Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EMT 22-1 Exams > Exam 4 (Fisher Questions) > Flashcards

Exam 4 (Fisher Questions) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NREMT® EMT flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct?

A) The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred
B) Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis
C) Rape causes more physical than emotional harm
D) Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape

A

B) Rape is a legal term, not a medical diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The stinger from a honeybee should be:

A) Left in place and covered
B) Scraped away from the skin
C) Squeezed with tweezers and removed
D) Irrigated with copious amounts of water

A

B) Scraped away from the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following findings should concern the EMT the MOST when assessing a patient who complains of a headache?

A) Sinus congestion
B) Neck stiffness or pain
C) History of migraines
D) Slow onset of symptoms

A

B) Neck stiffness or pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:

A) Have a false positive home pregnancy test
B) Lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours
C) Experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted
D) Become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide

A

C) Experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

A) Patient’s mental status
B) Rate of the patient’s pulse
C) Presence of a medical identification tag
D) Rate and depth of breathing

A

D) Rate and depth of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain?

A) Blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe
B) Reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere
C) Ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe
D) Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

A

D) Respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT’s main focus should be to:

A) Determine the underlying cause of her problem
B) Ask questions related to her gynecologic history
C) Maintain her ABCs and transport without delay
D) Keep assessment and treatment to a minimum

A

C) Maintain her ABCs and transport without delay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

As a woman approaches menopause:

A) Her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity
B) She cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels
C) She usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding
D) Her risk of developing pelvic inflammatory disease lowers significantly

A

A) Her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Supplemental oxygen and keeping the patient supine
B) Refraining from placing any dressings in the vagina
C) Carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina
D) Treating external lacerations with sterile compresses

A

C) Carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient’s allergic reaction?

A) The patient’s family history
B) The patient’s general physical appearance
C) The environment in which the patient is found
D) The time of year in which the exposure occurred

A

C) The environment in which the patient is found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When a female has reached menarche:

A) She is capable of becoming pregnant
B) She can no longer produce an ovum
C) She usually requires hormone therapy
D) Menstrual periods become less frequent

A

A) She is capable of becoming pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Fructose
B) Actidose
C) LiquiChar
D) InstaChar

A

A) Fructose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is an example of a functional behavior disorder?

A) Head trauma
B) Drug addiction
C) Schizophrenia
D) Alzheimer’s disease

A

C) Schizophrenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Assessing the patient’s mental status
B) Ensuring the absence of a gag reflex
C) Checking the medication’s expiration date
D) Requesting permission from medical control

A

B) Ensuring the absence of a gag reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Intense stress
B) Schizophrenia
C) Alzheimer’s disease
D) Mind-altering substance use

A

C) Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should:

A) Properly dispose of the syringe
B) Record the time and dose given
C) Reassess the patient’s vital signs
D) Notify medical control of your action

A

A) Properly dispose of the syringe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A psychologic disorder that impairs bodily function when the body seems to be structurally normal is called a:

A) Traumatic brain injury
B) Seizure
C) Drug and alcohol abuse
D) Functional disorder

A

D) Functional disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When assessing a patient with a behavioral crisis, you should:

A) Be direct and clearly state your intentions
B) Frisk the patient for the presence of weapons
C) Spend as little time with the patient as possible
D) Ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety

A

A) Be direct and clearly state your intentions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of:

A) Ecstasy
B) Oxycodone (Percocet)
C) Amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine)
D) Crack cocaine

A

B) Oxycodone (Percocet)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to:

A) Move the patient to a safe area
B) Avoid contaminating yourself
C) Decontaminate the patient’s skin
D) Obtain and maintain a patent airway

A

B) Avoid contaminating yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder can happen after:

A) Alcohol withdrawal
B) A bout with depression
C) Exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence
D) Extended periods of hyperthermia or hypothermia

A

C) Exposure to or injury from a traumatic occurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type 1 diabetes:

A) Is typically treated with medications such as metformin
B) Is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body
C) Typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age
D) Is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL

A

B) Is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure and swallowing, are controlled by the:

A) Brain stem
B) Cerebrum
C) Cerebellum
D) Cerebral cortex

A

A) Brain stem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Components of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale include:

A) Speech, pupil reaction, and memory
B) Arm drift, memory, and grip strength
C) Arm drift, speech, and facial droop
D) Facial droop, speech, and pupil size

A

C) Arm drift, speech, and facial droop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a focal-onset aware seizure?

