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EMT 22-1 Exams > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

An EMT may administer aspirin to a patient if:

A) The patient is currently experiencing hypotension
B) Authorization from medical control has been obtained
C) Transport time to the hospital is greater than 30 minutes
D) The patient is believed to be experiencing an acute stroke

A

B) Authorization from medical control has been obtained

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2
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway?

A) Larynx
B) Pharynx
C) Bronchus
D) Oropharynx

A

C) Bronchus

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3
Q

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by:

A) Adequate amounts of surfactant
B) Water or blood within the alveoli
C) Surfactant-destroying organisms
D) Pulmonary capillary constriction

A

A) Adequate amounts of surfactant

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4
Q

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately ___ pounds per square inch (psi).

A) 500
B) 1,000
C) 2,000
D) 3,000

A

C) 2,000

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5
Q

Nitroglycerin, when given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain:

A) Relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries
B) Increases myocardial contraction force
C) Increases blood return to the right atrium
D) Constricts the veins throughout the body

A

A) Relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries

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6
Q

If a problem with a team member is not directly or immediately impacting patient care, the team leader should:

A) Engage the team member at once
B) Discuss the problem after the call
C) Contact the medical director at once
D) Ignore the problem to avoid conflict

A

B) Discuss the problem after the call

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7
Q

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?

A) The majority of a horizontal person’s weight is in the torso
B) Most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher
C) A semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends
D) The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of weight

A

A) The majority of a horizontal person’s weight is in the torso

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8
Q

Oxygen toxicity is a condition in which:

A) Excessive blood oxygen levels cause the hypoxic patient to stop breathing
B) Cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood
C) Significantly low levels of oxygen in the blood damage the cellular tissue
D) Decreased levels of oxygen in the blood result in free radical production

A

B) Cellular tissue damage occurs from excessive oxygen levels in the blood

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9
Q

Which of the following factors will cause a reduction in minute volume in an adult?

A) Shallow breathing
B) Increased tidal volume
C) Respirations of 20 breaths/min
D) Slight increase in respiratory rate

A

A) Shallow breathing

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10
Q

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:

A) Determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions
B) Identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment
C) Look specifically for signs and symptoms of adequate perfusion
D) Find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life

A

B) Identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment

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11
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely facilitate an accurate and effective verbal handoff report at the hospital?

A) Brief pause in care to provide the verbal report
B) Clearly identifying your EMS certification level
C) Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format
D) Proving the handoff report only to a physician

A

C) Use of a mutually agreed-upon handoff format

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12
Q

A 29-year old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is:

A) 10
B) 12
C) 13
D) 14

A

C) 13

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13
Q

The term “pharmacology” is MOST accurately defined as:

A) The study of drugs that are produced illegally
B) The study of how medications affect the brain
C) The study of drugs and their actions on the body
D) The study of drug excretion from the human body

A

C) The study of drugs and their actions on the body

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14
Q

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to:

A) 24%
B) 35%
C) 44%
D) 52%

A

C) 44%

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15
Q

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ___% inspired oxygen.

A) 70
B) 80
C) 90
D) 100

A

C) 90

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16
Q

The hypoxic drive is influenced by:

A) High blood oxygen levels
B) Low blood oxygen levels
C) Low blood carbon dioxide levels
D) High blood carbon dioxide levels

A

B) Low blood oxygen levels

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17
Q

The presence of elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood is called:

A) Acidosis
B) Hypoxia
C) Hypoxemia
D) Hypercarbia

A

D) Hypercarbia

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18
Q

When working as an independent health care group member, the EMT should expect that he or she:

A) Will receive no support or guidance from an EMS supervisor
B) Will be specifically instructed on how to perform a specific task
C) Does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task
D) Will rely on the group leader for making virtually all decisions

A

C) Does not have to wait for an assignment before performing a task

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19
Q

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called:

A) Ataxic respirations
B) Agonal respirations
C) Eupneic respirations
D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations

A

D) Cheyne-Stokes respirations

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20
Q

The ___ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.

A) Coccyx
B) Sacrum
C) Thorax
D) Ischium

A

B) Sacrum

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21
Q

Which comes first in EMS decision making?

A) Data gathering
B) Data interpretation
C) Planning
D) Team communication

A

A) Data gathering

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22
Q

The concept of consistent care across the entire health care team from first patient contact to patient discharge is called:

A) The standard of care
B) The continuum of care
C) Patient care advocacy
D) The scope of practice

A

B) The continuum of care

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23
Q

The medical term for a low blood glucose level is:

A) Hypoglycemia
B) Hyperglycemia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypertension

A

A) Hypoglycemia

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24
Q

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ___ artery.

A) Radial
B) Carotid
C) Brachial
D) Femoral

A

A) Radial

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25
Q

In contrast to a health care group, a health care team:

A) Works independently
B) Works interdependently
C) Is not assigned specific roles
D) Does not function under protocols

A

B) Works interdependently

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26
Q

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:

A) Increased blood oxygen
B) Peripheral vasodilation
C) Venous vasoconstriction
D) Decreased blood oxygen

A

D) Decreased blood oxygen

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27
Q

In an independent group, you would have:

A) Parallel work
B) A common set of tasks
C) Shared transportation
D) Your own work area

A

D) Your own work area

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28
Q

The process by which medications travel through body tissues until they reach the bloodstream is called:

A) Adsorption
B) Absorption
C) Suspension
D) Digestion

A

B) Absorption

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29
Q

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should:

A) Maintain stabilization of the head
B) Look in the ears for gross bleeding
C) Prepare the immobilization equipment
D) Assess the rest of the body for bleeding

A

A) Maintain stabilization of the head

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30
Q

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?

A) Vomitus
B) The tongue
C) Blood clots
D) Aspirated fluid

A

B) The tongue

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31
Q

Which of the following is an example of a symptom?

A) Cyanosis
B) Headache
C) Tachycardia
D) Hypertension

A

B) Headache

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32
Q

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the:

A) Pulse pressure
B) Systolic blood pressure
C) Diastolic blood pressure
D) Cardiac output pressure

A

B) Systolic blood pressure

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33
Q

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient’s arm will give a:

A) Falsely low systolic and diastolic reading
B) Falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading
C) Falsely high systolic and diastolic reading
D) Falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading

A

C) Falsely high systolic and diastolic reading

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34
Q

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia?

A) Anxiety
B) Cyanosis
C) Tachycardia
D) Restlessness

A

B) Cyanosis

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35
Q

Treatment and transport priorities at the scene of a mass-casualty incident should be determined after:

A) A physician arrives at the scene
B) Medical control has been contacted
C) All the patients have been triaged
D) Area hospitals have been notified

A

C) All the patients have been triaged

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36
Q

The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:

A) 100%
B) 94-99%
C) 90-94%
D) 88-90%

A

B) 94-99%

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37
Q

The first rule of safe lifting is to:

A) Always lift with your palms facing down
B) Spread your legs approximately 20 inches apart
C) Keep your back in a slightly curved position
D) Keep your back in a straight, vertical position

A

D) Keep your back in a straight, vertical position

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38
Q

When a person is standing upright, the weight of anything being lifted and carried in the hands is first reflected onto the:

A) Pelvic girdle
B) Spinal column
C) Thigh muscles
D) Shoulder girdle

A

D) Shoulder girdle

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39
Q

When the EMT assists a paramedic with an advanced intervention, he or she should recall that the focus of the intervention is on:

A) Following local protocol
B) Solving a clinical problem
C) Completing the procedure
D) Learning to perform the skill

A

B) Solving a clinical problem

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40
Q

To be a great EMT, strive for:

A) Retraining
B) Foundational knowledge
C) Management work
D) The chance to replace an EMR

A

B) Foundational knowledge

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41
Q

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and who is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a:

A) Nasal cannula
B) Nonrebreathing mask
C) Bag-mask device
D) Mouth-to-mask device

A

B) Nonrebreathing mask

42
Q

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:

A) Stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened
B) All patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport
C) Responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI
D) Patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

A

D) Patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

43
Q

When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:

A) Obtain updated vital signs
B) Reassess your interventions
C) Repeat the primary assessment
D) Confirm medical history findings

A

C) Repeat the primary assessment

44
Q

With the flowmeter set at 6 L/min, the nasal cannula will deliver up to ___ oxygen.

A) 14%
B) 24%
C) 34%
D) 44%

A

D) 44%

45
Q

Which of the following is an example of a generic of a drug?

A) Bayer
B) Advil
C) Excedrin
D) Aspirin

A

D) Aspirin

46
Q

EMTs arrive at the scene of an ill person. The EMR, who arrived before the EMTs, advises that the patient had a syncopal episode. The patient is conscious and alert and remains so throughout transport. When transferring patient care to the emergency department nurse, the EMT should advise the nurse that:

A) The patient had a reported syncopal episode
B) She should contact the EMR about the incident
C) The EMR was probably mistaken about the episode
D) There is no evidence to support the syncopal episode

A

A) The patient had a reported syncopal episode

47
Q

High-flow oxygen with a nasal cannula during the preoxygenation phase of endotracheal intubation is called:

A) Denitrogenation
B) Apneic oxygenation
C) Passive ventilation
D) Active ventilation

A

B) Apneic oxygenation

48
Q

The most appropriate carrying device to use when moving a patient across rough or uneven terrain is the:

A) Stair chair
B) Wheeled stretcher
C) Scoop stretcher
D) Basket stretcher

A

D) Basket stretcher

49
Q

After applying medical restraints to a combative patient, you should:

A) Inform the patient that the restraints are punishment for their behavior.
B) Remove them only if the patient verbally commits to calming down.
C) Position the patient prone in order to further prevent injury to yourself.
D) Remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

A

D) Remove them only after hospital personnel have requested you to do so.

50
Q

A patient’s short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:

A) Time and place
B) Day and event
C) Event and person
D) Person and place

A

B) Day and event

51
Q

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A) Alveoli
B) The trachea
C) The epiglottis
D) Bronchioles

A

C) The epiglottis

52
Q

You are treating a 45-year old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control?

A) Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly
B) Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance
C) Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route
D) Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed

A

C) Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route

53
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct?

A) The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine
B) The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route
C) The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug
D) EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector

A

C) The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug

54
Q

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover:

A) Two-thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
B) One-half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow
C) One-third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow
D) The entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow

A

A) Two-thirds the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow

55
Q

Health care providers who infrequently work together can function effectively as a team if they work in an environment that supports and promotes:

A) Discipline
B) Competition
C) Collaboration
D) Rigid protocols

A

C) Collaboration

56
Q

An effective team leader should:

A) Command his or her team
B) Help the team accomplish goals
C) Perform all difficult interventions
D) Refrain from any direct patient care

A

B) Help the team accomplish goals

57
Q

The most serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:

A) Unnecessarily wasting time
B) Injury to you or your patient
C) Causing patient anxiety or fear
D) Confusion among team members

A

B) Injury to you or your patient

58
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the scoop stretcher is not correct?

A) The construction of the scoop stretcher prohibits X-rays while the patient is on it.
B) You must fully secure the patient to the scoop stretcher before moving him or her.
C) A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column.
D) Both sides of the patient must be accessible for a scoop stretcher to be used.

A

C) A scoop stretcher will provide adequate immobilization of a patient’s spinal column

59
Q

In contrast to typical wheeled ambulance stretchers, features of a bariatric stretcher include:

A) A collapsible undercarriage
B) Weight capacity of up to 650 pounds
C) Increased stability from a wider wheelbase
D) Two safety rails on both sides of the stretcher

A

C) Increased stability from a wider wheelbase

60
Q

Which of the following situations would require an urgent patient move?

A) Conscious patient with abrasions and a possibly fractured humerus
B) Imminent risk of a fire or explosion in or near the patient’s vehicle
C) Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock
D) Stable patient who is blocking access to a critically injured patient

A

C) Semiconscious patient with shallow respirations and signs of shock

61
Q

Aspirin is beneficial to patients suspected of having a heart attack because it:

A) Reduces the associated chest pain
B) Dissolves the coronary artery clot
C) Causes direct coronary vasodilation
D) Preventions the aggregation of platelets

A

D) Preventions the aggregation of platelets

62
Q

EMTS and other health care providers function as a true team when they work:

A) Dependently
B) Independently
C) Interdependently
D) Under standing orders

A

C) Interdependently

63
Q

The diaphragm is innervated by the ___ nerve, which allows it to contract.

A) Vagus
B) Phrenic
C) Hypoglossal
D) Vestibulocochlear

A

B) Phrenic

64
Q

Which of the following statements regarding parenteral medications is correct?

A) Tylenol is an example of a parenteral medication because it is taken orally
B) Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications
C) Compared to enteral medications, parenteral medications have fewer side effects
D) Parenteral medications are absorbed by the body through the digestive system

A

B) Parenteral medications are absorbed more quickly than enteral medications

65
Q

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:

A) Flex at the waist instead of the hips
B) Avoid the use of log rolls or body drags
C) Use a direct carry whenever possible
D) Keep the weight as close to your body as possible

A

D) Keep the weight as close to your body as possible

66
Q

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately?

A) A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin
B) A conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations
C) A conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume
D) An unconscious 52-year old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

A

A) A conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin

67
Q

When the shoulder girdle is aligned over the pelvis during lifting:

A) The weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae
B) The hands can be held further apart from the body
C) The muscles of the back experience increased strain
D) The risk of back injuries is significantly increased

A

A) The weight is exerted straight down the vertebrae

68
Q

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen?

A) Muscle
B) Heart
C) Liver
D) Kidneys

A

A) Muscle

69
Q

What medication form does oral glucose come in?

A) Gel
B) Liquid
C) Suspension
D) Fine powder

A

A) Gel

70
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes the correct position of the EMTs who are executing the diamond carry technique?

A) Two at the head, two at the feet, and a fifth EMT balancing the torso
B) One at the head, two at the feet, and a fourth EMT balancing the torso
C) One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso
D) Two at the head, one at the feet, and one on the left side of the patient’s torso

A

C) One at the head, one at the feet, and one on each side of the patient’s torso

71
Q

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation?

A) “Does the pain stay in your chest?”
B) “Does your mother have diabetes?”
C) “Has this ever happened to you before?”
D) “Are there medications that you cannot take?”

A

B) “Does your mother have diabetes?”

72
Q

When using a body drag to pull a patient who is on the ground, you should:

A) Kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over
B) Extend your elbows as far beyond your anterior torso as possible
C) Bend your back laterally to maximize your amount of pulling power
D) Avoid situations involving strenuous effort lasting more than five minutes

A

A) Kneel to minimize the distance that you will have to lean over

73
Q

In ____ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner.

A) Peer-assisted
B) Patient-assisted
C) EMT-administered
D) Paramedic-administered

A

A) Peer-assisted

74
Q

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:

A) Detect and treat all non-life threatening injuries
B) Assess only the parts of the body that are injured
C) Definitively rule out significant internal injuries
D) Locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

A

D) Locate injuries not found in the primary assessment

75
Q

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than:

A) 200 psi
B) 500 psi
C) 1,000 psi
D) 1,500 psi

A

B) 500 psi

76
Q

Separation is especially an issue with medicine used as a(n):

A) Suspension
B) Solution
C) Elixir
D) Gel

A

A) Suspension

77
Q

It is essential that you ___ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease.

A) Throw out
B) Decontaminate
C) Incinerate
D) Properly store

A

B) Decontaminate

78
Q

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder?

A) Vertical-position flowmeter
B) Bourdon-gauge flowmeter
C) Ball-and-float flowmeter
D) Pressure-compensated flowmeter

A

B) Bourdon-gauge flowmeter

79
Q

The effectiveness of pit crew CPR is dependent on:

A) Defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received
B) Protocols that allow the EMT to function without medical control
C) A team leader who is capable of performing all of the patient care tasks
D) Rapidly assessing the patient before assigning roles and responsibilities

A

A) Defining clear roles and responsibilities before the call is received

80
Q

When assessing an elderly male who complains of nausea and generalized weakness, you find that he takes atorvastatin (Lipitor) and amlodipine (Norvasc). These medications suggest a history of:

A) Bacterial infection
B) Cardiovascular disease
C) Reactive airway disease
D) Non-insulin-dependent diabetes

A

B) Cardiovascular disease

81
Q

For patient handoff, it is important for EMTs and hospital staff to use:

A) Common language
B) Common goals
C) Metric-sized tools
D) Shared training

A

A) Common language

82
Q

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?

A) Audible breathing
B) Ability to speak
C) Inspiratory stridor
D) Unresponsiveness

A

B) Ability to speak

83
Q

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?

A) Focused secondary assessment
B) Assessment of oxygen saturation
C) Systematic head-to-toe examination
D) Noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

A

C) Systematic head-to-toe examination

84
Q

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct?

A) Glucose is a complex sugar that rapidly absorbs into the bloodstream
B) Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells
C) Glucose is given to patients who are suspected of being hyperglycemic
D) Glucose is usually administered by the EMT via the intravenous route

A

B) Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the cells

85
Q

The direct carry is used to transfer a patient:

A) With multiple long bone injuries
B) With a possible cervical spine injury
C) From a bed to the ambulance stretcher
D) Who cannot be placed on a backboard

A

C) From a bed to the ambulance stretcher

86
Q

The ___ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered.

A) Type
B) Form
C) Class
D) Name

A

B) Form

87
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is correct?

A) MDIs are contraindicated for patients with asthma or emphysema
B) MDIs are most commonly used by patients with cardiovascular disease
C) An MDI deliver the same amount of medication every time it is used
D) Shaking an MDI prior to use will cause deactivation of the medication

A

C) An MDI deliver the same amount of medication every time it is used

88
Q

In an interdependent group, when one person fails:

A) Everyone fails
B) That person is fired
C) Management will be changed
D) Pay is withheld

A

A) Everyone fails

89
Q

Premature diagnosis during a call can be due to what error?

A) Streamlining
B) Bias
C) Overconfidence
D) Anchoring

A

D) Anchoring

90
Q

You should not attempt to lift a patient who weighs more than 250 pounds with fewer than ____ rescuers, regardless of individual strength.

A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Six

A

B) Four

91
Q

When carrying a patient up or down stairs, you should avoid:

A) Flexing your body at the knees
B) The use of more than two EMTs
C) Using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible
D) The use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher

A

C) Using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible

92
Q

Capnography is used to:

A) Determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled
B) Assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin
C) Trend a patient’s blood pressure and assess for shock
D) Assess how much oxygen is reaching the body’s tissues

A

A) Determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled

93
Q

Which is the most appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to a wheeled stretcher?

A) Log roll
B) Direct carry
C) Extremity carry
D) Draw sheet method

A

D) Draw sheet method

94
Q

Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or fentanyl patch?

A) Sublingual
B) Intraosseous
C) Subcutaneous
D) Transcutaneous

A

D) Transcutaneous

95
Q

A medication with antagonistic properties is one that:

A) Stimulates receptor sites and allows other chemicals to attach to them
B) Enhances the effects of another medication when given in a higher dose
C) Blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them
D) Produces a cumulative effect when mixed with the same type of medication

A

C) Blocks receptor sites and prevents other chemicals from attaching to them

96
Q

Which step in EMS decision making comes after a patient has been transferred?

A) Data gathering
B) Outcome evaluation
C) Planning
D) Team communication

A

B) Outcome evaluation

97
Q

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than ___ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than ___ beats/min.

A) 60, 100
B) 50, 110
C) 40, 120
D) 30, 130

A

A) 60, 100

98
Q

While caring for a patient, the EMT states to her partner: “Why even splint the patient’s leg if they’re only going to remove it in the ED?” This statement indicates that:

A) The EMT’s focus is not on the common goal
B) The patient’s leg does not require splinting
C) The EMT does not trust hospital staff
D) The EMT is being realistic in her thinking

A

A) The EMT’s focus is not on the common goal

99
Q

The extremity lift would not be appropriate to use on a patient:

A) Without a spinal injury
B) With a deformed humerus
C) Who complains of nausea
D) With forearm lacerations

A

B) With a deformed humerus

100
Q

Which of the following would the EMT MOST likely be asked to do when assisting a paramedic with endotracheal intubation?

A) Visualization of the vocal cords
B) Placement of the endotracheal tube
C) Suction under direct laryngoscopy
D) Preoxygenation with a BVM

A

D) Preoxygenation with a BVM

EMT 22-1 Exams (6 decks)

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