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EMT 22-1 Exams > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

Albuterol is a generic name for:

A) Alupent
B) Atrovent
C) Ventolin
D) Singulair

A

C) Ventolin

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2
Q

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by:

A) Hypovolemia
B) Tachycardia
C) Diaphoresis
D) Hypothermia

A

D) Hypothermia

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3
Q

In what areas of the lungs does respiration occur?

A) Alveoli
B) Trachea
C) Bronchi
D) Capillaries

A

A) Alveoli

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4
Q

Most prehospital cardiac arrests in adults occur as the result of:

A) Severe blunt trauma
B) A cardiac dysrhythmia
C) An acute ischemic stroke
D) Obstruction of the airway

A

B) A cardiac dysrhythmia

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5
Q

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to ___ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS.

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

A

B) Three

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6
Q

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during:

A) Septic shock
B) Neurogenic shock
C) Cardiogenic shock
D) Anaphylactic shock

A

C) Cardiogenic shock

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7
Q

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to:

A) Assess the scene for potential hazards
B) Determine if you need additional help
C) Request a paramedic unit for assistance
D) Gain immediate access to the patient

A

A) Assess the scene for potential hazards

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8
Q

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood?

A) Superior vena cava
B) Pulmonary arteries
C) Inferior vena cava
D) Pulmonary veins

A

D) Pulmonary veins

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9
Q

Which of the following techniques should you use to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is in an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese?

A) Back slaps
B) Finger sweeps
C) Chest thrusts
D) Abdominal thrusts

A

C) Chest thrusts

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10
Q

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you specifically inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease?

A) Recent travel
B) HIV status
C) Sexual practices
D) Drug allergies

A

A) Recent travel

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11
Q

A conscious and alert 29-yearold female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40’F (5’C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing supplemental oxygen, you should:

A) Place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing
B) Contact medical control and administer an antihistamine
C) Call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment
D) Determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler

A

D) Determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler

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12
Q

A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:

A) Is semiconscious, injured, and breathing adequately
B) Has experienced trauma but is breathing ineffectively
C) Is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately
D) Has a pulse but is unresponsive and breathing shallowly

A

C) Is unresponsive, uninjured, and breathing adequately

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13
Q

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

A) Normal breath sounds
B) Abnormal breath sounds
C) Diminished breath sounds
D) An absence of breath sounds

A

B) Abnormal breath sounds

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14
Q

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and:

A) Audible stridor
B) Rales and rhonchi
C) Profound cyanosis
D) Expiratory wheezing

A

D) Expiratory wheezing

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15
Q

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should:

A) Assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate
B) Squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds
C) Attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient
D) Direct your partner to apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask

A

C) Attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient

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16
Q

Angina pectoris occurs when:

A) A coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque
B) Myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply
C) One or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm
D) Myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand

A

B) Myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply

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17
Q

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they:

A) Are elderly
B) Are in denial
C) Cannot afford it
D) Do not trust EMTs

A

B) Are in denial

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18
Q

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger?

A) Furosemide (Lasix)
B) Aspirin
C) Oxygen
D) Metoprolol (Toprol)

A

B) Aspirin

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19
Q

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

A) Should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe
B) Should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill
C) Is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short
D) Is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious

A

C) Is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

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20
Q

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the:

A) Left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium
B) Right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle
C) Right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle
D) Left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle

A

C) Right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT a BLS intervention?

A) Abdominal thrusts
B) Chest compressions
C) Cardiac monitoring
D) Automated defibrillation

A

C) Cardiac monitoring

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22
Q

If gastric distension begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

A) Reposition the patient’s airway
B) Suction the patient’s oropharynx
C) Insert an oropharyngeal airway
D) Increase the rate of ventilation

A

A) Reposition the patient’s airway

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23
Q

Gastric distension will MOST likely occur:

A) In patients who are intubated
B) If you ventilate a patient too quickly
C) When you deliver minimal tidal volume
D) When the airway is completely obstructed

A

B) If you ventilate a patient too quickly

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24
Q

Which of the following maneuvers should be used to open a patient’s airway when a spinal injury is suspected?

A) Jaw-thrust
B) Tongue-jaw lift
C) Head tilt-neck lift
D) Head tilt-chin lift

A

A) Jaw-thrust

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25
Q

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breath sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with:

A) An obstructed airway
B) Adequate air exchange
C) Respiratory difficulty
D) Respiratory insufficiency

A

B) Adequate air exchange

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26
Q

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Heart attack
B) Increased afterload
C) Increased preload
D) Poor contractility

A

C) Increased preload

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27
Q

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

A) Right atrium
B) Right ventricle
C) Left atrium
D) Left ventricle

A

A) Right atrium

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28
Q

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

A) 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis
B) 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor
C) 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin
D) 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

A

C) 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

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29
Q

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the:

A) Femoral arteries
B) Peroneal arteries
C) Anterior tibial arteries
D) Posterior tibial arteries

A

A) Femoral arteries

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30
Q

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Cool and clammy skin
B) Absent peripheral pulses
C) Restlessness or anxiety
D) Rapid, shallow breathing

A

B) Absent peripheral pulses

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31
Q

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:

A) Contact medical control
B) Dry the chest if it is wet
C) Perform CPR for 30 seconds
D) Assess for a pulse for 20 seconds

A

B) Dry the chest if it is wet

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32
Q

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient’s illness?

A) Trending of the patient’s vital signs over time
B) Asking questions related to the chief complaint
C) Refraining from asking open-ended questions
D) Focusing solely on how the call is dispatched

A

B) Asking questions related to the chief complaint

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33
Q

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it:

A) Is less resistant to treatment
B) Is a more contagious type of disease
C) Has a greater ability to produce disease
D) Leads to chronic infection after exposure

A

C) Has a greater ability to produce disease

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34
Q

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:

A) Prone
B) Supine
C) Horizontal
D) On a firm surface

A

A) Prone

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35
Q

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include:

A) Fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing
B) Crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness
C) Headache, low back pain, and arm numbness
D) Joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision

A

A) Fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing

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36
Q

The two processes that occur during respiration are:

A) Ventilation and diffusion
B) Inspiration and expiration
C) Diffusion and oxygenation
D) Oxygenation and ventilation

A

B) Inspiration and expiration

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37
Q

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient:

A) Almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem
B) Is focused on the nature of the illness, that patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms
C) Requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems
D) Is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms

A

B) Is focused on the nature of the illness, that patient’s chief complaint, and his or her symptoms

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38
Q

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having:

A) Hepatitis
B) Meningitis
C) MERS-CoV
D) Tuberculosis

A

B) Meningitis

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39
Q

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as:

A) The skin
B) The heart
C) The brain
D) The lungs

A

A) The skin

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40
Q

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

A) Ask all patients if they have recently travelled abroad
B) Get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis
C) Wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient
D) Routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients

A

B) Get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis

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41
Q

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?

A) Pleural effusion
B) Severe anxiety
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Narcotic overdose

A

B) Severe anxiety

42
Q

A 70-year old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 90/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

A) Septic shock
B) Pump failure
C) A local infection
D) Decompensated shock

A

A) Septic shock

43
Q

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

A) The EMT’s prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched
B) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses
C) Ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms
D) Determining the underlying cause of a patient’s medical condition based on signs and symptoms

A

B) Your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses

44
Q

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct?

A) Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen
B) Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure
C) Anaphylactic shock is caused by immune system failure due to a toxic exposure
D) Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction

A

D) Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction

45
Q

Narrowing of the coronary arteries caused by a buildup of fatty deposits is called:

A) Angina pectoris
B) Arteriosclerosis
C) Acute ischemia
D) Atherosclerosis

A

D) Atherosclerosis

46
Q

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for complications caused by the influenza virus?

A) 12-year old child with a fractured arm
B) 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes
C) 39-year old man with mild hypertension
D) 50-year old woman with moderate obesity

A

B) 68-year old woman with type 2 diabetes

47
Q

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include:

A) Altered mental status and bradycardia
B) Unilateral paralysis and slurred speech
C) Anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea
D) Tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

A

D) Tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

48
Q

When documenting a patient’s description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should:

A) Use medical terminology
B) Use the patient’s own words
C) Underline the patient’s quotes
D) Document his or her own perception

A

B) Use the patient’s own words

49
Q

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they:

A) Cough
B) Vomit
C) Are bleeding
D) Have a fever

A

A) Cough

50
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock?

A) Severe vomiting
B) Liver laceration
C) Excessive sweating
D) Repeated diarrhea

A

B) Liver laceration

51
Q

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock?