A) Absence of breathing
B) Normal level of consciousness
C) No change in vision, smell, or taste
D) Generalized twitching of all muscles

A

B) Normal level of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated?

A) Chlamydia
B) Ovarian cysts
C) Genital herpes
D) Ectopic pregnancy

A

A) Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes?

A) Total lack of appetite
B) Weight gain and edema
C) Weight loss and polyuria
D) Low blood glucose level

A

C) Weight loss and polyuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:

A) Limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries
B) Performed in the presence of at least two police officers
C) As detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented
D) Deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician

A

A) Limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:

A) Blood glucose levels rapidly fall
B) The cells rapidly metabolize glucose
C) The pancreas produces excess insulin
D) Insulin is not available in the body

A

D) Insulin is not available in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct?

A) Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly
B) Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis
C) Fire ant bites typically occur on the face
D) Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin

A

A) Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The term “behavioral crisis” is MOST accurately defined as:

A) A sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member
B) A situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior
C) A medical illness with psychological symptoms that may lead to limited motor functioning
D) A period of severe depression that last longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications

A

B) A situation in which a patient of any age exhibits agitated, violent, or uncooperative behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include:

A) Tachycardia
B) Hypothermia
C) Hypotension
D) Slurred speech

A

A) Tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:

A) May be relatively painless
B) Is typically not as severe
C) Can be controlled in the field
D) Often presents with acute pain

A

A) May be relatively painless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction?

A) An exaggerated immune system response to any substance
B) Destruction of the immune system by an external substance
C) A release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance
D) A direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

A

A) An exaggerated immune system response to any substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When assessing for arm drift of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should:

A) Observe movement of the arms for approximately 2 minutes
B) Expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient’s side
C) Ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment
D) Ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down

A

C) Ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction?

A) A 21-year old female who inhaled pollen
B) A 30-year old male who was stung by a bee
C) A 45-year old male who ingested penicillin
D) A 50-year old male who was exposed to latex

A

C) A 45-year old male who ingested penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Solid abdominal organs include the:

A) Stomach and small intestine
B) Spleen, kidneys, and pancreas
C) Gallbladder and large intestine
D) Urinary bladder, colon, and ureters

A

B) Spleen, kidneys, and pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A patient with an altered mental status is:

A) Completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli
B) Typically alert but is confused as to preceding events
C) Usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus
D) Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

A

D) Not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies?

A) Liver
B) Kidneys
C) Spleen
D) Pancreas

A

C) Spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What type of poisoning will cause burns around the mouth in children?

A) Plant poisoning
B) Injected poison
C) Alkaline poison
D) Inhaled poison

A

C) Alkaline poison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when:

A) Wheezing and hypotension are present
B) The patient is anxious and tachycardic
C) A paramedic is present at the scene
D) The reaction produces severe urticaria

A

A) Wheezing and hypotension are present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Organic brain syndrome is defined as:

A) Bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain
B) A dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function
C) A disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ
D) A change in behavior or mental status secondary to decreased cerebral blood flow

A

B) A dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space?

A) Liver
B) Spleen
C) Pancreas
D) Gallbladder

A

C) Pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is:

A) Depression
B) Drug abuse
C) Advanced age
D) A chronic illness

A

A) Depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for:

A) 3 seconds
B) 8 seconds
C) 10 seconds
D) 15 seconds

A

A) 3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the:

A) Brain
B) Kidneys
C) Liver
D) Pancreas

A

C) Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Signs of excited delirium include:

A) Pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils
B) Diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations
C) Slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever
D) Subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts

A

B) Diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A strangulated hernia is one that:

A) Spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention
B) Can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs
C) Is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours
D) Loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues

A

D) Loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct?

A) The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver
B) The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated
C) The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized
D) An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs

A

C) The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Your patient’s past medical history includes hypertension, congestive heart failure, diabetes, and seizures. Today, he presents with signs of acute renal failure. Which of his medical problems MOST likely caused this?

