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Exploring Concepts in Biology > Exam 5 > Flashcards

Exam 5 Flashcards

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1
Q

All animals except sponges have _____, groups of cells that work together to perform a specific function

A

tissues

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2
Q

One key adaptation of animals was the evolution of an ____ ____, a fluid-filled gap between the outer wall of the body and the outer wall of the digestive system

A

body cavity

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3
Q

Cnidarians are the only animal phylum to display ____ ____, meaning that their bodies can be divided any way through the center point to yield two even halves. All other adult animals display ____ ____, meaning that their bodies can only be sliced lengthwise through the midline to produce two even halves

A

radial symmetry; bilateral symmetry

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4
Q

All animals eat other organisms in order to gain building materials for the body. This makes them _____, since they obtain necessary energy and chemical building blocks from the environment

A

heterotrophs

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5
Q

All animals are _____, organisms with cells that are relatively large, complex, and contain membrane-enclosed organelles such as the nucleus

A

eukaryotes

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6
Q

which of the following is a defining characteristic of animals but not of plants?

A

Animals, but not plants, are heterotrophs

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7
Q

the animal phyla can be divided into three separate clades based on which characteristic

A

the symmetry of the body

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8
Q

what happened during the cambrian explosion

A

there was a rapid diversification of animal forms

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9
Q

most animals fall into one of how many phyla?

A

9

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10
Q

how many of the animal phyla include single-celled animals

A

0

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11
Q

What defines radial symmetry?

A

any plane of symmetry passing through the center of the organisms split it into equal halves

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12
Q

being a heterotroph means

A

obtaining your food by eating other organisms

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13
Q

the first animals evolved from ____

A

protists

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14
Q

which specialized structures are unique to the cnidarians

A

stinging cells

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15
Q

sponges are mostly found in ____

A

marine ecosystems

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16
Q

which body form of the cnidarians is sessile

A

the polyp

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17
Q

what do sponges and cnidarians have in common

A

none of the above are characteristics that sponges and cnidarians

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18
Q

which of the following best describes sponges?

A

they are asymmetrical, lack tissues, and do not move

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19
Q

which of the following best describes cnidarians

A

they have radial body symmetry, tissues, and stinging cells

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20
Q

which characteristic do all mollusks have?

A

mantle

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21
Q

flatworms are most closely related to the ______

A

annelids

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22
Q

serial repetition of segments is a defining characteristic of which worm phylum

A

annelids

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23
Q

roundworms are more closely related to arthropods than to flatworms

A

true

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24
Q

which arthropod subgroup includes the spiders?

A

arachnids

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25
Q

many, though not all, mollusks have a shell. what secretes the shell?

A

the mantle

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26
Q

which of the following best describes mollusks?

A

they are bilaterally symmetrical and have a soft body sometimes covered with a shell

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27
Q

some restaurants serve seafood platters that contain oysters, mussels, and clams. such platters therefore consist of ______

A

mollusks

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28
Q

gastropods are the most numerous group of mollusks and include the ______

A

snails and slugs

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29
Q

which characteristic is found in all arthropods

A

an exoskeleton made of chitin

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30
Q

worms all appear to be closely related but have distinct evolutionary histories, resulting in the classification of worms into ______ phyla

A

threee

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31
Q

which arthropod subgroup includes animals with six legs?

A

insects

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32
Q

which of the following phyla is the most diverse and numerous of all animal phyla?

A

the arthropods

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33
Q

which phylum is most closely related to the arthropods?

A

the roundworms

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34
Q

most chordates are _____

A

vertebrates

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35
Q

the echinoderms are most closely related to the _______

A

chordates

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36
Q

all vertebrates have _______

A

a skull and a backbone

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37
Q

which of the following features are used to identify chordates?

A

all of the above are features used to identify chordates

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38
Q

which chordate trait evolved first

A

skull and backbone

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39
Q

which is most closely related to the hagfishes

A

lampreys

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40
Q

compared to mammals and reptiles, what characteristic prevents amphibians from surviving far from water

A

their eggs do not have an amnion to prevent them from drying out

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41
Q

which group of fishes have rise to amphibians

A

lobe-finned fishes

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42
Q

how do bony fish regulate buoyancy?

A

with an air-filled swim bladder

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43
Q

what do hammerhead sharks have in common with goldfish?

A

they both have a lateral line system

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44
Q

what is the function of a fish’s operculum?

A

To protect the gills

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45
Q

which group of fishes evolved first ( in other words, is most ancient)?

A

jawless fishes

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46
Q

although exceptions do exist, which is a distinctively amphibian trait

A

all of these are distinctive amphibian traits

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47
Q

what characterizes terrestrial tetrapods?

A

lives on lands, has four limbs

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48
Q

what is the main difference between amphibians and reptiles?

A

amphibians are tied to water for reproduction, whiles reptiles have amniotic eggs that can survive on dry land

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49
Q

birds are a type of reptile

A

true

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50
Q

all mammals _____

A

have mammary glands and hair

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51
Q

which subgroup of mammals raises their young in pouches

A

marsupials

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52
Q

humans belong to which subgroup of mammals

A

eutherians

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53
Q

which of the following is human’s closest living relative

A

chimpanzees

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54
Q

the earliest hominin to use fire was

A

homo eresctus

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55
Q

on which continent would you have seen the very earliest members of homo sapiens

A

africa

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56
Q

which of the following is NOT a primate

A

all are primates

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57
Q

____ refers to the study of the structure of an organisms body parts, while _____ refers the study of the function of those parts

A

anatomy; physiology

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58
Q
A
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59
Q

the blood, blood vessels and heart in a human constitute _____

A

an organ system

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60
Q

form refers to ____ and function refers to ______

A

anatomical structure; physiological actions

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61
Q

organs are made up of ______ to perform a specific function

A

different types of tissues

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62
Q

what type of animal tissue contains blood, cartilage, and bone?

A

connective

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63
Q

which of the following is a characterisitic of smooth muscle

A

is controlled by involuntary nervous signals

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64
Q

connective tissue is the most variable of the tissue types. which one of the following is not categorized as connective tissue

A

muscle

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65
Q

tissues are made up of ____ that work together to perform a function

A

similar cells

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66
Q

what is the role of the epithelium

A

helps protect the body from the external environment

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67
Q

response to a stimulus, such that the effect of the stimulus is counteracted, is called a______ feedback

A

negative

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68
Q

maintaining a steady-state internal environment, despite a changing external environment is called

A

homeostasis

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69
Q

How is diabetes linked with homeostasis?

A

Diabetes results from the body not responding with a negative feedback to the level of glucose in the blood.

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70
Q

This substance is stored in the gall bladder and released to aid in the digestion of fat

A

bile

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71
Q

What is the role of the villi?

A

To absorb small nutrient molecules from the digestive tract

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72
Q

Most of the absorption of nutrients (besides water) takes place in the ________.

A

small intestine

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73
Q
A
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74
Q

What moves the food from your mouth to your stomach when you swallow?

A

Peristaltic muscle contractions

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75
Q

Which of the following statements about digestion is true?

A

Digestion can be both mechanical and chemical, and it occurs both in the mouth and in the stomach.

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76
Q

The main role of the large intestine is to ________.

A

absorb water

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77
Q

The main role of the liver is to ________.

A

produce bile, which helps the process of digestion

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78
Q

Where does most of the absorption of food nutrients take place?

A

In the small intestine

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79
Q

Which accessory organ’s secretions neutralize stomach acid before it reaches the intestines?

A

The pancreas

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80
Q

What are the four stages of food processing, ordered from beginning to end?

A

Ingestion, digestion, absorption, elimination

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81
Q

Which of the following can result in an ulcer?

A

Helicobacter pylori

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82
Q

Which of the following would NOT be considered an essential nutrient?

A

Dairy

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83
Q

An essential nutrient is specifically a nutrient that your body ________.

A

cannot make by itself

84
Q

Which of the following is a type of essential nutrient?

A

All of the above are types of essential nutrients.

85
Q

What is kwashiorkor?

A

A malnourished condition caused by a lack of adequate protein in the diet

86
Q

What causes a stomach ulcer?

A

A bacterial infection

87
Q

____________ diffuses out of the alveoli and into the pulmonary capillaries, while _______ diffuses out of the pulmonary capillaries and into the alveolar sacs.

A

Oxygen; carbon dioxide

88
Q

The term interface can be used to describe the surface across which molecules and ions are exchanged, often diffusing between external and internal environments or between organ systems. What part of the respiratory system forms the interface between the respiratory system and the circulatory system?

A

Alveoli

89
Q

What is the role of the epiglottis?

A

Prevents food from entering the windpipe

90
Q

In what way can the human circulatory system be described as double circulation?

A

The human cardiovascular system includes the pulmonary circuit and a systemic circuit.

91
Q

Which are the thinnest blood vessels?

A

Capillaries

92
Q

Choose the defining characteristic of all arteries.

A

They only carry blood away from the heart.

93
Q

The pulmonary circuit specifically circulates blood ________.

A

from the heart to the lungs

94
Q

The ______________ is the chamber where blood enters the heart from the body and receives ____________ blood.

A

right atrium; deoxygenated

95
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a vein?

A

Is a location of exchange with body cells

96
Q

Select the correct sequence for the pathway of blood through the heart.

A

Body →
Right atrium →
Right ventricle →
Lungs →
Left atrium →
Left ventricle →
Body

97
Q

What is the primary function of the sinoatrial node?

A

To initiate the contraction of the heart

98
Q

Which of the following correctly explains what a heart attack is?

A

Arteries that supply the heart with oxygen become blocked

99
Q

If your red blood cells have no carbohydrate markers on the membrane, what is your blood type?

A

O

100
Q

Which of the following combinations of components of blood play a role in blood clotting?

A

Platelets and fibrin

101
Q

Select the feature which is involved in the clotting process.

A

Select the feature which is involved in the clotting process.

102
Q

Which of the following blood cells fights infections?

A

White blood cells

103
Q

What is the main role of red blood cells?

A

Carry oxygen

104
Q

Blood types A, B, AB, and O are determined by ________.

A

carbohydrates on the surface of the red blood cells

105
Q

A person with carbohydrates A and B on the surface of their red blood cells will have which of the following blood types?

A

Blood type AB, as both A and B are present

106
Q

Following an injury to your hand, the injured area appears red and swollen. It feels painful and warm to the touch. What is the cause of these symptoms?

A

The inflammatory response

107
Q

What is the name of the response to an injury in which fluids leak from dilated blood vessels, causing redness and swelling?

A

Inflammatory response

108
Q

Which type of white blood cells produces defensive proteins called antibodies?

A

B cells

109
Q

Identify the primary role of the lymphatic system.

A

To produce and store large numbers of white blood cells

110
Q

How do vaccines convey long-term immunity to some pathogens?

A

Memory cells

111
Q

How does HIV infection weaken the immune system?

A

HIV destroys helper T cells.

112
Q

Which medication prevents viral infections by priming the immune system against a specific virus?

A

Vaccines

113
Q

What is the condition called when your body’s immune system overreacts to an otherwise harmless foreign particle?

A

Allergy

114
Q

What type of disorder is AIDS?

A

An immunodeficiency

115
Q

Estradiol, a female steroid hormone, is mostly produced and secreted by ovaries into the bloodstream where the hormone can travel through the entire body. How does nature insure that estradiol only affects appropriate target cells and NOT all of the cell types in the body?

A

Similar to other fat-soluble hormones, estradiol diffuses through cell membranes. Once inside the cell, the hormone binds to receptor proteins, which are only present in appropriate target cells. The hormone has no effect unless bound to the matching receptor protein.

116
Q

The thyroid gland plays a major role in the regulation of ____________________.

A

metabolism

117
Q

There are many organs and glands of the endocrine system, but which one is the master controller?

A

The hypothalamus

118
Q

What are hormones?

A

They are chemicals transported in the blood that affect target cells throughout the body.

119
Q

Urine contains of mostly __________.

A

water

120
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of structures of the urinary system in the creation to the excretion of urine?

A

Kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra

121
Q

What is the name of the tubes that run from the kidneys to the bladder?

A

Ureters

122
Q

What is the purpose of dialysis treatments?

A

To detoxify dangerous chemicals in the bloodstream

123
Q

What is the part of the kidney where urine is formed?

A

The nephron

124
Q

On what day does ovulation occur during the female reproductive cycle?

A

About day 14

125
Q

Which of the following structure of the male reproductive anatomy stores sperm?

A

Epididymis

126
Q

The release of an egg from an ovary is called ________.

A

ovulation

127
Q

Where in the mother’s body does a developing embryo implant?

A

The uterus

128
Q

When is an unborn child called a fetus?

A

From the 9th week of pregnancy to birth

129
Q

What is the most common STD that is caused by bacteria?

A

Chlamydia

130
Q

Which of the following forms of contraception is removable?

A

An intrauterine device

131
Q

Genital herpes is a sexually transmitted disease caused by a ________.

A

virus

132
Q

The somatic nervous system would control which of the following?

A

Kicking a ball into a soccer goal

133
Q

Which of the following structures of the brain consists of right and left hemispheres?

A

Cerebrum

134
Q

The spinal cord is part of the ________ nervous system.

A

central

135
Q

What are the electrical signals generated by neurons called?

A

Action potentials

136
Q

What would happen if the sensory neurons in your hand could not transmit a signal?

A

You could move your fingers but you could not feel something touch them.

137
Q

What carries a signal from one neuron to the next?

A

A neurotransmitter

138
Q

Sensory receptor cells convert a stimulus, such as an odor molecule or light, into an electrical signal that is conveyed to the nervous system. This process is called __________.

A

signal transduction

139
Q

Sound is “heard” when sound waves cause structures inside your ears to physically vibrate. A signal is then sent to your brain where it is interpreted as sound. What type of receptor in the ear is responsible for the sense of hearing?

A

Mechanoreceptors

140
Q

What type of connective tissue connects bones together?

A

Ligaments

141
Q

Which of the following statements about bones is false?

A

Bones are dry and dead, made up of calcium and connective fibers with a few blood vessels running through them.

142
Q

Your thigh bone, the largest bone in your body, is called the ________.

A

femur

143
Q

A _____________________ shortens when sliding filaments move over each other in muscle contraction.

A

Sarcomere

144
Q

Which of the following is a major protein found in muscles?

A

Both actin and myosin

145
Q

How do the muscles in your arm extend your arm outward?

A

Some muscles in your arm relax, and others contract, pulling the arm straight.

146
Q

Ecology is best defined as the study of ________.

A

the interactions between living organisms and their environments

147
Q

Environmentalism is ________.

A

a philosophical and social movement concerned with preserving the environment

148
Q

in a philosophical and social movement concerned with preserving the environment

A

discovery science

149
Q

Ecology is a science that can be carried out by ________.

A

both learning by observing and running experiments to test hypotheses

150
Q

Ecology and environmentalism are the same scientific discipline.

A

false

151
Q

Which of the following is not an example of goods and services provided by the environment?

A

All of the above are examples of goods and services provided by the environment.

152
Q

Why are photosynthetic algae limited to surface water in marine ecosystems?

A

Visible light cannot penetrate deeply into the ocean, even when the water is clear.

153
Q

An ecosystem is a collection of all the ________ in a given area.

A

living and nonliving things

154
Q

A community in ecology is defined as ________.

A

A community in ecology is defined as ________.

155
Q

What is the difference between a community and an ecosystem?

A

A community includes interacting populations without their surrounding environment, while an ecosystem includes the surrounding environment.

156
Q

A wolf eats a rabbit that eats grass. The wolf is a(n) ________.

A

consumer

157
Q

A wolf eats a rabbit that eats grass. The grass is a ________.

A

producer

158
Q

Abiotic factors are ________.

A

nonliving components of an ecosystem

159
Q

All of the following are abiotic factors within an ecosystem except ________.

A

All of the above are abiotic factors.

160
Q

All of the above are abiotic factors.

A

Amount of moss available to the consumers

161
Q

A dispersion pattern refers to ________.

A

the spacing of organism throughout a habitat

162
Q

An age pyramid with a broad base that quickly slopes up to a narrow top would be indicative of ________.

A

a developing nation

163
Q

Vegetarians belong in which trophic level?

A

Primary consumers

164
Q

A sudden natural catastrophe resulting in massive die-offs would be categorized as a density-________ limiting factor.

A

independent

165
Q

Which growth model would you expect to see in a stable population?

A

Logistic

166
Q

Human birth rate peaked in the 1980s and has been slowly declining ever since. How is this expected to affect our population size over the next several decades?

A

The human population size will continue to increase, but not as fast as before.

167
Q

What can a human population’s age pyramid tell you about current and future needs?

A

All of the above

168
Q

There are little birds that spend a great deal of time on the back of a rhinoceros and eat the blood-sucking ticks out of the rhino’s ears. The rhino greatly benefits from the relationship, since it cannot remove the ticks itself. The tick-rhino relationship is an example of ________.

A

parasitism

169
Q

In which intermediate biome do most organisms have mechanisms to attach to the substrate and to avoid desiccation?

A

The intertidal zone

170
Q

Why are there no large trees in the tundra?

A

The ground is frozen all year.

171
Q

Phytoplankton is an example of a ________.

A

producer

172
Q

Which principle states that no two species competing for the exact same resources can coexist?

A

Competitive exclusion principle

173
Q

The tendency of toxins to accumulate in top predators is called biological ________.

A

magnification

174
Q

Imagine you were the manager of a national park with cheetahs. The cheetahs feed primarily on gazelles, while the gazelles eat grass. It takes an acre of grassland to feed one gazelle, and it takes ten gazelles to feed one cheetah. How much grassland do you need to support a population of 10 cheetahs?

A

100 acres

175
Q

What type of species, if removed from the community, could lead to the collapse of the entire community?

A

Keystone species

176
Q

The buildup of soil on bare rock by the decomposition of early colonizers is characteristic of ________ succession.

A

primary

177
Q

The Asian kudzu bug (Megacopta cribaria) arrived in Atlanta in 2009 and is quickly spreading across the South. In addition to eating kudzu, it also eats soybeans and can decimate entire crops. The kudzu bug is a type of ________ species.

A

invasive

178
Q

The use of multiple forms of pest control including biological, chemical, and the planting of pest-resistant crops is a strategy commonly called ________.

A

integrated pest management

179
Q

Before it was banned in the United States in 1972, the pesticide DDT was used to treat wetlands where mosquitos breed. There, algae would accumulate DDT in their tissues. Small aquatic animals such as mayfly nymphs would eat the algae. Fish would eat the mayfly nymphs and osprey would eat the fish.
Which tropic level would have the highest DDT levels?

A

Tertiary consumers

180
Q

At what level is biodiversity often studied and measured?

A

All of the above

181
Q

What are the main causes of biodiversity loss?

A

Habitat destruction, overharvesting, invasive species, pollution, and climate change

182
Q

Robert Paine studied sea stars in the intertidal zone along the northern Pacific coast. When he removed sea stars from a study area, their prey, two mussel species, increased exponentially. This crowded out other species, and the overall biodiversity of the community was greatly reduced.
What role in the community did the sea star play?

A

Keystone species

183
Q

Terrestrial biomes are defined in a large part by ________.

A

the dominant plants that live there

184
Q

A biome characterized by warm, fairly dry climate that primarily contains grasses with scattered, isolated trees is a ________.

A

savanna

185
Q

Of the biomes listed, which is best adapted to seasonal fires?

A

Chaparral

186
Q

The distribution of terrestrial biomes on Earth depends mostly on ________.

A

both temperature and rainfall

187
Q

Seed banks are centers that maintain a collection of seeds from a large number of varieties of many crop plant species.
What is the primary value of a seed bank?

A

Seeds stored in a bank can be used to ensure genetic biodiversity of crop plants.

188
Q

Why is an estuary considered an intermediate biome?

A

It is the transition zone between freshwater and saltwater biomes.

189
Q

How might the removal of a wetland affect a nearby city?

A

Wetlands reduce flooding, so the removal of a wetland would increase the likelihood of the city flooding.

190
Q

Where would a coral reef most likely be found?

A

In the warm tropical waters where the sun can penetrate

191
Q

Although freshwater biomes cover less than 1% of the Earth’s surface, they are important because ________.

A

All of the above are reasons why freshwater biomes are important.

192
Q

Aquatic biomes cover most of the Earth’s surface.

A

true

193
Q

Aquatic biomes are defined primarily by ________.

A

their salinity

194
Q

What can you predict about a population if the age structure chart is shaped like a rectangle?

A

This population has a “0” growth rate.

195
Q

A drought in Ethiopia results in the deaths of thousands of wild goats. What is this an example of?

A

A density independent limiting factor

196
Q

All ecosystems need energy. What is the originating source for most of the energy that powers ecosystems on this planet?

A

Solar energy

197
Q

All living things need carbon. How does most carbon enter the living portion of an ecosystem?

A

Atmospheric CO2 taken in by photosynthesis

198
Q

All living things need nitrogen. How does nitrogen enter the living portion of an ecosystem?

A

Atmospheric N2 taken in by soil bacteria

199
Q

An ecological footprint is an estimated amount of land and water required to sustain one person. It is measured in global hectares. What is the ecological footprint for an average U.S. citizen?

A

8.2 global hectares per person

200
Q

What category describes a species that, while not presently at risk of extinction, could likely be at risk of extinction in the near future?

A

A threatened species

201
Q

Of the following, which is contributing the most to the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A

Combustion of fossil fuels

202
Q

Using sunflower plants to naturally remove heavy toxins from contaminated soil is an example of ________.

A

bioremediation

203
Q

The responsible management (use and conservation) of the earth’s resources indefinitely is called ________.

A

sustainable development

204
Q

Which is the dominant greenhouse gas leading to global warming of the atmosphere?

A

CO2

205
Q

How does an increase in atmospheric greenhouse gases increase global temperatures?

A

By preventing some of the heat from escaping the planet’s surface

Exploring Concepts in Biology (5 decks)

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