Exam 5 Flashcards
The transfer of heat to circulating air such as when cool air moves across the body’s surface, is called:
A) radiation
B) conduction
C) convection
D) evaporation
C) convection
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles to ease pain is called:
A) flexing
B) referring
C) guarding
D) withdrawing
C) guarding
All of the following terms refer to a body part that is cold but not frozen, EXCEPT:
A) immersion foot.
B) frostnip.
C) trench foot.
D) frostbite.
D) frostbite.
Which of the following statements regarding the “Adam’s apple” is FALSE?
A) It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
B) It is formed by the thyroid cartilage.
C) It is the uppermost part of the larynx.
D) It is more prominent in men than in women.
A) It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage.
Lacerations to the scalp:
A) uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in the elderly.
B) are most commonly associated with skull fractures.
C) bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels.
D) might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
D) might be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries.
Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) kidney.
D) stomach.
D) stomach.
External bleeding from a vein is relatively easy to control because:
A) veins carry deoxygenated blood.
B) veins hold smaller blood volume.
C) veins are under a lower pressure.
D) blood typically oozes from a vein.
C) veins are under a lower pressure.
A(n) _____ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child’s bone and might lead to bone growth abnormalities.
A) greenstick
B) diaphyseal
C) epiphyseal
D) metaphyseal
C) epiphyseal
Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:
A) The caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown.
B) The area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet.
C) The bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
D) Exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.
C) The bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is:
A) a pressure bandage.
B) direct pressure and elevation.
C) a splint.
D) a tourniquet.
B) direct pressure and elevation.
When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with:
A) spinal trauma.
B) airway compromise.
C) associated eye injuries.
D) severe external bleeding.
B) airway compromise.
The term “hematuria” is defined as:
A) blood in the stool.
B) blood in the urine.
C) vomiting up blood.
D) urinary bladder rupture.
B) blood in the urine.
A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue grill over on himself. He has partial- and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned?
A) 18%
B) 27%
C) 36%
D) 45%
B) 27%
A supracondylar intercondylar facture is also known as a fracture of the:
A) proximal radius.
B) distal humerus.
C) radial head.
D) olecranon process.
B) distal humerus.
Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury?
A) Asymmetric pupils
B) Pupillary constriction to bright light
C) Both eyes moving in opposite directions
D) Inability to look upward when instructed to
B) Pupillary constriction to bright light
Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain?
A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Autonomic
B) Skeletal
A 54-year old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should:
A) manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury.
B) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
C) assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions.
D) gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates.
B) control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT:
A) systolic blood pressure.
B) poor general appearance.
C) the mechanism of injury.
D) clinical signs and symptoms.
A) systolic blood pressure.
Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured?
A) Liver
B) Kidney
C) Stomach
D) Gallbladder
A) Liver
ln contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human:
A) is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner.
B) typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading.
C) carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
D) is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.
C) carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses.
Crepitus and false motion are:
A) positive indicators of a fracture.
B) indicators of a severe sprain.
C) only seen with open fractures.
D) most common with dislocation.
A) positive indicators of a fracture.
When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70’F (21’C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called:
A) radiation
B) conduction
C) convection
D) evaporation
B) conduction
Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because:
A) their chest wall and ribs are very pliable.
B) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
C) they require less tidal volume per breath.
D) there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.
B) their intercostal muscles are not fully developed.
Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is most indicative of a ruptured:
A) aorta
B) spleen
C) stomach
D) diaphragm
D) diaphragm
A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in:
A) rapid ascent.
B) rapid descent.
C) decompression.
D) barometric pressure.
D) barometric pressure.
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as:
A) localized pain.
B) red areas of skin.
C) gross distention.
D) dark purple marks.
B) red areas of skin.
A 14-year-old baseball player was hit in the chest with a line drive. He is in cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?
A) Myocardial contusion
B) Traumatic asphyxia
C) Commotio cordis
D) Hemothorax
C) Commotio cordis
During immobilization of a patient with a possible spinal injury, manual stabilization of the head must be maintained until:
A) an appropriate-size extrication collar has been placed.
B) the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.
C) a range of motion test of the neck has been completed.
D) pulse, motor, and sensory functions are found to be intact.
B) the patient is fully immobilized on a long backboard.
To obtain the most accurate reading of a patient’s core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer:
A) into the patient’s rectum.
B) under the patient’s tongue.
C) behind the patient’s knee.
D) under the patient’s armpit.
A) into the patient’s rectum.
Hyperextension injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of:
A) compression.
B) diving.
C) hangings.
D) falls.
C) hangings.
Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) muffled heart tones.
B) a weak, rapid pulse.
C) collapsed jugular veins.
D) narrowing pulse pressure.
C) collapsed jugular veins.
Traction splints primarily immobilize and secure fractures of the:
A) hip
B) pelvis
C) femur
D) humerus
C) femur
A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. Which type of injury does this describe?
A) Abrasion
B) Contusion
C) Hematoma
D) Avulsion
B) Contusion
All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, except the:
A) spleen
B) bladder
C) ureters
D) stomach
A) spleen
Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) hemoptysis.
B) hematemesis.
C) asymmetric chest movement.
D) increased pain with breathing.
B) hematemesis.
Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct?
A) Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs.
B) Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm.
C) Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims.
D) Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.
D) Patients with a submersion injury might deteriorate rapidly because of pulmonary injury and cerebral hypoxia.
Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle?
A) Heart
B) Skeleton
C) Blood vessels
D) Diaphragm
C) Blood vessels
The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves:
A) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
B) surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged.
C) assisting the patient’s breathing with increased tidal volume.
D) placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest.
A) inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.
What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle?
A) Allows flexion of the neck
B) Provides respiration
C) Connects the scapulae together
D) Allows movement of the head
D) Allows movement of the head
You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that:
A) there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact.
B) the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone.
C) stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred.
D) the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint.
C) stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred.
When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should:
A) deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution.
B) quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water.
C) use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical.
D) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
D) brush away the chemical before flushing with water.
Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct?
A) The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss.
B) Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant.
C) Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.
D) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
D) The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:
A) The way in which traumatic injuries occur.
B) A predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
C) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
D) The detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.
C) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
The upper jawbones are called the:
A) mandible
B) mastoid
C) zygoma
D) maxillae
D) maxillae
When opening the airway of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, should use the:
A) tongue-jaw lift maneuver,
B) head tilt-neck lift maneuver.
C) head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
D) jaw-thrust maneuver.
D) jaw-thrust maneuver.
The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the:
A) sclera
B) cornea
C) retina
D) conjunctiva
D) conjunctiva
What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body?
A) Dermis
B) Epidermis
C) Muscular layer
D) Subcutaneous layer
B) Epidermis
In contrast to Lyme disease, Rocky Mountain spotted fever:
A) causes painful joint swelling after a few days or weeks.
B) can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.
C) presents with flu-like symptoms and a bull’s-eye rash.
D) might be confused with rheumatoid arthritis.
B) can cause paralysis and cardiorespiratory collapse.
When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should:
A) dilate.
B) constrict.
C) remain the same size.
D) dilate, and then constrict.
B) constrict.
The body’s functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _____ nervous system.
A) autonomic
B) sensory
C) voluntary
D) somatic
A) autonomic
Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia?
A) The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
B) Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water.
C) The core body temperature exceeds 99.5’F (37’C).
D) The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.
A) The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose.
If a person’s tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged:
A) minute volume will increase.
B) minute volume will decrease.
C) minute volume will remain unchanged.
D) excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.
B) minute volume will decrease.
A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the:
A) epidermis
B) fatty layer
C) muscle fascia
D) dermal layer
D) dermal layer
The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of:
A) esophageal injury.
B) cervical spine fracture.
C) crushing tracheal injury.
D) carotid artery laceration.
C) crushing tracheal injury.
The ____ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
A) central
B) somatic
C) autonomic
D) peripheral
D) peripheral
When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should:
A) use local pressure to control bleeding.
B) carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding.
C) remove any impaled objects from the vagina.
D) cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings.
A) use local pressure to control bleeding.
A _____ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments.
A) Strain
B) Sprain
C) Fracture
D) Dislocation
B) Sprain
Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea?
A) Attempted suicide by hanging
B) Gunshot wound to the lateral neck
C) Car crash involving lateral impact
D) Patient whose head hits the windshield
A) Attempted suicide by hanging
The most reliable sign of a head injury is:
A) a pulse that is rapid and thready.
B) a decreased level of consciousness.
C) an abnormally low blood pressure.
D) decreased sensation in the extremities.
B) a decreased level of consciousness.
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-otd patient?
A) Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest.
B) Full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area.
C) Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the body surface area.
D) Superficial burn covering 50% of the body surface area.
A) Circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest.
Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the “three-collision” effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash?
A) Extensive damage to the automobile
B) Flail chest and lower extremity fractures
C) Massive external trauma with severe bleeding
D) Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain
D) Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain
When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first:
A) ensure a patent airway.
B) obtain baseline vital signs.
C) control any external bleeding.
D) take appropriate standard precautions.
D) take appropriate standard precautions.
When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT to:
A) use a pillow as a splint.
B) leave the toes exposed.
C) apply a pneumatic splint.
D) observe for tissue swelling.
B) leave the toes exposed.
When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated:
A) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
B) blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.
C) hormones are released that prepare the body for stress.
D) heart rate and blood pressure increase.
A) the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate.
Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) localized pain.
B) chest wall ecchymosis.
C) tachypnea.
D) hematemesis.
D) hematemesis.
Skeletal muscle is also referred to as _____ muscle.
A) smooth
B) striated
C) connective
D) involuntary
B) striated
A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:
A) Is wearing only a lap belt.
B) Remains within the vehicle.
C) Experiences multiple impacts.
D) Is ejected or partially ejected.
D) Is ejected or partially ejected.
A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves:
A) wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow.
B) splinting the leg in the position in which it was found.
C) straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints.
D) straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint.
B) splinting the leg in the position in which it was found.
Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include:
A) placing dry towels over the open wound.
B) cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline.
C) applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding.
D) applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
D) applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.
Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to:
A) crushing injuries.
B) airbag-related trauma.
C) multiple collisions to the interior of the car.
D) ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.
D) ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.
The mastoid process is located approximately:
A) 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
B) 1/2 inch anterior to the external opening of the ear.
C) 1 inch inferior to the external opening of the ear.
D) 1 inch posterior to the angle of the mandible.
A) 1 inch posterior to the external opening of the ear.
A fractured femur can result in the loss of ___ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh.
A) 250 mL
B) 500 mL
C) 1L
D) 2L
C) 1L
The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the:
A) cerebellum and brain.
B) brain and spinal cord.
C) cerebrum and meninges.
D) meninges and spinal cord.
B) brain and spinal cord.
Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with:
A) a flail chest.
B) a pneumothorax.
C) isolated rib fractures.
D) a ruptured diaphragm.
A) a flail chest.
High air temperature reduces the body’s ability to lose heat by:
A) radiation
B) convection
C) conduction
D) evaporation
A) radiation
Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts.
A) rear-end
B) rollover
C) frontal
D) lateral
A) rear-end
The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to:
A) cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing and apply firm pressure.
B) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and apply firm pressure.
C) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing.
D) carefully replace the protruding bowel into the abdomen and cover the wound.
C) apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing.
Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of:
A) penetrating lung injuries.
B) a tension pneumothorax.
C) a massive cardiac contusion.
D) traumatic aortic rupture.
D) traumatic aortic rupture.
A “hip” fracture is actually a fracture of the:
A) pelvic girdle.
B) proximal femur.
C) pubic symphysis.
D) femoral shaft.
B) proximal femur.
A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury:
A) should be placed in Trendelenburg’s position
B) is most likely experiencing severe blood loss.
C) has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta.
D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
D) requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.
When a light is shone into the pupil:
A) the opposite pupil should dilate.
B) it should become smaller in size.
C) it should become larger in size.
D) both pupils should dilate together.
B) it should become smaller in size.
An injured brain begins to swell initially due to:
A) an epidural hematoma.
B) cerebral edema.
C) intracranial pressure.
D) a coup-contrecoup injury.
B) cerebral edema.
Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact?
A) Head-on collision
B) Angular collision
C) Ejection
D) Controlled crash
C) Ejection
A hematoma develops when:
A) small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis.
B) large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.
C) severe swelling compromises arterial circulation.
D) cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.
B) large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged.
When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should:
A) Use a demand valve to ventilate the patient.
B) Suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade.
C) Avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.
D) Administer large amounts of intravenous fluid.
C) Avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure.
You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume?
A) Sitting up
B) Legs drawn up
C) Legs outstretched
D) On his right side
B) Legs drawn up
When a person is exposed to cold temperatures and strong winds for an extended period of time, he or she will lose heat mostly by:
A) radiation.
B) convection.
C) conduction.
D0 evaporation.
B) convection.
Al! of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the:
A) lips
B) nose
C) anus
D) mouth
A) lips
A high school football player was injured during a tackle and complains of neck and upper back pain. He is conscious and alert and is breathing without difficulty. The EMT should:
A) leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place.
B) leave his helmet in place, but remove his shoulder pads.
C) remove his helmet and shoulder pads.
D) remove his helmet, but leave his shoulder pads in place.
A) leave his helmet and shoulder pads in place.
Drowning is MOST accurately defined as:
A) temporary survival after submersion in water.
B) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
C) water in the lungs following submersion in water.
D) death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.
B) death from suffocation after submersion in water.
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the:
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) radius and ulna
D) midshaft femur
A) clavicle
A fracture is most accurately defines as a(n):
A) abnormality in the structure of a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
C) total loss of function in a bone.
D) disruption in the midshaft of a bone.
B) break in the continuity of the bone.
Even when seat belts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the:
A) chest.
B) extremities.
C) iliac crests.
D) lower ribcage.
C) iliac crests.
When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is most important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient’s injuries because:
A) they must make arrangements for an ICU bed.
B) they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.
C) it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital.
D) most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.
B) they might need to call a specialist to see the patient.
The cricoid cartilage:
A) lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck.
B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
C) is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage.
D) lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.
B) is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea.
The frontal and parietal bones of the skull are especially susceptible to:
A) basilar skull fractures.
B) depressed skull fractures.
C) linear skull fractures.
D) nondisplaced skull fractures.
B) depressed skull fractures.
The mesentery is:
A) the point of attachment between the small and large intestines.
B) a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs.
C) a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver.
D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
D) a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is:
A) slow
B) weak
C) rapid
D) irregular
A) slow
The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it:
A) suppresses the respiratory drive.
B) causes severe local tissue damage.
C) weakens the structure of the bones.
D) destroys the body’s red blood cells.
B) causes severe local tissue damage.
Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) profound cyanosis.
B) collapsed jugular veins.
C) altered mental status.
D) unilaterally absent breath sounds.
B) collapsed jugular veins.
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?
A) lntravenous fluid administration
B) Early administration of oxygen
C) Elevation of the lower extremities
D) Rapid transport to a trauma center
D) Rapid transport to a trauma center
Covering a patient’s _____ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss.
A) head
B) chest
C) abdomen
D) extremities
A) head
When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the:
A) Index of suspicion.
B) Mechanism of injury.
C) Kinetic energy.
D) Potential energy.
B) Mechanism of injury.
A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his:
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) kidney.
D) bladder.
C) kidney.
Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because:
A) they lend credibility to your documentation.
B) such injuries can affect the respiratory system.
C) hospital staff require frequent patient updates.
D) rapid facial swelling might mask hidden injuries.
B) such injuries can affect the respiratory system.
Airbags are designed to:
A) Prevent a second collision inside the car.
B) Be used with or without a shoulder harness.
C) Decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
D)Prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.
C) Decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for:
A) external genitalia injury.
B) a lacerated liver or spleen.
C) blunt injury to the kidney.
D) a ruptured urinary bladder.
C) blunt injury to the kidney.
Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct?
A) Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it.
B) Most of the body’s striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels.
C) Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage.
D) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
D) It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.
It is important to remove a drowning victim from the water before laryngospasm relaxes because:
A) the patient will suffer less airway trauma.
B) the risk of severe hypothermia is lessened.
C) less water will have entered the patient’s lungs.
D) you can ventilate the patient with laryngospasm.
C) less water will have entered the patient’s lungs.
ln addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is:
A) an air embolism.
B) a spinal fracture.
C) an ischemic stroke.
D) nerve fiber damage.
A) an air embolism.
Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy:
A) might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
B) often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression.
C) results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full.
D) is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.
A) might decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart.
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
A) Femur fracture
B) Shoulder fracture
C) Lumbar spine fracture
D) Pelvic fracture
B) Shoulder fracture
When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should:
A) immerse the affected part in warm water.
B) rupture any blisters to prevent an infection.
C) cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing.
D) avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
D) avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.
An air embolism associated with diving occurs when:
A) the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water.
B) the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
C) the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure.
D) high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.
B) the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent.
A distraction injury to the cervical spine would MOST likely occur following:
A) a diving accident.
B) blunt neck trauma.
C) hyperextension of the neck.
D) hanging-type mechanisms.
D) hanging-type mechanisms.
A 66-year old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his pulse is rapid. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him?
A) Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
B) Has blood soaked through your undergarments?
C) Do you take any over-the-counter medications?
D) What does your blood pressure normally run?
A) Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?
Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because:
A) of the risk for airway problems.
B) bleeding must be controlled early.
C) the spine might be injured as well.
D) swelling might mask hidden injuries.
A) of the risk for airway problems.
A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority?
A) Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze
B) 3-inch laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood
C) Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound
D) 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
D) 1-inch laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood
The \_\_\_ nerves supply the diaphragm. A) vagus B) costal C) phrenic D) intercostal
C) phrenic
Pneumothorax is defined as:
A) accumulation of air between the lungs.
B) blood collection within the lung tissue.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
D) blood collection within the pleural space.
C) accumulation of air in the pleural space.
A 20-year old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should:
A) clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing.
B) assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
C) transport only if signs of shock being to develop.
D) carefully probe the wound to determine its depth.
B) assume that the arrow injured an internal organ.
An abdominal evisceration:
A) is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma.
B) should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings.
C) often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss.
D) occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
D) occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.
The purpose of the eustachian tube is to:
A) move in response to sound waves.
B) transmit impulses from the brain to the ear.
C) equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes.
D) house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance.
C) equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes.
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is:
A) the clothes drag.
B) the four-person log roll.
C) the use of a scoop stretcher.
D) the direct patient carry.
B) the four-person log roll.
What part of the nervous system controls the body’s voluntary activities?
A) Central
B) Sensory
C) Somatic
D) Autonomic
C) Somatic
Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) immobilization of the injury.
B) prevention of contamination.
C) protection from further injury.
D) control of external hemorrhage.
A) immobilization of the injury.