A) Seizures
B) Diabetes
C) Hypertension
D) Heart failure

A

D) Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke?

A) Blockage of a cerebral artery
B) Acute atherosclerotic disease
C) Rupture of a cerebral artery
D) Narrowing of a carotid artery

A

A) Blockage of a cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of the following conditions or situations would MOST likely make excited delirium worse?

A) Alcohol withdrawal
B) Elevated blood glucose
C) Dimly lit environment
D) Limited physical contact

A

A) Alcohol withdrawal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Inhaled airborne chemicals should be diluted with:

A) Oxygen
B) Syrup of ipecac
C) Activated charcoal
D) An alkaline antidote

A

A) Oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to:

A) Call medical control
B) Be alert for vomiting
C) Monitor the patient’s blood pressure
D) Document the intervention

A

B) Be alert for vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___ is what you can see of a person’s response to the environment.

A) Affect
B) Behavior
C) Neurosis
D) Psychosis

A

B) Behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The principal symptom in both infectious and noninfectious gastroenteritis is:

A) Vomiting
B) Diarrhea
C) Dysuria
D) High fever

A

B) Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Hemoglobin is:

A) The fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body
B) Essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs
C) Found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen
D) A key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection

A

C) Found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen

58
Q

People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Married males older than 30 years
B) Those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness
C) Children with parents addicted to alcohol
D) Substance abusers

A

A) Married males older than 30 years

59
Q

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Diet and exercise
B) Tolbutamide (Orinase)
C) Glyburide (Micronase)
D) Supplemental insulin

A

D) Supplemental insulin

60
Q

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by:

A) Retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium
B) Eliminating toxic waste products from the body
C) Removing water and sodium from the body
D) Accommodating a large amount of blood volume

A

C) Removing water and sodium from the body

61
Q

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is:

A) Not able to swallow without choking
B) Experiencing a right hemispheric stroke
C) Unable to produce or understand speech
D) Usually conscious but has slurred speech

A

C) Unable to produce or understand speech

62
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the Salmonella bacterium is correct?

A) Refrigeration of food will prevent salmonellosis
B) Symptoms of salmonellosis appear within 12 hours
C) The Salmonella bacterium produces toxins that cause food poisoning
D) The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning

A

D) The Salmonella bacterium itself causes food poisoning

63
Q

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to:

A) Lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen
B) Sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent
C) Lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position
D) Sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles

A

A) Lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen

64
Q

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:

A) Has gathered patient history information
B) Has obtained a complete set of vital signs
C) Ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant
D) Has formed a general impression of the patient

A

A) Has gathered patient history information

65
Q

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested:

A) Iron
B) Ethanol
C) Aspirin
D) Methanol

A

C) Aspirin

66
Q

When caring for a female patient who has been sexually assaulted, you should:

A) Ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her
B) Allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment
C) Advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change clothes
D) Place any bloodstained clothing or other articles into separate paper bags

A

D) Place any bloodstained clothing or other articles into separate paper bags

67
Q

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured?

A) Liver
B) Stomach
C) Appendix
D) Gallbladder

A

A) Liver

68
Q

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than men?

A) Cystitis
B) Hepatitis
C) Pancreatitis
D) Cholecystitis

A

A) Cystitis

69
Q

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall:

A) Thins and begins to separate
B) Becomes engorged with blood
C) Diverts blood flow to the vagina
D) Sheds and is expelled externally

A

B) Becomes engorged with blood

70
Q

The three major parts of the brain are the:

A) Cerebellum, medulla, and occiput
B) Brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord
C) Midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord
D) Cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

A

D) Cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem

71
Q

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called:

A) Referred pain
B) Radiating pain
C) Visceral pain
D) Remote pain

A

A) Referred pain

72
Q

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:

A) Given the option to be treated by a female EMT
B) Encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes
C) Thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist
D) Asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator

A

A) Given the option to be treated by a female EMT

73
Q

Potentially life-threatening consequences of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) include:

A) Ovarian cysts and gonorrhea
B) Bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia
C) Uterine rupture with severe bleeding
D) Ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy

A

D) Ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy

74
Q

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and hyperthermia should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of:

A) Cocaine
B) Aspirin
C) Acetaminophen
D) Ibuprofen

A

B) Aspirin

75
Q

The poison control center will provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center:

A) Knows the location of the closest hospital
B) Is aware of the patient’s age and gender
C) Is aware of the substance that is involved
D) Knows why the patient overdosed on the drug

A

C) Is aware of the substance that is involved

76
Q

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because:

A) They drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration
B) Excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys
C) Low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration
D) High blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage

A

B) Excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys

77
Q

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured aneurysm?

A) Unilateral hemiparesis
B) Confusion and weakness
C) Nasal discharge of blood
D) Sudden, severe headache

A

D) Sudden, severe headache

78
Q

Excessive eating caused by cellular “hunger” is called:

A) Polyphagia
B) Polydipsia
C) Dysphasia
D) Dyspepsia

A

A) Polyphagia

79
Q

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is:

A) Severe stress
B) Hypertension
C) Heavy exertion
D) Diabetes mellitus

A

B) Hypertension

80
Q

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

A) Take vital signs
B) Restrain the patient
C) Ensure your safety
D) Obtain proper consent

A

C) Ensure your safety

81
Q

Urticaria is the medical term for:

A) Hives
B) Burning
C) Swelling
D) A wheal

A

A) Hives

82
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)?

A) The passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood
B) Symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
C) Sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants
D) Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

A

D) Burning or gnawing stomach pain that subsides immediately after eating

83
Q

Substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as:

A) Knowingly selling illicit drugs to buy more drugs
B) Willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness
C) Unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol
D) Misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

A

D) Misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

84
Q

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include:

A) The bee venom itself
B) Adrenaline and histamines
C) Leukocytes and epinephrine
D) Histamines and leukotrienes

A

D) Histamines and leukotrienes

85
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct?

A) It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained
B) Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient’s emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and
respirations.
C) The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is
violent.
D) Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the
field.

A

B) Although the physical exam can be difficult, the patient’s emotional state may be determined by noting facial expressions, pulse rate, and
respirations.

86
Q

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for:

A) A seizure
B) An acute stroke
C) Respiratory distress
D) A febrile convulsion

A

A) A seizure

87
Q

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

A) Foramen magnum
B) Vertebral foramen
C) Foramen lamina
D) Cauda equina

A

A) Foramen magnum

88
Q

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:

A) Pancreatitis
B) Appendicitis
C) Cholecystitis
D) Gastroenteritis

A

B) Appendicitis

89
Q

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the:

A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Brain stem
D) Cerebral cortex

A

B) Cerebellum

90
Q

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type I diabetes and
has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level.
She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient’s clinical presentation, you should suspect that she:

A) Is significantly hyperglycemic
B) Has a low blood glucose level
C) Has a urinary tract infection
D) Has overdosed on her insulin

A

A) Is significantly hyperglycemic

91
Q

Two of the MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are:

A) Urticaria and angioedema
B) Watery eyes and localized itching
C) Expiratory stridor and tachycardia
D) Hypertension and swollen hands

A

A) Urticaria and angioedema

92
Q

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

A) An unconscious 33-year old male with cool, clammy skin
B) A conscious 37-year old female with nausea and vomiting
C) A semiconscious 40-year old female without a gag reflex
D) A confused 55-year old male with tachycardia and pallor

A

D) A confused 55-year old male with tachycardia and pallor

93
Q

Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) typically does NOT affect the:

A) Uterus
B) Ovaries
C) Urinary bladder
D) Fallopian tubes

A

C) Urinary bladder

94
Q

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct?

A) Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder the causes the blood to clot too quickly
B) In the sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen
C) The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin
D) Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel

A

B) In the sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen

95
Q

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include:

A) Firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider
B) Placing the patient between yourself and an exit
C) Allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes
D) Being prepared to spend extra time with the patient

A

D) Being prepared to spend extra time with the patient

96
Q

You may not be able to determine whether a person has a mental illness, but you can predict the person’s likelihood of becoming:

A) Diabetic
B) Suicidal
C) Psychotic
D) Violent

A

D) Violent

97
Q

After ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT’s next priority when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to:

A) Assess the patient’s response to his or her environment
B) Diagnose the patient’s problem and provide definitive treatment
C) Transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility
D) Determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice

A

A) Assess the patient’s response to his or her environment

98
Q

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for:

A) Various cancers
B) Hemorrhagic stroke
C) Acute arterial rupture
D) Pulmonary embolism

A

D) Pulmonary embolism

99
Q

Which of the following questions would be LEAST pertinent during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance?

A) How much of the substance was taken?
B) How long ago was the substance taken?
C) What type of substance was taken?
D) Why was the substance ingested?

A

D) Why was the substance ingested?

100
Q

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes who has an altered mental status, it would be MOST important to determine:

A) If he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress
B) Approximately how much water the patient drank that day
C) If there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions
D) The name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin

A

A) If he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress

101
Q

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing:

A) Addiction
B) Dependence
C) Withdrawal
D) Tolerance

A

D) Tolerance

102
Q

EMTs receive a call for a possible sexual assault. The patient is a young female who is conscious and alert and has no apparent injuries. She states, “I can’t remember anything, but I know I was raped.” The EMTs should suspect that:

A) The patient was given a drug prior to the incident
B) The patient knew her attacker, but is afraid to say
C) An underlying head injury is causing her amnesia
D) The traumatic experience has created a mental block

A

A) The patient was given a drug prior to the incident

103
Q

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is:

A) Peritonitis
B) High fever
C) Severe pain
D) Internal bleeding

A

A) Peritonitis

104
Q

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing?

A) Blindness
B) Depression
C) Alcoholism
D) Hepatitis B

A

A) Blindness

105
Q

In general, oral glucose should be given to any patient who:

A) Has a blood glucose level that is less than 100 mg/dL
B) Has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes
C) Has documented hypoglycemia and an absent gag reflex
D) Is unresponsive, even in the absence of a history of diabetes

A

B) Has an altered mental status and a history of diabetes

106
Q

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway?

A) Rales
B) Stridor
C) Rhonchi
D) Wheezing

A

B) Stridor

107
Q

Chronic renal failure is a condition that:

A) Can be reversed with prompt treatment
B) Occurs from conditions such as dehydration
C) Is often caused by hypertension or diabetes
D) Causes dehydration from excessive urination

A

C) Is often caused by hypertension or diabetes

108
Q

A technique used to gain insight into a patient’s thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called:

A) Active listening
B) Passive listening
C) Intuitive listening
D) Reflective listening

A

D) Reflective listening

109
Q

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately?

A) Diffuse urticaria
B) Severe hypotension
C) Upper airway swelling
D) Systemic vasodilation

A

C) Upper airway swelling

110
Q

The major side effect associated with administration of activated charcoal is:

A) Headache
B) Black stools
C) Abdominal pain
D) Ringing in the ears

A

B) Black stools

111
Q

If you are uncertain how to treat a patient who has been poisoned or exposed to a specific substance, you should:

A) Administer naloxone via the intranasal route
B) Try to find the container the substance was in
C) Keep the patient supine and elevate his legs
D) Encourage the patient to drink milk or water

A

B) Try to find the container the substance was in

112
Q

The parietal peritoneum lines the:

A) Retroperitoneal space
B) Lungs and chest cavity
C) Walls of the abdominal cavity
D) Surface of the abdominal organs

A

C) Walls of the abdominal cavity

113
Q

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n):

A) Disorder of glucose metabolism
B) Abnormally high blood glucose level
C) Mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys
D) Lack of insulin production in the pancreas

A

A) Disorder of glucose metabolism

114
Q

A 38-year-old woman was bitten by fire ants while at the park. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious; has labored breathing; and has
a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body, and her face is swollen. You should:

A) Perform a rapid secondary assessment
B) Assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen
C) Locate the area where the fire ants bit her
D) Place her supine with her legs elevated

A

B) Assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen

115
Q

Symptomatic hypoglycemia will MOST likely develop if a patient:

A) Takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin
B) Markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose
C) Eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion
D) Misses one or two prescribed insulin injections

A

A) Takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin

116
Q

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Abdominal cramps
B) Drying of the eyes
C) Flushing of the skin
D) Persistent dry cough

A

B) Drying of the eyes

117
Q

Febrile seizures:

A) Often result in permanent brain damage
B) Are also referred to as absence seizures
C) Are usually benign but should be evaluated
D) Occur when a child’s fever rises slowly

A

C) Are usually benign but should be evaluated

118
Q

Heroin is an example of a(n):

A) Opioid
B) Hypnotic
C) Cholinergic
D) Sympathomimetic

A

A) Opioid

119
Q

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she:

A) Has had a prior heart attack
B) Is older than 60 years of age
C) Has a GCS score that is less than 8
D) Has bleeding within the brain

A

D) Has bleeding within the brain

120
Q

When an auto-injector is used to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the:

A) Medial part of the buttocks
B) Lateral portion of the arm
C) Lateral portion of the thigh
D) Medial portion of the thigh

A

C) Lateral portion of the thigh

121
Q

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called:

A) A pustule
B) Purpura
C) Urticaria
D) A wheal

A

D) A wheal

122
Q

Most poisonings occur via the ___ route.

A) Ingestion
B) Injection
C) Inhalation
D) Absorption

A

A) Ingestion

123
Q

A 60-year old female presents with a tearing sensation in her lower back. Her skin is sweaty and she is tachycardic. The EMT should suspect:

A) Kidney stones
B) Aortic aneurysm
C) Strangulated hernia
D) Acute pancreatitis

A

B) Aortic aneurysm

124
Q

Immediately after physically restraining a violent patient, the EMT should:

A) Inform medical control of the situation
B) Reassess the patient’s airway and breathing
C) Advise the patient why restraint was needed
D) Document the time the restraints were applied

A

B) Reassess the patient’s airway and breathing

125
Q

The normal blood glucose level is between:

A) 60 and 80 mg/dL
B) 80 and 120 mg/dL
C) 130 and 150 mg/dL
D) 160 and 200 mg/dL

A

B) 80 and 120 mg/dL

126
Q

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the:

A) Vagina
B) Uterus
C) Fallopian tube
D) Cervix

A

C) Fallopian tube

127
Q

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who:

A) Consume a lot of alcohol
B) Have uncontrolled diabetes
C) Have a history of esophagitis
D) Have weak immune systems

A

A) Consume a lot of alcohol

128
Q

In which position should you restrain a physically uncooperative patient?

A) Prone
B) With hands tied behind the back
C) Supine
D) With arms and legs bound together

A

C) Supine

129
Q

Status epilepticus is characterized by:

A) Generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes
B) An absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura
C) Profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity
D) Prolonged seizures without a return to consciousness

A

D) Prolonged seizures without a return to consciousness

130
Q

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within ___ following administration.

A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour

A

B) 1 minute

131
Q

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n):

A) Allergen
B) Antibody
C) Histamine
D) Leukotriene

A

A) Allergen

132
Q

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should:

A) Only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses
B) Translate the patient’s words or statements using proper medical terminology
C) Record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement
D) Keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words

A

D) Keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words

133
Q

A hypnotic drug is one that:

A) Induces sleep
B) Prevents amnesia
C) Increases the pulse
D) Increases the senses

A

A) Induces sleep

134
Q

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in:

A) Ileus
B) An ulcer
C) Appendicitis
D) Cholecystitis

A

B) An ulcer

135
Q

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellowjacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates:

A) Rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues
B) A significant amount of fluid in the alveoli
C) Narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs
D) Enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs

A

C) Narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs

136
Q

A 40-year old patient without a history of seizures experiences a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is:

A) Epilepsy
B) A brain tumor
C) A serious infection
D) Intracranial bleeding

A

A) Epilepsy

137
Q

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A) Warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; rapid respirations
B) Cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; rapid respirations
C) Warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; deep, slow respirations
D) Cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; deep, rapid respirations

A

B) Cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; rapid respirations

138
Q

An EMT’s primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to:

A) Administer the appropriate antidote
B) Recognize that a poisoning occurred
C) Administer 25g of activated charcoal
D) Contact poison control immediately

A

B) Recognize that a poisoning occurred

139
Q

The onset of menstruation usually occurs in females who are:

A) Between 8 and 10 years of age
B) Between 11 and 16 years of age
C) Between 18 and 23 years of age
D) Between 25 and 28 years of age

A

B) Between 11 and 16 years of age

140
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct?

A) The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active
B) PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy
C) PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past
D) The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain

A

B) PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy

EMT 22-1 Exams (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions