Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Exploring Concepts in Biology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

An _____ is an inherited feature that varies from individual to individual

A

Character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

an _____ is one particular variation of a character

A

trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most human genes come in alternate versions called _____

A

alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is expressed in the organism is called the _____ allele

A

dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If an organism has two non-identical versions of a gene, the one that is not expressed in the organism is called the _____ allele

A

recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is different between two alleles of the same gene?

A

The information they carry. For example, one allele might carry the information for blue eye pigment, while the other carries the information for brown eye pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Two alleles of the same gene ____

A

can be the same or can be different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When I say a flower is “purple”, what have I described?

A

Its phenotype

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Imagine that eye color in cats is controlled by a single gene and that there are two alleles: black eyes and orange eyes. All of the offspring of a cross between a black-eyed cat and an orange-eyed cat have black eyes. This means that the allele for black eyes is _____ the allele for orange eyes

A

dominant to

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a homozygous milk chocolate Easter bunny is crossed with a homozygous dark chocolate Easter bunny. Assuming dark chocolate is dominant over milk chocolate and the traits segregate according to Mendelian genetics, which traits will be observable in the offspring?

A

All dark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Assuming complete dominance, what is the expected ratio of genotypes of the offspring following the cross of two heterozygotes?

A

1:2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Assuming complete dominance, whats the expected ratio of phenotypes of the offspring following the cross of two heterozygotes?

A

3:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define Mendel’s law of independent assortment.

A

The inheritance of one character has no effect on the inheritance of another character

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In a cross involving two autosomal traits on different chromosomes in which the parents are purebred for the opposite forms of both traits, how many of the offspring would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits?

A

1 out of 16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The following F1 cross is made: BBGg x Bbgg. Which is NOT a possible outcome in the F2 generation?

A

BbGG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Mendel’s law of independent assortment?

A

Independent assortment means that each pair of alleles segregates independently of the other pairs of alleles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mendel formulated his principles of inheritance based on ______

A

observations on the outcomes of breeding experiments. The underlying processes were unknown at the times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mendel observed that pairs of alleles were separated or segregated in gametes and that they were rejoined in fertilization. We know that pairs of ____ are segregated in ____ and then are rejoined through fertilization

A

homologous chromosomes….meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

As we now understand it, the Law of Independent Assortment applies _____

A

to pairs of genes that are on different chromosomes, but NOT to pairs of genes that are close together on the SAME chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If you are a male, the Law of Assortment indicates that your gametes contain ____

A

a random mix of the chromosomes you inherited from each parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How have Mendel’s laws fared as we have learned more about cell biology and processes such as meiosis?

A

Our new knowledge has helped to explain some of the exceptions to Mendel’s law of inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sickle-cell disease is caused by a recessive form of hemoglobin. Two parents that do NOT have the disease give birth to a chid that does. What are the genotypes of the mother and father for the hemoglobin gene?

A

Both parents are heterozygous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Assuming incomplete dominance, if a homozygous red-flowered plant is crossed with a homozygous white-flowered plant, what will be the color of the offspring?

A

Pink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following processes generates a continuum (spectrum) of varying phenotypes?

A

Polygenic inheritance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fur color in rabbits is controlled by multiple alleles. What does this mean?

A

Rabbits fur color is controlled by a single gene, but there are multiple versions of that gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following statements apply to the variation in human skin color?

A

-Human skin color variation evolved recently in hominid evolution, once some populations of our human ancestors migrated out Africa.
- Human skin color variation likely evolved in response to differences in the intensity of sunlight around the world.
- human skin color variation is primarily determined by the type and amount of melanin pigment in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes melanin’s functions?

A

Lighter skin has less of the dark-brown eumelanin that protects cells from UV damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Darker skin is more prevalent in high-UV areas. Dr. Nina Jablonski proposed a hypothesis to explain the selective pressure for darker skin in these environments. On what evidence did she base this hypothesis?

A

the melanin in darkly pigmented skin protects circulating folate from being destroyed by the UV radiation, and folate is important in human reproduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Based on the risk factors discussed in the video, which of the following groups would be most likely to develop the bone disease rickets?

A

children born to parents with dark skin living far from the equator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In what way does natural selection depend on the specific environment in which an organism lives?

A

when the environment changes, traits that were beneficial to an organism may become harmful and vice versa.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Genes located near one another on the same chromosome are often inherited together. These are called ______

A

linked genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Imagine that five hypothetical genes are arranged on a chromosome in the following order: G–H–I–J–K. Which two genes are most likely to have a crossover occur between them?

A

G and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If genes are described as “sex-linked’, then they are ______

A

typically on the X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Recessive disorders related to genes found on the X chromosome but not on the Y chromosome are more commonly expressed in ______

A

Males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The inheritance pattern for red-green color blindness is different for males compared to females. Red-green color blindness is much more common in males than in females. What does this suggest about the gene for red-green color blindness?

A

The gene for this trait is located on the X sex chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How could an embryonic stem cell be used to repair a severed spine?

A

Embryonic stem cells can grow into any other cell type, including a nerve cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Guar are increasingly rare wild oxen found in Asia. How would you clone this animal?

A

Fusing a guar cell nucleus with an egg cell from a domestic cow that has had its nucleus removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Mitosis occurs in _____; meiosis occurs in _____

A

Somatic or body cells…germ cell in the testes or ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Looking through a light microscope at a cell undergoing division, you see that the condensed have lined along the midline of the cell. The homologous pairs are NOT joined in tetrads. Each chromosome takes its own place in line, independent of its homolog. You are witnessing _____

A

Metaphase of mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Fertilization joins ___ to produce a ____

A

haploid gametes…diploid zygote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Duplication of the chromosomes to produce sister chromatids ______

A

occurs in both mitosis and meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If it weren’t for ____, chromosome number would double with every generation of sexual reproduction

A

meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is the largest unit of DNA organization?

A

genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A sugar, a phosphate, and a base are the components of a _____

A

nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

a page is to a book as a ____ is to the genome

A

gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How many polynucleotides are found in one molecule of DNA

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Which of the following make up the backbone of a polynucleotide strand?

A

sugar and phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What do the letters DNA stand for?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is different from one DNA nucleotide to the next?

A

The base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which part of a nucleotide molecule in DNA encodes genetic information?

A

The base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the monomer of the DNA molecule?

A

Nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

After DNA replication, _________

A

Each of the two daughter DNA molecules contains one strand from the original DNA molecule and one newly synthesized strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How are DNA and RNA differ?

A

DNA contains the bases A, G, C, and T; RNA contains the bases A, G, C, and U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

If DNA directs the production of RNA, what does RNA make?

A

RNA makes proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding DNA and RNA?

A

All of the above are correct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does transcription occur in the nucleus and not in the cytoplasm in eukaryotes?

A

DNA cannot leave the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which process results in the creation of mRNA?

A

Transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

During transcription of a specific gene, which of the following serves as a template for the formation of RNA?

A

One strand of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is a gene?

A

All of these and more are part of the expanding definition of a gene.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What process enables several different proteins to be produced from one gene?

A

RNA splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does “transfer RNA” actually transfer?

A

Amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

If the codon is AAA, what is the complementary anticodon?

A

UUU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Where does translation occur in eukaryotes?

A

In the cytoplasm only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The gene for the beta chain of normal human hemoglobin has the sequence CTC at the position for the seventh amino acid acid in the protein. A point mutation changing the sequence to CAC results in sickle cell hemoglobin. Use the genetic code to determine the change in the amino acid at position seven of the hemoglobin beta chain.

A

Glutamic acid to valine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How many nucleotides are required to code for 10 amino acids?

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The central dogma describes how the genes in the nucleus work to produce an organism’s phenotype. Another way of putting it is that the central dogma follows the flow of information from _____

A

DNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

DNA carries out two basic functions in cells: (1) information storage and transfer (genes can be copied and passed to offspring) and (2) the “blueprint” function (genes provides instructions for building proteins). The key process for information storage and transfer to offspring cells is _____

A

DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A gene is a sequence of NDA nucleotide bases that codes for a single protein. Approximately how many nucleotide bases would be required to code for a protein chain is 100 amino acids long?

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

tRNA molecules work to______

A

translate mRNA to produce a specific amino acid sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following events occurs during transcription?

A

A molecule of RNA is formed based on the sequence of nucleotides in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement about mRNA?

A

mRNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm following RNA processing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The site of translation is

A

ribosomes in the cell cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which of the following does not play a role in translation?

A

DNA

74
Q

Which of the following does not occur during RNA processing?

A

mRNA attaches to the small subunit of a ribosome

75
Q

How did stickleback populations come to live exclusively in fresh water?

A

Some stickleback populations became trapped in lakes that formed at the end of the last ice age

76
Q

Why do some stickleback populations lack pelvic spines?

A
  • In lakes where there are no large predatory fish, there is no advantage to having pelvic spines.
  • in lakes with dragonfly larvae, pelvic spines can be disadvantageous, allowing the predatory larvae to grab the fish.
77
Q

Why did Kingsley and and his team cross marine and freshwater sicklebacks?

A

To find the location of the gene(s) causing the difference between stickleback populations with and without spines

78
Q

What did researchers discover about the genetic mutation causing the loss of pelvic spines?

A

-It is found in a regulatory region (a “switch”) upstream of the coding region of the PITX1 gene
- It occurred in a similar DNA region in freshwater stickleback populations all over the world.

79
Q

How do multiple lines of evidence (from the field, the fossil, record, and molecular genetics) work together to illustrate stickleback evolution?

A

-Data obtained by analyzing living fish in lakes show the selective pressures in different environments.
- the fossil data show a pattern of evolution over long stretches of time
- genetic evidence reveals the precise molecular mechanism responsible for the change in pelvic structures in stickleback populations
- if the same morphological changes occur in the fossil record as in living populations, we might deduce that the genetic mechanism discovered in the living populations might be responsible for the changes observed in fossils

80
Q

Barr bodies are associated with _____

A

X chromosome inactivation

81
Q

Do all cells of the body express the same genes?

A

No, since they don’t all need to make the same proteins

82
Q

Can one gene make different proteins?

A

Yes, by splicing the resulting mRNA differently (i.e., removing different exons)

83
Q

What does it mean when we say a gene is “turned off”?

A

The gene cannot be transcribed and translated into a protein

84
Q

Puberty is caused by the release of follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone from the pituitary gland. These hormones are delivered to the ovary in girls and initiate the monthly release of mature egg cells. This is an example of what mechanism of regulation of gene expression?

A

A typical signal transduction pathway

85
Q

The signal transduction pathway allows ____

A

one cell to regulate the gene expression of another cell.

86
Q

Which gene are responsible for your overall structure, such as how many legs you have and where they develop?

A

Homeotic genes

87
Q

Which of the following mutations is LEAST likely to result in harmful changes to cellular proteins?

A

Silent mutation

88
Q

The type of mutation that alters the nucleotide sequence of a gene but does not alter the amino acid sequence of the protein produced that gene is called _____ mutation

A

silent

89
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

Physical or chemical factors that can lead to mutations causing cancer

90
Q

What type of mutation leads to a frameshift in the reading of DNA?

A

Both insertions and deletions

91
Q

A normal gene, that, if mutated, can lead to cancer is called an

A

proto-oncogene

92
Q

A gene that causes a cell to become cancerous is called an

A

oncogene

93
Q

an _________ ______ is a gene that encodes proteins that inhibit cell division. Such proteins normally help prevent cells from becoming cancerous

A

tumor-suppressor gene

94
Q

An ____ ___ is a protein that promotes cell division. In excess, such a protein may lead to cancer.

A

growth factor

95
Q

How does a cell typically know when to divide?

A

Proto-oncogenes code for growth factor that initiate cell division

96
Q

Cancer is ____

A

uncontrolled cell growth

97
Q

A ____ ___ is a lump of abnormal cells that, although growing out of control, remains at its original site

A

Benign tumor

98
Q

A _____ _____ is an abnormally growing mass of cells that is actively spreading through the body

A

malignant tumor

99
Q

______ is the spread of cancer cells from their site of origin to other sites in the body.

A

Metastasis

100
Q

An individual with a malignant tumor is said to have _____

A

cancer

101
Q

Which of the following is TRUE concerning benign tumors?

A

Do not spread to other parts of the body

102
Q

According to the American Cancer Society, what is the single best lifestyle choice that you can make to reduce your risk of cancer?

A

Don’t smoke tobacco products

103
Q

what is a “benign” tumor?

A

A mass of cells that grows out of control and spreads to other tissues

104
Q

The spread of cancer cells from their site of origin to sites distant in the body is called ______

A

metastasis

105
Q

what is the main cause of cancer?

A

Exposure to carcinogens in the environment

106
Q

Are there ways to prevent cancer?

A

yes, there are many ways cancer can be prevented, including through a healthy diet and exercise

107
Q

A ____ cuts DNA only at a specific nucleotide sequences.

A

restriction enzyme

108
Q

Why can a person who is unable to produce insulin be successfully treated with insulin derived from genetically modified bacteria?

A

The gene that produces insulin in humans was inserted into the bacteria where it continues to produce human insulin

109
Q

What is recombinant DNA?

A

A segment of DNA containing sequences from two different sources

110
Q

Which of the following could you be certain is NOT a GMO at the grocery store?

A

steak

111
Q

Genetically modified organisms that acquire genes from a different species are called ____ organisms

A

transgenic

112
Q

PCR is used to copy just a relatively small region of DNA, not the entire genome. How do researchers specifically target the region of interest?

A

They use two primers, each about 15 to 20 nucleotides long, that flank the region of interest

113
Q

which of the following is an example of a transgenic organism?

A

a bacterium with human gene for producing insulin

114
Q

restriction enzymes ______

A

cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences

115
Q

The process of accurately amplifying a sample of DNA is called ______

A

the polymerase chain reaction

116
Q

Gel electrophoresis separates pieces of DNA based on ____

A

size

117
Q

A supplemental appendix is to a book as a ____ is to a bacterial chromosome

A

plasmid

118
Q

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments according to their ______

A

length

119
Q

DNA profiling relies on an individual’s _____, no two of which are the same between different people, except identical twins

A

unique set of short repeats within DNA

120
Q

Through mapping the entire human genome researchers have learned that what percentage of the human genome codes from proteins?

A

1.5%

121
Q

How would you describe the current status of gene therapy research?

A

Gene therapy has had limited success in a few cases. However, there is still a long way to go before gene therapy is deemed safe and effective enough for widespread use in curing genetic diseases

122
Q

How does a scientist get the corrected version of a gene into the cells of a gene therapy patient?

A

It is delivered with a modified virus

123
Q

Which of these characteristics affects the diffusion oxygen into the icefish’s blood?

A

Icefish have transparent, scale-less skin

124
Q

icefish live in very cold water where temperatures are below blood’s freezing point. Which statements are true about icefish adaptations for cold water?

A

-icefish have antifreeze proteins, which prevent blood from freezing.
- icefish lack red blood cells, which reduces the viscosity (thickness) of blood, allowing it to flow more freely at cold temperatures

125
Q

which statement is true of the Notothenioids?

A

Notothenioids can live in very cold, nutrient-rich waters where other fish species cannot

126
Q

How did the icefish antifreeze gene arise?

A

An existing gene was accidentally duplicated. It then acquired mutations, which caused it to have a different function

127
Q

which of the following are true of the “death” of the icefish globin gene?

A

mutations destroyed the function of the icefish globin gene

128
Q

A strong selective pressure (like very cold water) can _____

A

cause a reproductive advantage for an individual with an advantageous mutation

129
Q

compare the “birth” and “death” of icefish genes.

A

The “birth” of the antifreeze gene and the “death” of the globin gene are both caused by mutation

130
Q

Translation begins when a ___ molecules binds to a _____

A

mRNA; small ribosomal unit

131
Q

In the 1950s, when Watson and Crick were working on their model of DNA, which concepts were well accepted by the scientific community?

A

-chromosomes are made up of protein and nucleic acid
- genes are located on chromosomes
- chromosomes are found in the nucleus

132
Q

what are the chemical components of a DNA molecule?

A

-nitrogenous bases
- phosphate groups
- sugars

133
Q

In the early 1950s, many researchers were racing to describe the structure of DNA using different approaches. Which of the following statements is true?

A

Jim Watson and Francis Crick built theoretical models, incorporating current knowledge about chemical bonding and X-ray data

134
Q

Early, flawed DNA models proposed by Watson and Crick and by Linus Pauling correctly described which property of DNA

A

DNA is composed of sugars, phosphates, and bases

135
Q

What did Rosalind Franklin’s famous photo 51 show?

A

DNA is a helix

136
Q

What did the structure of DNA’s double helix suggest about DNA’s properties?

A

-DNA stores genetic information in the sequence of its bases.
- DNA can change. Errors in copying can result in changes in the DNA sequence that could be inherited by future generations
- DNA can be replicated by making complementary copies of each strand

137
Q

Before the publication of Charles Darwin’s On the Origin of Species, what was the prevailing public consensus regarding species evolution?

A

That species were permanent and unchanging

138
Q

How did Darwin’s ideas on evolution conflict with contemporary religious dogma?

A

In contrast to biblical teaching. Darwin argued that the earth was very old, and that species are constantly changing

139
Q

What contribution did Charles Lyell make?

A

He provided the first evidence that the Earth is much older then was previously thought

140
Q

What prompted Darwin to publish his book decades after he began writing it?

A

Wallace, a colleague, was about to publish a similar transcript

141
Q

Individuals with variations that make them best suited to their environment are, on average, more likely to _____

A

survive and reproduce

142
Q

Can you inherit physical traits that your parents acquired during their lifetime?

A

No

143
Q

How might global warming result in most grizzly bears having fur that is less dense in the future?

A

In any population of bears, some individuals have thick fur, some have thin fur, and some are in between. As temperatures increase with the passage of time, the survival of bears with thin fur will increase, and the number of bears in the population with thick fur will decrease

144
Q

Which two observations led Darwin to conclude that there is competition for survival?

A

Overproduction of organisms and limited food resources

145
Q

Before Darwin published his work, Lamarck and other had suggested mechanisms for evolution. By what means did Darwin propose species evolved over time?

A

natural selection

146
Q

Natural selection acts on ____, and ____ evolve

A

individuals;populations

147
Q

a weed exhibits resistance to an herbicide ________

A

inherited the gene that made it resistant to the herbicide

148
Q

Evolution can be best defined as ______

A

change in the gene pool of a population

149
Q

Cauliflower, broccoli, Brussels sprouts, cabbage, and kohlrabi are all the same species of plant. What is responsible for the differences in these vegetables?

A

Artificial selection

150
Q

Which of the following is evidence for evolution in action?

A

All are evidence for evolution

151
Q

In the Grand Canyon, fossils in rock layers at the bottom of the canyon are _____ than those in layers closer to the top

A

older

152
Q

What is radiometric dating?

A

The process of determining the age of a fossil from radioactive isotopes

153
Q

What is radiometric dating?

A

The process of determining the age of a fossil from radioactive isotopes

154
Q

The oldest fossils are typically found in the sediments _______

A

located deep under the surface

155
Q

Which of the following are considered fossils?

A

All of the above are considered fossils

156
Q

What is the name for the study of the geographic distribution of species?

A

Biogeography

157
Q

Comparing the body structures of organisms to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called ______

A

comparative anatomy

158
Q

the approach that consists in comparing DNA sequences to find evidence of a shared evolutionary history is called ____

A

bioinformatics

159
Q

If two organisms of different species share more similar DNA sequences with each other than with other species, we can conclude that ______

A

these two species are very closely related

160
Q

Human embryos have a developmental stage during which they have a tail and pharyngeal pouches. How can we explain these characteristics of human embryos

A

human embryos share a common ancestor who had gills

161
Q

what is the smallest unit that can evolve

A

the population

162
Q

The modern evolutionary synthesis of the 1930s and 1940s melded together Darwin’s findings with _____

A

genetics

163
Q

What defines a population in evolution

A

interbreeding members of the same species that share a common space

164
Q

Which of the following best defines microevolution

A

changes in genes within a population over times

165
Q

habitat loss has driven the population of the florida panther to extremely low numbers. which mechanism of microevolution is likely at play in this species

A

Genetic drift: the bottleneck effect

166
Q

What does fitness mean when speaking in terms of evolution

A

how many offspring an individual produces

167
Q

What events can lead to offspring having a unique arrangements of their parent’s genes

A

both crossing over and independent assortment

168
Q

What is the leading hypothesis for what might have brought about the extinction of dinosaurs

A

an asteroid impact

169
Q

Which process of evolution does not change the total number of species?

A

nonbranching evolution

170
Q

when did life first appear on the planet

A

3.5 billion years ago

171
Q

how long ago were the organisms that produced the oldest fossil records alive?

A

3.5 billion years

172
Q

The slow drifting of sections of the earths crust sometimes separating, other times colliding, is known as ___

A

plate tectonics

173
Q

in many ways, a mule is a superior animal to the horse or donkey. Mules are often stronger ad can jump higher than either of their parent. Why, then, are mules considered to be a “weak hybrid”?

A

They are sterile

174
Q

What is an exception to the standard biological species concept used to define a species?

A

asexual species cannot be distinguished using this concept

175
Q

what term describes the failure of one species to fertilize the egg of a different species?

A

gametics incompatibility

176
Q

the eastern meadowlark and the western meadowlark are two bird species that look very similar to each other. why do biologists not consider them the same species?

A

all of the above

177
Q

due to differences in mating times, two sub-populations of frogs form into separate species, even though they occupy the same pond. this overall process is known as ______

A

sympatric speciation

178
Q

The rapid diversification of species seen in the fossil record followed by long periods of statis is part of the ____ model of evolution

A

punctuated equilibrium

179
Q

which model of evolution is closest to what was originally suggested by charles darwin

A

the graduated model matches best the reasoning of charles darwin

180
Q

which of the following most leads to allopatric speciation?

A

habitat isolation

Exploring Concepts in Biology (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions