indicates what?

A

past exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cause of atypical or walking pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

these rbc’s agglutinate at 4 degrees C; reversible at 37 degrees C

A

cold agglutinins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

why is it called called atypical pneumonia?

A

bc it cannot be rated with penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

leading cause of community acquired pneumonia

A

mycoplasma pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

possible cause of false negatives in cold agglutinin test

A

if the sample is cooled and not kept warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASO titer may be run to indicate which two sequel infections?

A

post streptococcocal glomerulonephritis and acute rheumatic fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ASO titer is what kind of inhibition test? what does a positive look like? what is it measured in?

A

hemolytic inahabition test; positive no hemolysis; measured in TODD units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

rocky mountain spotted fever (RMSF) is caused by what bacteria? transmitted by what?

A

Rickettsia rickettsii; spread by the bite of infected ticks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

name 3 spirochete diseases

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, Treponema pallidum, Leptospira

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Causative agent in Lyme disease. transmitted by what? what is the hallmark clinical sign?

A

Borrelia burgdorferi, transmitted by Ixodes ticks (deer ticks); hallmark sign is a red target

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

spirochete that causes leptospirosis? where do humans get exposed?

A

leptospira; occupational and recreational water activities, rat invested surroundings, mucus membrane contact with urine contaminated water. (MAT micro agg. test gold standard )

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

causative agent of syphilis

A

treponema pallidum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

stage of syphilis when rash on palms and soles of feet appear

A

secondary stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

stage of syphilis that is asymptomatic?

A

latent stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

stage of syphilis when chancre appears

A

primary stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

stage of syphilis when neurosyphilis is diagnosed

A

tertiary stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

stage of syphilis where patient is not infectious except pregnant women

A

congenital syphilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the name of the antibody being tested for in non treponemal test?

A

reagin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

drug used to treat syphilis

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are you looking for in direct syphilis detection methods?

A

flexing mobility; corkscrew morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are treponemal test testing for? name two treponemal test
antibodies specific to syphilis; FTA-ABS and TP-PA
26
name 2 non treponemal tests; what are the similarities between the two tests? what are the differences
VDRL and RPR; they both test for reagin; VDRL is heated to inactive complement RPR is not, RPR uses charcoal particles coated with cardiolipin-lecithin antigen & EDTA VDRL uses cardiolipin-lecithin- cholesterol antigen suspension; RPR is rotated at 100rpm/8min and VDRL is rotated at 180rpm/4min, VDRL is microscopically read and RPR is macroscopically read.
27
what is the name of the antigen complex used in non treponemal tests?
cardiolipin-lecithin- cholesterol complex
28
the patients in the secondary stage of syphilis can result in false negatives due to what? what do you perform bc of this?
false negatives can be due to prozone; 2 fold serial dilution is recommended
29
what are some causes in false positives in non treponemal testing?
if a patient has an underlying infection or autoimmune Disease. ex. SLE, RA, malaria, hepatitis, mono, aging, pneumonia
30
what is the most sensitive test for syphilis in any stage?
FTA-ABS
31
what test is used for CSF or congenital testing for syphilis?
VDRL
32
what test is a screening for syphilis done on donor blood? what sample do u start with? if pos then what next
RPR if post then reflex to FTA-ABS
33
which type of syphilis test is sensitive but not specific for syphilis
non treponemal test
34
which type of syphilis test are used to monitor effective treatment?
non treponemal test
35
route of transmission through blood or semen
parenteral transmission
36
route of transmission from mother to child during pregnancy or birth, breastfeeding
perinatal transmission
37
hepatitis is an inflammation of the liver. nonspecific indicators include what?
hepatomegaly, liver tenderness, jaundice, dark urine, light colored feces, elevated bili and liver enzymes
38
two hepatitis infections transmitted by fecal-oral route?
HAV&HEV
39
three hepatitis infections transmitted perinatally and parenterally?
HBV,HCV,HDV
40
found in over crowding, poor and homeless populations
HAV
41
this virus is always found as a co-infection of HBV?
HDV
42
First antigen to be detected after infection; signals an acute or active infection; screen blood donors for this antigen; this antigen is used to make vaccines
Hep B surface Antigen (HBsAG)
43
Second antigen to be detected, indicates infectivity (transmissibility) and still acute infection.
Hep Be Antigen (HBeAG) e stands for envelope
44
antibody to Hep B core antigen
Anti-HBc
45
FIRST antibody to be detected in hepatitis?
Anti-HBc (IgM)
46
what antibody IgM levels indicates current or recent infection? used when HBsAG is undetectable
Anti-HBc
47
total Anti-HBc is mainly what immunoglobulin?
IgG
48
antibody to HBe antigen; SECOND antibody to be detected
Anti-HBe
49
this antibody indicates RECOVERY of HBV infection
Anti-HBe
50
antibody to HB surface antigen; THIRD antibody to be detected
Anti-HBs
51
indicates recovery to past infection & IMMUNITY.
Anti-HBs
52
if only Anti-HBs is found this indicates what
immunity due to vaccine
53
any initial positive results for HBV should be verified how?
retesting and confirmed by molecular testing
54
in chronic HBV state what ANTIBODY is the only one testing positive
Anti-HBc
55
these patients never develop immunity and continue to CARRY the virus and are still infectious
CHRONIC CARRIERS
56
This is given to employees after a needle stick injury to protect them from HBV
HBIG (hepatitis b immune globulin)
57
This herpes simplex virus is associated with oral infections, cold sores, fever blisters
HSV-1 (Herpes simplex virus 1)
58
This herpes simplex virus is associated with genital infections and STD's
HSV-2 (Herpes simplex virus 2)
59
what does EBV typically cause?
infectious mono
60
Antibodies that reacts with antigens from two or more species; found in 40 – 80% of IM patients (agglutinate sheep, rabbit, etc RBC)
heterophile antibodies
61
monospot test for what type of antibody ?
heterophile antibody
62
symptoms of infectious mono include what
fever, lymphadenopathy, sore throat, fatigue
63
most important infectious agent associated with organ transplantation failure or GVHD (Graft-versus-Host Disease)
CMV (cytomegalovirus)
64
cmv negative units of blood are given to what type of patients?
infants, newborns
65
Varicella-Zoster virus is the cause of what?
varicella(chicken pox) and herpes zoster (shingles)
66
what vaccine covers Varicella-Zoster virus?
MMRV
67
Rubella is the cause of what?
German measles
68
what vaccine is given for Rubella?
MMRV
69
German measles can cause what in newborns?
birth defects, or miscarriages from infected mothers
70
Rubeola virus is the cause of what? what vaccine?
Measles; MMRV
71
Type of vaccine that is live heat inactivated pathogens (usually a virus), not able to produce disease but able to produce a strong immune response forming antibodies
Attenuated vaccine
72
common clinical condition of this virus is parotitis (swollen glands in neck)
Mumps virus; MMRV vaccine
73
immunization MMRV stands for what
Measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella
74
this virus is responsible for adult T-cell leukemia and lymphomas
Human T-cell Lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1/2)
75
causes warts, may cause cancer, asymptomatic, mostly an std
Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
76
when RNA converts to DNA inside infected cell wall. what type of virus is this?
retrovirus
77
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) targets and attacks what specifically ?
CD4 lymphocytes
78
Screen for HIV-1/HIV-2 antibodies by what testing method?
ELISA
79
what confirmation method is used for HIV?
Western Blot and HIV NAT
80
normal adult CD4:CD8 ratio
2:1
81
HIV patient ratio of CD4:CD8
1:2
82
transmission of HIV can be through what?
perinatal or intimate sexual contact or by contact of blood or body fluids
83
HIV-1 virus causes what?
AIDS
84
how many stages of HIV? and what are they
3; primary phase 1, latency phase 2, AIDS phase 3
85
this phase of HIV causes flu like symptoms or IM like symptoms with a decrease in CD4
primary (Phase 1)
86
this phase of HIV is asymptomatic and an increase in CD4
latency (phase 2)
87
this phase your immunocompromised; opportunistic infections; decrease in CD4
AIDS (phase 3)
88
this testing method is used in monitoring CD4 counts
flow cytometry
89
what is a hallmark feature for HIV infection?
decreased CD4 cell pop
90
profound immunosuppression with life threatening opportunistic infections
AIDS infection
91
recommended for HIV infected persons to delay disease; not a cure
Antiretroviral therapy (ART)
92
newer serological testing for aids include testing for what?
p24 Ag and HIV RNA
93
what is the gold standard for monitoring HIV disease?
CD4 T-cell enumeration by immunophenotyping using flow cytometry
94
what CD4 T-cell count indicates AIDS (stage 3 HIV)
CD4 T-cell count <200/ul
95
the amount of HIV RNA in a patients plasma
viral load
96
reflects the natural history of HIV infection, detectable 11 days after infection; physicians watch this to predict progression
viral load

Serology 1 (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions