Exam 4 Written Flashcards

1
Q

Two divisions of oral cavity

A

oral cavity proper
vestibule

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2
Q

4 structures within oral cavity proper

A

dental arcades
hard palate
soft palate
tongue

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3
Q

What is the term for cavity between teeth & gingiva (inside of cheeks/lips)

A

vestibule

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4
Q

Boundary between oral cavity & oropharynx

A

palatoglossal arch

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5
Q

Orifice between oral cavity and oropharynx

A

isthmus faucium

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6
Q

Each side of caudal border of soft palate continues as ______.

A

palatopharyngeal arch

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7
Q

What is the opening of nasopharynx over caudal free border of soft palate?

A

intrapharyngeal ostium

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8
Q

What is the boundary between esophagus & pharynx (constriction of cricoid cartilage)?

A

pharyngoesophageal limen

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9
Q

What is the ventral fold of mucosa that attaches the tongue to the oral cavity proper?

A

lingual frenulum

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10
Q

What structure extends caudally from caruncle and contains mandibular + major sublingual ducts?

A

sublingual fold

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11
Q

What structure is where mandibular & sublingual salivary ducts open and protrudes from floor of oral cavity?

A

sublingual caruncle

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12
Q

What is the blood supply to the hard palate?

A

major palatine A

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13
Q

What is the blood supply to the soft palate?

A

minor palatine A

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14
Q

What 3 muscles are responsible for deglutition?

A

levator veli palatini M
tensor veli palatini M
palatinus M

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15
Q

Function of levator veli palatini M

A

raises soft palate

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16
Q

Function of tensor veli palatini M

A

tenses soft palate

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17
Q

Function of palatinus M

A

shortens soft palate

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18
Q

Which 2 papillae are mechanical?

A

filiform
conical

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19
Q

Which 3 papillae are gustatory?

A

fungiform
vallate
foliate

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20
Q

Which papillae are keratinized in cats?

A

filiform

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21
Q

Which papillae are prominent/larger and near root of tongue?

A

conical

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22
Q

Which papillae have a smooth, rounded surface and mushroom shaped?

A

fungiform

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23
Q

Which papillae are arranged in a V-shape and at junction of root & body?

A

vallate

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24
Q

How many vallate papillae does dog have?

A

4-6

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25
What papillae is at the lateral part of the tongue root?
foliate
26
Which cranial nerve innervates tongue? (motor to all tongue muscles)
CN XII (Hypoglossal)
27
What are the bones that form the hyoid apparatus?
stylohyoid (paired) epihyoid (paired) ceratohyoid (paired) thyrohyoid (paired) basihyoid (unpaired)
28
What kind of teeth stop growing when erupt from gingiva? (aka "short tooth")
Brachydont
29
What species have brachydont teeth?
domestic carnivores
30
Dense, outer exposed layer of tooth
enamel
31
Calcified, collagen-rich bulk of tooth (lines pulp cavity)
dentin
32
Delicate connective tissue/nerves/vessels of tooth =
pulp/dental cavity
33
What kind of teeth are constantly growing?
hypsodont
34
What species have hypsodont teeth?
horses ruminants
35
How many teeth do juvenile dogs have?
28
36
How many teeth do juvenile cats have?
26
37
How many teeth do adult dogs have?
42
38
How many teeth do adult cats have?
30
39
Juvenile dog dental formula
I: 3/3 C: 1/1 PM: 3/3 x2
40
Adult dog dental formula
I: 3/3 C: 1/1 PM: 4/4 M: 2/3 x2
41
Juvenile cat dental formula
I: 3/3 C: 1/1 PM: 3/2 x2
42
Adult cat dental formula
I: 3/3 C: 1/1 PM: 3/2 M: 1/1 x2
43
Which teeth are missing in dogs?
upper M3
44
Which teeth are missing in cats?
upper + lower M2 & M3
45
Which teeth in dogs have a single root?
all incisors all canines PM1 has 1or 2
46
Which teeth in dogs have double roots?
all PM except 4th upper PM all lower molars
47
Which teeth in dogs have triple roots?
upper 4th PMs all upper molars
48
Triadian numbering system for permanent dentition
100-400
49
Triadian numbering system for juvenile dentition
500-800
50
What triadian numbers are skipped in the upper arcades of the cat?
105/205
51
What triadian numbers are skipped in the lower arcades of the cat?
305/306 405/406
52
What are the first (2) muscles that constrict pharynx?
pterygopharyngeus M palatopharyngeus M
53
What is the second muscle that constricts the pharynx?
hyopharyngeus M
54
What are the third (2) muscles that constrict pharynx?
thyropharyngeus M + cricopharyngeus M
55
What is the one muscle that dilates the pharynx?
stylopharyngeus M
56
What muscle is superficial mimetic?
platysma
57
What 6 Mm are deep mimetic?
orbicularis oris zygomaticus levator labii superioris caninus buccinator levator nasolabialis
58
What innervates the mimetic Mm?
Facial N
59
What masticatory Mm close the mouth (4)?
masseter temporalis medial pterygoid lateral pterygoid
60
What muscle opens the mouth?
digastricus
61
What innervates all masticatory Mm except caudal belly of Digastricus?
Mandibular N
62
What innervates the caudal belly of the Digastricus M?
Facial N
63
Location of Parotid Gland
ventral to auricular cartilage
64
Where does parotid gland empty?
parotid duct opens within oral vestibule
65
Mandibular Salivary Gland location
lateral aspect of head, caudal to mandible angle
66
Where does Mandibular Salivary Gland empty?
mandibular duct opens on sublingual caruncle
67
Location of Monostomatic Sublingual Salivary Gland
rostral aspect of mandibular salivary gland
68
Where does monostomatic sublingual salivary gland empty?
via major sublingual duct at sublingual caruncle
69
Location of zygomatic salivary gland
ventromedial to zygomatic arch
70
Where does zygomatic salivary gland empty?
ducts open within oral vestible
71
What lymph node is largest ln of the head?
medial retropharyngeal Ln
72
Where does the tracheal trunk originate?
medial retropharyngeal ln
73
Term for closed sac of parietal + visceral pleura?
pleural sac
74
Space between pleura with small amount of fluid to create negative pressure (inflate/deflate lungs)
pleural cavity
75
Term for "dome" of pleura that projects cranially through thoracic inlet
pleural cupula
76
Term for "clefts" between reflected layers of parietal pleura, allows for lung expansion
pleural recess
77
Term for separation into bronchi
carina
78
What are the lobes of the right lung in carnivores?
cranial middle caudal accessory
79
What are the lobes of the left lung in carnivores?
cranial (cranial + caudal parts) caudal lobe
80
3 hiatuses of diaphragm
aortic hiatus esophageal hiatus caval foramen
81
What nerve innervates diaphragm?
phrenic N
82
What is the connective tissue that attaches to peritoneum?
endo-abdominal fascia
83
Strip of collagenous tissue along midline where aponeuroses of oblique + transversus abdominus Mm meet
Linea alba
84
Important of linea alba
incision to spare muscle/nerves/vessels
85
Important of Linea Alba
incision to spare muscle/nerves/vessels NO retraction
86
What lines abdominal cavity + 2 parts
peritoneum visceral + parietal peritoneum
87
PSNS innervation of thorax
vagus / phrenic?
88
SNS innervation of thorax
sympathetic NN (sympathetic trunk + ganglion)
89
SNS innervation to abdomen
splanchnic Nn --> celiacomesenteric ganglion | caudal mesenteric ganglion
90
PSNS innervation to abdomen
Vagus N (all before transverse colon) Pelvin Nn (descending colon)
91
Where is the inlet for ingesta?
cardia
92
Where is the outlet for ingesta?
pylorus
93
3 major parts of stomach in order
cardia fundus pylorus
94
Where does greater omentum attach?
greater curvature of stomach
95
Where does lesser omentum attach?
lesser curvature of stomach + some duodenum/liver
96
List 6 lobes of the liver
left lateral lobe left medial lobe right lateral lobe right medial lobe caudate lobe quadrate lobe
97
Location of gallbladder
between right medial & quadrate lobes of liver
98
Which organs does venous blood drain into portal vein?
all abdominal organs other than kidneys
99
What part of the internal ovary structure has follicles w/ oocytes + tunica albuginea?
outer cortex
100
What part of internal ovary made of loose connective tissue containing structures?
inner medulla
101
Part of internal structure of ovary that maintains pregnancy by producing progesterone?
corpus luteum
102
Sac that covers ovary
ovarian bursa
103
Site of fertilization
ampulla within uterine tube
104
3 mesentery attachments
mesometrium mesosalpinx mesovarium
105
Which mesenteric attachment connects to uterine horn, uterine body, cervix, cranial vagina?
mesometrium
106
Which mesenteric attachment connects to dorsal + ventrolateral border of uterine tube?
mesosalpinx
107
Which mesenteric attachment connects ovary to dorsolateral region of abdominal wall (suspends ovary)?
mesovarium
108
3 segments of uterine tube
infundibulum ampulla isthmus
109
Which segment of uterine tube is most proximal with finger-like projections that wrap around ovary?
infundibulum
110
Which segment of ovary is site of fertilization?
ampulla
111
Which segment of ovary is terminal section and closure to uterus?
isthmus
112
What are the 3 layers of the uterine wall?
perimetrium myometrium endometrium
113
Which layer of uterine wall is covered by serosa?
perimetrium
114
Which layer of uterine wall has 2 smooth muscle layers for contractions/bringing sperm in/out?
myometrium
115
Which layer of uterine wall is thick layer of mucosa + submucosa with glands that produce prostaglandins?
endometrium
116
Orientation for speculum into vagina
craniodorsal
117
4 CNs with PSNS
oculomotor (III) facial (VII) glossopharyngeal (IX) vagus (X)
118
What innervates the cricothyroid M + laryngeal mucosa?
cranial laryngeal N
119
What innervates all laryngeal Mm other than cricothyroid?
caudal laryngeal N (branch of recurrent laryngeal)
120
4 components of larnygeal cartilage
epiglottis arytenoid thyroid cricoid
121
4 processes of arytenoid cartilage
corniculate cuneiform vocal muscular
122
Clinical sign of tracheal collapse
non-productive cough, worse with excitement/exercise
123
Term for nasal plate (between nares)
planum nasale
124
Term for space inside nose
nasal cavity
125
Term for 4 primary passages within nasal cavity
meatuses
126
Turbinate / "scroll" bones
conchae
127
Term for caudal opening of each nasal cavity into common nasopharynx
choanae
128
3 head shapes
brachycephalic mesaticephalic dolichocephalic
129
2 brachycephalic breeds
boston terrier persian cat
130
3 mesaticocephalic breeds
beagle lab tabby cat
131
2 dolichocephalic breeds
greyhound abyssinian cat
132
Tubular cartilaginous part forms of external acoustic meatus forms a _____ angle.
right
133
What is between the auricular cartilage & osseus part of external acoustic meatus?
annular cartilage
134
What is embedded in rostral auricular muscles?
scutiform cartilage
135
Function of scutiform cartilage
fulcrum for attached ear muscles
136
2 problems of external ear
aural hematoma otitis externa
137
Aural hematoma is due to _____ A within fractured cartilage = pooling of blood.
great auricular A
138
Otoplasty
ear cropping
139
Term for ventrally expanded cavity in temporal bone
tympanic bulla
140
Term for what is between ear canal + middle ear
tympanic membrane
141
Dorsal opening between middle/internal ear
Oval/vestibular window
142
Ventral opening between middle/internal ear
round/cochlear window
143
Auditory ossicles
malleus incus stapes
144
Branch of facial nerve passes through tympanic cavity
chorda tympani
145
muscle that stiffens malleus
tensor tympani M
146
muscle that stiffens stapes
stapedius M
147
Auditory tube connects _____ to _____ to equilibrate pressure.
middle ear --> nasopharynx
148
Middle ear problem
otitis media
149
2 treatments for otitis media
myringotomy (tubes in ear) bulla osteotomy (ventral/lateral approach)
150
In inner ear, ____ moves to stimulate _____.
endolymph sensory cells
151
Contains 3 semicircular canals
utriculus
152
Utriculus function
vestibular/balance
153
Contains spiral cochlear duct
saccule
154
Saccule function
hearing
155
Sensory spot to monitor head position
macula
156
Osseus labyrinth is filled with _____.
perilymph
157
What 2 nerves innervate inner ear?
facial N vestibulocochlear N
158
3 possible causes of facial paralysis
otitis media/interna chorda tympani inflammation Horner's syndrome
159
4 symptoms of Horner's syndrome
miosis protruding 3rd eyelid ptosis muscle sagging
160
Cause of vestibular disease
otitis interna
161
4 symptoms of vestibular disease
head tilt staggering/ataxia circling nystagmus
162
Term for narrowed nostrils in brachycephalic breeds
stenotic nares
163
Term for genetic disease in brachycephalic that leads to narrowed airway due to malformation of cartilaginous rings
hypoplastic trachea
164
4 symptoms of Brachycephalic Airway Syndrome (BAS)
1. stenotic nares 2. elongated soft palate 3. hypoplastic trachea 4. everted laryngeal ventricles
165
Term for cavity within bone
sinus
166
Term for diverticulum in bone bounded by more than one bone
maxillary recess
167
2 sinus types in dogs
frontal sinus (3 divisions) maxillary recess
168
3 divisions of dog frontal sinus
lateral (largest) medial rostral
169
3 sinuses in cats
frontal sinus (undivided) sphenoidal sinus maxillary recess
170
Term for lining inside of palpebrae + surface of eye (except cornea)
conjunctiva
171
Term for posterior 3/4 of external fibrous coat of eye
sclera
172
Term for corneoscleral junction (between cornea & sclera)
limbus
173
Term for gelatinous-filled chamber that holds retina against choroid
vitreous
174
Part of choroid where light is reflected back onto retina
tapetum lucidium
175
Term for posterior aspect where sclera is penetrated by blood vessels + optic nerve
optic disk
176
Term for multilayered innermost tunic eye (w/ rods/cones)
retina
177
Term for pigmented, posterio rpart of vascular coat
choroid
178
Corneal Ulcer is damage to _____.
corneal epithelium
179
(T/F) Descemetocele stains green using fluorescein.
FALSE! no stain
180
Term for cilia/eyelashes inverted onto cornea
entropion
181
Term for prolapse of third eyelid gland
cherry eye
182
Term for lens out of position
lens luxation
183
Term for proptosed eye (out of orbit from injury)
exopthalmos
184
Term for blockage of iridocorneal junction
glaucoma
185
Glaucoma onset is (fast/slow) in animals compared to humans.
rapid
186
Lacrimal gland is located in the ______ portion of the orbit
dorsolateral
187
Tears drain through two (1/2) lacrimal openings in ______ to _____.
2 medial canthus superior + inferior canaliculi
188
Term for enlargement at junction of canaliculi & nasolacrimal duct in fossa for lacrimal sac.
Lacrima sac
189
What structure is after the lacrimal sac and leads to the nose?
nasolacrimal duct
190
Which muscles does the Trochlear N innervate?
dorsal oblique M
191
Which muscles does the Oculomotor N innervate?
ventral oblique M dorsal rectus M ventral rectus M medial rectus M
192
Which muscles does the Abducens N innervate?
lateral rectus M retractor bulbi M