A) A 20-year old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils
B) A 23-year old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia
C) A 28-year old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations
D) A 32-year old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

A

A) A 20-year old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils

52
Q

What is the minimum number of chest compressions that should be delivered per minute to a 4-month old infant?

A) 90
B) 100
C) 110
D) 120

A

B) 100

53
Q

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) A narcotic overdose
B) A respiratory infection
C) An overdose of aspirin
D) High blood glucose levels

A

A) A narcotic overdose

54
Q

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___ problem.

A) Cardiac
B) Endocrine
C) Respiratory
D) Neurologic

A

D) Neurologic

55
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

A) Pallor
B) Dizziness
C) Wheezing
D) Hypotension

A

C) Wheezing

56
Q

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

A) The percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen
B) There must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion
C) The pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed
D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

A

D) Oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane

57
Q

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

A) Any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system dysfunctional
B) The invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot by destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs
C) A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms
D) A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

A

D) A medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body

58
Q

What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventilations when performing two-rescuer child CPR?

A) 3:1
B) 5:1
C) 30:2
D) 15:2

A

D) 15:2

59
Q

Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent death from a tension pneumothorax?

A) Early administration of high-flow oxygen
B) Rapid administration of intravenous fluids
C) Decompression of the injured side of the chest
D) Positive pressure ventilation with a bag-valve mask

A

C) Decompression of the injured side of the chest

60
Q

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

A) All layers of the aorta suddenly contract
B) A weakened area develops in the aortic wall
C) The inner layers of the aorta become separated
D) The aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding

A

C) The inner layers of the aorta become separated

61
Q

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of:

A) Plasma
B) Platelets
C) Whole blood
D) Red blood cells

A

A) Plasma

62
Q

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the LL and RL electrodes should be placed:

A) On the lower abdomen
B) Anywhere on the arms
C) On the thighs or ankles
D) On either side of the chest

A

C) On the thighs or ankles

63
Q

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

A) Reassessing the nature of the illness
B) Taking another set of vital signs
C) Repeating the primary assessment
D) Reviewing all treatment performed

A

C) Repeating the primary assessment

64
Q

In most cases, cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is caused by:

A) A drug overdose
B) Respiratory arrest
C) Severe chest trauma
D) A cardiac dysrhythmia

A

B) Respiratory arrest

65
Q

All of the following conditions should make you suspect shock, EXCEPT:

A) Anaphylaxis
B) Spinal injury
C) Severe infection
D) Ischemic stroke

A

D) Ischemic stroke

66
Q

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:

A) Note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs
B) Pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi
C) Auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung
D) Start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds

A

D) Start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds

67
Q

A 60-year old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should:

A) Start CPR and transport immediately
B) Withhold CRP until he is defibrillated
C) Determine if he has a valid living will
D) Begin CPR until an AED is available

A

D) Begin CPR until an AED is available

68
Q

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

A) Immune system
B) Endocrine system
C) Respiratory system
D) Cardiovascular system

A

A) Immune system

69
Q

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include:

A) Prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis
C) A history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks
D) Prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit

A

D) Prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit

70
Q

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is:

A) Lactic acid
B) Carbon dioxide
C) Pyruvic acid
D) Carbon monoxide

A

B) Carbon dioxide

71
Q

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock?

A) Liver laceration
B) Cardiac tamponade
C) Simple pneumothorax
D) Spinal cord injury

A

B) Cardiac tamponade

72
Q

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of the problem?

A) Medical history
B) Index of suspicion
C) Baseline vital signs
D) Primary assessment

A

A) Medical history

73
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct?

A) The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules
B) Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common
C) Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood
D) Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%

A

C) Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood

74
Q

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal:

A) The brain stem inhibits respirations
B) Respirations increase in rate and depth
C) Exhalation lasts longer than inhalation
D) Respirations decrease in rate and depth

A

B) Respirations increase in rate and depth

75
Q

Distributive shock occurs when:

A) An injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function
B) Severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster
C) Temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain
D) Widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds

A

D) Widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds

76
Q

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when:

A) Blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing
B) Dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream
C) The level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases
D) Slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide

A

A) Blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing

77
Q

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

A) Contact medical control
B) Take standard precautions
C) Quickly access the patient
D) Notify law enforcement

A

B) Take standard precautions

78
Q

Complications associated with chest compressions include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Rib fractures
B) Liver laceration
C) Gastric distension
D) A fractured sternum

A

C) Gastric distension

79
Q

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

A) Decreased pumping force of the heart muscle
B) A profound increase in the patient’s heart rate
C) Hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting
D) Widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature

A

A) Decreased pumping force of the heart muscle

80
Q

Capillary sphincters are:

A) Under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system
B) Capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs
C) Responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion
D) Circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries

A

D) Circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries

81
Q

A 20-year old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should:

A) Apply pressure to the brachial artery
B) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist
C) Administer high-flow supplemental oxygen
D) Wrap the towel with pressure bandages

A

B) Apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist

82
Q

When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the ___ artery.

A) Radial
B) Carotid
C) Femoral
D) Brachial

A

D) Brachial

83
Q

Initial treatment to dislodge a severe foreign body airway obstruction in a responsive infant includes:

A) Back slaps
B) Bag-mask ventilation
C) Abdominal thrusts
D) Blind finger sweeps

A

A) Back slaps

84
Q

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system:

A) Prepares the body to handle stress
B) Causes an increase in the heart rate
C) Slows the heart and respiratory rates
D) Dilates the blood vessels in the muscles

A

C) Slows the heart and respiratory rates

85
Q

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

A) Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation
B) The spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging
C) There is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container
D) Massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury

A

A) Failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation

86
Q

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct?

A) The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light
B) A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient
C) Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum
D) Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes

A

D) Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes

87
Q

In two-rescuer adult CPR, you should deliver a compression to ventilation ratio of:

A) 5:1
B) 5:2
C) 15:2
D) 30:2

A

D) 30:2

88
Q

When performing CPR on a child, you should compress the chest:

A) Until a radial pulse is felt
B) With one or two hands
C) To a depth of 1 to 2 inches
D) 80 to 100 times per minute

A

B) With one or two hands

89
Q

When performing chest compressions on an adult, the EMT should compress:

A) At least 1 inch
B) At least 2 inches
C) Between 1 and 2 inches
D) Greater than 2.4 inches

A

B) At least 2 inches

90
Q

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

A) A unilaterally collapsed lung
B) Diffuse collapsing of the alveoli
C) Fluid accumulation outside the lung
D) A bacterial infection of the lung tissue

A

C) Fluid accumulation outside the lung

91
Q

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

A) Bundle of His
B) Coronary sinus
C) Sinoatrial node
D) Atrioventricular node

A

C) Sinoatrial node

92
Q

CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it:

A) Is self-paced and brief
B) Occurs every 24 months
C) Is delivered by computer
D) Involves hands-on practice

A

D) Involves hands-on practice

93
Q

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

A) Aspirin
B) Ibuprofen
C) Albuterol
D) Oral glucose

A

B) Ibuprofen

94
Q

Shock is the result of:

A) Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body
B) The body’s maintenance of homeostasis
C) Temporary dysfunction of a major organ
D) Widespread constriction of the blood vessels

A

A) Hypoperfusion to the cells of the body

95
Q

To ensure that you will deliver the appropriate number of chest compressions during one-rescuer adult CPR, you should compress the patient’s chest at a rate of:

A) 80 to 100 compressions per minute
B) At least 120 compressions per minute
C) 100 to 120 compressions per minute
D) No greater than 100 compressions per minute

A

C) 100 to 120 compressions per minute

96
Q

Harsh, high-pitched inspiratory sounds are characteristic of:

A) Rales
B) Stridor
C) Rhonchi
D) Wheezing

A

B) Stridor

97
Q

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

A) Labored breathing
B) Dependent edema
C) Pulmonary edema
D) Flat jugular veins

A

B) Dependent edema

98
Q

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies:

A) Typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control
B) Focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made
C) Addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process
D) Involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital

A

C) Addresses the patient’s symptoms more than the actual disease process

99
Q

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because:

A) It is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it
B) It delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation
C) Its use does not require the presence of advanced life support personnel
D) It delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy

A

B) It delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation

100
Q

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

A) A shortness of breath or difficulty breathing
B) A complete cessation of respiratory effort
C) A marked increase in the exhalation phase
D) Labored breathing with reduced tidal volume

A

A) A shortness of breath or difficulty breathing

EMT 22-1 Exams (6 decks)

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