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Anatomy > Exam 4 Written > Flashcards

Exam 4 Written Flashcards

1
Q

Two divisions of oral cavity

A

oral cavity proper
vestibule

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2
Q

4 structures within oral cavity proper

A

dental arcades
hard palate
soft palate
tongue

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3
Q

What is the term for cavity between teeth & gingiva (inside of cheeks/lips)

A

vestibule

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4
Q

Boundary between oral cavity & oropharynx

A

palatoglossal arch

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5
Q

Orifice between oral cavity and oropharynx

A

isthmus faucium

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6
Q

Each side of caudal border of soft palate continues as ______.

A

palatopharyngeal arch

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7
Q

What is the opening of nasopharynx over caudal free border of soft palate?

A

intrapharyngeal ostium

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8
Q

What is the boundary between esophagus & pharynx (constriction of cricoid cartilage)?

A

pharyngoesophageal limen

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9
Q

What is the ventral fold of mucosa that attaches the tongue to the oral cavity proper?

A

lingual frenulum

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10
Q

What structure extends caudally from caruncle and contains mandibular + major sublingual ducts?

A

sublingual fold

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11
Q

What structure is where mandibular & sublingual salivary ducts open and protrudes from floor of oral cavity?

A

sublingual caruncle

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12
Q

What is the blood supply to the hard palate?

A

major palatine A

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13
Q

What is the blood supply to the soft palate?

A

minor palatine A

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14
Q

What 3 muscles are responsible for deglutition?

A

levator veli palatini M
tensor veli palatini M
palatinus M

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15
Q

Function of levator veli palatini M

A

raises soft palate

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16
Q

Function of tensor veli palatini M

A

tenses soft palate

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17
Q

Function of palatinus M

A

shortens soft palate

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18
Q

Which 2 papillae are mechanical?

A

filiform
conical

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19
Q

Which 3 papillae are gustatory?

A

fungiform
vallate
foliate

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20
Q

Which papillae are keratinized in cats?

A

filiform

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21
Q

Which papillae are prominent/larger and near root of tongue?

A

conical

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22
Q

Which papillae have a smooth, rounded surface and mushroom shaped?

A

fungiform

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23
Q

Which papillae are arranged in a V-shape and at junction of root & body?

A

vallate

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24
Q

How many vallate papillae does dog have?

A

4-6

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25
Q

What papillae is at the lateral part of the tongue root?

A

foliate

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26
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates tongue? (motor to all tongue muscles)

A

CN XII (Hypoglossal)

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27
Q

What are the bones that form the hyoid apparatus?

A

stylohyoid (paired)
epihyoid (paired)
ceratohyoid (paired)
thyrohyoid (paired)
basihyoid (unpaired)

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28
Q

What kind of teeth stop growing when erupt from gingiva? (aka “short tooth”)

A

Brachydont

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29
Q

What species have brachydont teeth?

A

domestic carnivores

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30
Q

Dense, outer exposed layer of tooth

A

enamel

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31
Q

Calcified, collagen-rich bulk of tooth (lines pulp cavity)

A

dentin

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32
Q

Delicate connective tissue/nerves/vessels of tooth =

A

pulp/dental cavity

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33
Q

What kind of teeth are constantly growing?

A

hypsodont

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34
Q

What species have hypsodont teeth?

A

horses
ruminants

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35
Q

How many teeth do juvenile dogs have?

A

28

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36
Q

How many teeth do juvenile cats have?

A

26

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37
Q

How many teeth do adult dogs have?

A

42

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38
Q

How many teeth do adult cats have?

A

30

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39
Q

Juvenile dog dental formula

A

I: 3/3
C: 1/1
PM: 3/3
x2

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40
Q

Adult dog dental formula

A

I: 3/3
C: 1/1
PM: 4/4
M: 2/3
x2

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41
Q

Juvenile cat dental formula

A

I: 3/3
C: 1/1
PM: 3/2
x2

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42
Q

Adult cat dental formula

A

I: 3/3
C: 1/1
PM: 3/2
M: 1/1
x2

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43
Q

Which teeth are missing in dogs?

A

upper M3

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44
Q

Which teeth are missing in cats?

A

upper + lower M2 & M3

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45
Q

Which teeth in dogs have a single root?

A

all incisors
all canines
PM1 has 1or 2

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46
Q

Which teeth in dogs have double roots?

A

all PM except 4th upper PM
all lower molars

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47
Q

Which teeth in dogs have triple roots?

A

upper 4th PMs
all upper molars

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48
Q

Triadian numbering system for permanent dentition

A

100-400

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49
Q

Triadian numbering system for juvenile dentition

A

500-800

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50
Q

What triadian numbers are skipped in the upper arcades of the cat?

A

105/205

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51
Q

What triadian numbers are skipped in the lower arcades of the cat?

A

305/306
405/406

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52
Q

What are the first (2) muscles that constrict pharynx?

A

pterygopharyngeus M
palatopharyngeus M

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53
Q

What is the second muscle that constricts the pharynx?

A

hyopharyngeus M

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54
Q

What are the third (2) muscles that constrict pharynx?

A

thyropharyngeus M + cricopharyngeus M

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55
Q

What is the one muscle that dilates the pharynx?

A

stylopharyngeus M

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56
Q

What muscle is superficial mimetic?

A

platysma

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57
Q

What 6 Mm are deep mimetic?

A

orbicularis oris
zygomaticus
levator labii superioris
caninus
buccinator
levator nasolabialis

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58
Q

What innervates the mimetic Mm?

A

Facial N

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59
Q

What masticatory Mm close the mouth (4)?

A

masseter
temporalis
medial pterygoid
lateral pterygoid

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60
Q

What muscle opens the mouth?

A

digastricus

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61
Q

What innervates all masticatory Mm except caudal belly of Digastricus?

A

Mandibular N

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62
Q

What innervates the caudal belly of the Digastricus M?

A

Facial N

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63
Q

Location of Parotid Gland

A

ventral to auricular cartilage

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64
Q

Where does parotid gland empty?

A

parotid duct opens within oral vestibule

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65
Q

Mandibular Salivary Gland location

A

lateral aspect of head, caudal to mandible angle

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66
Q

Where does Mandibular Salivary Gland empty?

A

mandibular duct opens on sublingual caruncle

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67
Q

Location of Monostomatic Sublingual Salivary Gland

A

rostral aspect of mandibular salivary gland

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68
Q

Where does monostomatic sublingual salivary gland empty?

A

via major sublingual duct at sublingual caruncle

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69
Q

Location of zygomatic salivary gland

A

ventromedial to zygomatic arch

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70
Q

Where does zygomatic salivary gland empty?

A

ducts open within oral vestible

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71
Q

What lymph node is largest ln of the head?

A

medial retropharyngeal Ln

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72
Q

Where does the tracheal trunk originate?

A

medial retropharyngeal ln

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73
Q

Term for closed sac of parietal + visceral pleura?

A

pleural sac

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74
Q

Space between pleura with small amount of fluid to create negative pressure (inflate/deflate lungs)

A

pleural cavity

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75
Q

Term for “dome” of pleura that projects cranially through thoracic inlet

A

pleural cupula

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76
Q

Term for “clefts” between reflected layers of parietal pleura, allows for lung expansion

A

pleural recess

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77
Q

Term for separation into bronchi

A

carina

78
Q

What are the lobes of the right lung in carnivores?

A

cranial
middle
caudal
accessory

79
Q

What are the lobes of the left lung in carnivores?

A

cranial (cranial + caudal parts)
caudal lobe

80
Q

3 hiatuses of diaphragm

A

aortic hiatus
esophageal hiatus
caval foramen

81
Q

What nerve innervates diaphragm?

A

phrenic N

82
Q

What is the connective tissue that attaches to peritoneum?

A

endo-abdominal fascia

83
Q

Strip of collagenous tissue along midline where aponeuroses of oblique + transversus abdominus Mm meet

A

Linea alba

84
Q

Important of linea alba

A

incision to spare muscle/nerves/vessels

85
Q

Important of Linea Alba

A

incision to spare muscle/nerves/vessels
NO retraction

86
Q

What lines abdominal cavity + 2 parts

A

peritoneum
visceral + parietal peritoneum

87
Q

PSNS innervation of thorax

A

vagus / phrenic?

88
Q

SNS innervation of thorax

A

sympathetic NN (sympathetic trunk + ganglion)

89
Q

SNS innervation to abdomen

A

splanchnic Nn –> celiacomesenteric ganglion | caudal mesenteric ganglion

90
Q

PSNS innervation to abdomen

A

Vagus N (all before transverse colon)
Pelvin Nn (descending colon)

91
Q

Where is the inlet for ingesta?

A

cardia

92
Q

Where is the outlet for ingesta?

A

pylorus

93
Q

3 major parts of stomach in order

A

cardia
fundus
pylorus

94
Q

Where does greater omentum attach?

A

greater curvature of stomach

95
Q

Where does lesser omentum attach?

A

lesser curvature of stomach + some duodenum/liver

96
Q

List 6 lobes of the liver

A

left lateral lobe
left medial lobe
right lateral lobe
right medial lobe
caudate lobe
quadrate lobe

97
Q

Location of gallbladder

A

between right medial & quadrate lobes of liver

98
Q

Which organs does venous blood drain into portal vein?

A

all abdominal organs other than kidneys

99
Q

What part of the internal ovary structure has follicles w/ oocytes + tunica albuginea?

A

outer cortex

100
Q

What part of internal ovary made of loose connective tissue containing structures?

A

inner medulla

101
Q

Part of internal structure of ovary that maintains pregnancy by producing progesterone?

A

corpus luteum

102
Q

Sac that covers ovary

A

ovarian bursa

103
Q

Site of fertilization

A

ampulla within uterine tube

104
Q

3 mesentery attachments

A

mesometrium
mesosalpinx
mesovarium

105
Q

Which mesenteric attachment connects to uterine horn, uterine body, cervix, cranial vagina?

A

mesometrium

106
Q

Which mesenteric attachment connects to dorsal + ventrolateral border of uterine tube?

A

mesosalpinx

107
Q

Which mesenteric attachment connects ovary to dorsolateral region of abdominal wall (suspends ovary)?

A

mesovarium

108
Q

3 segments of uterine tube

A

infundibulum
ampulla
isthmus

109
Q

Which segment of uterine tube is most proximal with finger-like projections that wrap around ovary?

A

infundibulum

110
Q

Which segment of ovary is site of fertilization?

A

ampulla

111
Q

Which segment of ovary is terminal section and closure to uterus?

A

isthmus

112
Q

What are the 3 layers of the uterine wall?

A

perimetrium
myometrium
endometrium

113
Q

Which layer of uterine wall is covered by serosa?

A

perimetrium

114
Q

Which layer of uterine wall has 2 smooth muscle layers for contractions/bringing sperm in/out?

A

myometrium

115
Q

Which layer of uterine wall is thick layer of mucosa + submucosa with glands that produce prostaglandins?

A

endometrium

116
Q

Orientation for speculum into vagina

A

craniodorsal

117
Q

4 CNs with PSNS

A

oculomotor (III)
facial (VII)
glossopharyngeal (IX)
vagus (X)

118
Q

What innervates the cricothyroid M + laryngeal mucosa?

A

cranial laryngeal N

119
Q

What innervates all laryngeal Mm other than cricothyroid?

A

caudal laryngeal N (branch of recurrent laryngeal)

120
Q

4 components of larnygeal cartilage

A

epiglottis
arytenoid
thyroid
cricoid

121
Q

4 processes of arytenoid cartilage

A

corniculate
cuneiform
vocal
muscular

122
Q

Clinical sign of tracheal collapse

A

non-productive cough, worse with excitement/exercise

123
Q

Term for nasal plate (between nares)

A

planum nasale

124
Q

Term for space inside nose

A

nasal cavity

125
Q

Term for 4 primary passages within nasal cavity

A

meatuses

126
Q

Turbinate / “scroll” bones

A

conchae

127
Q

Term for caudal opening of each nasal cavity into common nasopharynx

A

choanae

128
Q

3 head shapes

A

brachycephalic
mesaticephalic
dolichocephalic

129
Q

2 brachycephalic breeds

A

boston terrier
persian cat

130
Q

3 mesaticocephalic breeds

A

beagle
lab
tabby cat

131
Q

2 dolichocephalic breeds

A

greyhound
abyssinian cat

132
Q

Tubular cartilaginous part forms of external acoustic meatus forms a _____ angle.

A

right

133
Q

What is between the auricular cartilage & osseus part of external acoustic meatus?

A

annular cartilage

134
Q

What is embedded in rostral auricular muscles?

A

scutiform cartilage

135
Q

Function of scutiform cartilage

A

fulcrum for attached ear muscles

136
Q

2 problems of external ear

A

aural hematoma
otitis externa

137
Q

Aural hematoma is due to _____ A within fractured cartilage = pooling of blood.

A

great auricular A

138
Q

Otoplasty

A

ear cropping

139
Q

Term for ventrally expanded cavity in temporal bone

A

tympanic bulla

140
Q

Term for what is between ear canal + middle ear

A

tympanic membrane

141
Q

Dorsal opening between middle/internal ear

A

Oval/vestibular window

142
Q

Ventral opening between middle/internal ear

A

round/cochlear window

143
Q

Auditory ossicles

A

malleus
incus
stapes

144
Q

Branch of facial nerve passes through tympanic cavity

A

chorda tympani

145
Q

muscle that stiffens malleus

A

tensor tympani M

146
Q

muscle that stiffens stapes

A

stapedius M

147
Q

Auditory tube connects _____ to _____ to equilibrate pressure.

A

middle ear –> nasopharynx

148
Q

Middle ear problem

A

otitis media

149
Q

2 treatments for otitis media

A

myringotomy (tubes in ear)
bulla osteotomy (ventral/lateral approach)

150
Q

In inner ear, ____ moves to stimulate _____.

A

endolymph
sensory cells

151
Q

Contains 3 semicircular canals

A

utriculus

152
Q

Utriculus function

A

vestibular/balance

153
Q

Contains spiral cochlear duct

A

saccule

154
Q

Saccule function

A

hearing

155
Q

Sensory spot to monitor head position

A

macula

156
Q

Osseus labyrinth is filled with _____.

A

perilymph

157
Q

What 2 nerves innervate inner ear?

A

facial N
vestibulocochlear N

158
Q

3 possible causes of facial paralysis

A

otitis media/interna
chorda tympani inflammation
Horner’s syndrome

159
Q

4 symptoms of Horner’s syndrome

A

miosis
protruding 3rd eyelid
ptosis
muscle sagging

160
Q

Cause of vestibular disease

A

otitis interna

161
Q

4 symptoms of vestibular disease

A

head tilt
staggering/ataxia
circling
nystagmus

162
Q

Term for narrowed nostrils in brachycephalic breeds

A

stenotic nares

163
Q

Term for genetic disease in brachycephalic that leads to narrowed airway due to malformation of cartilaginous rings

A

hypoplastic trachea

164
Q

4 symptoms of Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome (BAS)

A
  1. stenotic nares
  2. elongated soft palate
  3. hypoplastic trachea
  4. everted laryngeal ventricles
165
Q

Term for cavity within bone

A

sinus

166
Q

Term for diverticulum in bone bounded by more than one bone

A

maxillary recess

167
Q

2 sinus types in dogs

A

frontal sinus (3 divisions)
maxillary recess

168
Q

3 divisions of dog frontal sinus

A

lateral (largest)
medial
rostral

169
Q

3 sinuses in cats

A

frontal sinus (undivided)
sphenoidal sinus
maxillary recess

170
Q

Term for lining inside of palpebrae + surface of eye (except cornea)

A

conjunctiva

171
Q

Term for posterior 3/4 of external fibrous coat of eye

A

sclera

172
Q

Term for corneoscleral junction (between cornea & sclera)

A

limbus

173
Q

Term for gelatinous-filled chamber that holds retina against choroid

A

vitreous

174
Q

Part of choroid where light is reflected back onto retina

A

tapetum lucidium

175
Q

Term for posterior aspect where sclera is penetrated by blood vessels + optic nerve

A

optic disk

176
Q

Term for multilayered innermost tunic eye (w/ rods/cones)

A

retina

177
Q

Term for pigmented, posterio rpart of vascular coat

A

choroid

178
Q

Corneal Ulcer is damage to _____.

A

corneal epithelium

179
Q

(T/F) Descemetocele stains green using fluorescein.

A

FALSE! no stain

180
Q

Term for cilia/eyelashes inverted onto cornea

A

entropion

181
Q

Term for prolapse of third eyelid gland

A

cherry eye

182
Q

Term for lens out of position

A

lens luxation

183
Q

Term for proptosed eye (out of orbit from injury)

A

exopthalmos

184
Q

Term for blockage of iridocorneal junction

A

glaucoma

185
Q

Glaucoma onset is (fast/slow) in animals compared to humans.

A

rapid

186
Q

Lacrimal gland is located in the ______ portion of the orbit

A

dorsolateral

187
Q

Tears drain through two (1/2) lacrimal openings in ______ to _____.

A

2
medial canthus
superior + inferior canaliculi

188
Q

Term for enlargement at junction of canaliculi & nasolacrimal duct in fossa for lacrimal sac.

A

Lacrima sac

189
Q

What structure is after the lacrimal sac and leads to the nose?

A

nasolacrimal duct

190
Q

Which muscles does the Trochlear N innervate?

A

dorsal oblique M

191
Q

Which muscles does the Oculomotor N innervate?

A

ventral oblique M
dorsal rectus M
ventral rectus M
medial rectus M

192
Q

Which muscles does the Abducens N innervate?

A

lateral rectus M
retractor bulbi M

Anatomy (11 decks)

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