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Anatomy Lecture + Lab > Exam 4 Flashcards > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is another term for GastroIntestinal (GI) tract?

A

Alimentary canal

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2
Q

What is the Alimentary canal?

A

The hollow tube that winds through the body and comes into contact with food material.

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3
Q

Name the 7 structures that the GI tract contains.

A

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, and anus.

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4
Q

T/F: Accessory organs are necessary to digest food.

A

False! They assist in the digestion of food material, but are not necessarily required.

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5
Q

Name the 6 structures the are considered Accessory Organs.

A

Teeth, tongue, gallbladder, salivary glands, liver, and pancreas.

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6
Q

T/F: Food is considered to ENTER the body.

A

False! Food material is NEVER considered to enter the body.

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7
Q

Why is food never considered to “enter” the body?

A

The alimentary canal is open to the external environment on both ends, so we say that food remains outside of body but passes through it.

So fucking stupid.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the Digestive System?

A

To ACQUIRE NUTRIENTS and WATER.

NOM NOM!

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9
Q

What absorbs alcohol and aspirin?

A

The stomach

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10
Q

What does the small intestine absorb?

A

Glucose, amino acids, and fats (lipids).

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11
Q

What does the large intestine absorb?

A

Sodium, Potassium, acids, bases, Calcium, Magnesium, Iron, Vitamin B12, and water.

Basically, a bunch of ions, vitamin B12, and water.

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12
Q

It is very important to note that absorbed nutrients from the digestive organs are passed into _______ of the digestive system and are then transported to the _________.

A

veins, liver

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13
Q

Fats are absorbed by what? Then, what are they passed into? Where are they finally transported to?

A

Fats are absorbed through the small intestine.

They are passed into LACTEAL DUCTS of the lymphatic system.

Then, they are transported to the liver.

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14
Q

What is the function of the Sigmoid Colon?

A

Serves as the storage site for feces.

P U

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15
Q

What are the 6 essential food-processing activities of the Digestive System?

A

1) Ingestion
2) Propulsion
3) Mechanical Digestion
4) Chemical Digestion
5) Absorption
6) Defecation

I Park My Car Around DooDoo.

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16
Q

What is Ingestion?

A

Taking food into the mouth.

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17
Q

What does Propulsion consist of?

A

Swallowing (voluntary) and Peristalsis (involuntary movement of food).

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18
Q

What 3 things do Mechanical Digestion consist of?

A

Chewing, churning food in the stomach, and segmentation.

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19
Q

Where do Mechanical and Chemical Digestion occur?

A

Occurs in the mouth, stomach, and small intestine.

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20
Q

What is Chemical Digestion?

A

The breakdown of food material to molecules.

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21
Q

With absorption of nutrients, electrolytes, water, and fats, where are these being put into?

A

Nutrients, electrolytes, and water are transported into veins.

Fats are transported into lymphatics.

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22
Q

What is Defecation?

A

Elimination of indigestible substances.

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23
Q

T/F: As food passes through the GI tract, the body takes every thing possible.

A

False! As food passes through the GI tract, the body takes what it needs.

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24
Q

What type of muscle does the intestine contain?

A

Circular and longitudinal smooth muscle.

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25
Q

How does the intestinal circular and longitudinal smooth muscle aid with Peristalsis?

A

Peristalsis utilizes coordination of these muscles to propel food through the lumen.

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26
Q

How does the intestinal circular and longitudinal smooth muscle aid with Segmentation?

A

Segmentation utilizes these muscles to mix rather than propel.

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27
Q

Name the organization for the entire length of the GI tract beginning at the lumen.

A

1) Mucosa
2) Submucosa
3) Muscularis externa
4) Serosa (mesothelium) or adventitia

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28
Q

What 3 things is the Mucosa comprised of?

A

True epithelium + lamina propria + muscularis mucosae

Epithelium is either stratified squamous or simple columnar.

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29
Q

Generally speaking, what does the Submucosa contain?

A

Arteries, veins, nerves, lymphatics, and sometimes mucus glands.

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30
Q

What is the Muscularis Externa?

A

Smooth muscle with an inner circular layer + an outer longitudinal layer

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31
Q

What innervates the Muscularis Mucosa?

A

Submucosal Nerve Plexus

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32
Q

What innervates the Muscularis Externa?

A

Myenteric Nerve Plexus

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33
Q

What does the Submucosal Nerve Plexus do?

A

Signals:
1) submucosal glands to secrete
2) muscularis mucosae to contract

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34
Q

Where is the Myenteric Plexus located?

A

Located between the circular and longitudinal layers of muscularis externa.

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35
Q

What does the Myenteric Plexus control?

A

Controls peristalsis and segmentation

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36
Q

Name the 4 types of mucus membranes?

A

1) Protective
2) Secretory
3) Absorptive (Nutrients)
4) Absorptive (Water & Electrolytes)

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37
Q

What type of epithelium makes up a PROTECTIVE mucus membrane?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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38
Q

Where is a protective mucus membrane found?

A

Oral cavity, pharynx, esophagus, and anus

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39
Q

What type of epithelium makes up a SECRETORY mucus membrane? What does it do?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

Specialized for secreting mucus

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40
Q

Where is a secretory mucus membrane found?

A

Found only in the stomach as mucus-secreting cells and mucus-neck cells.

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41
Q

What type of epithelium makes up a ABSORPTIVE (Nutrients) mucus membrane? What makes them special for absorbing nutrients?

A

Simple columnar cells

They are modified with increased surface area for absorbing nutrients.

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42
Q

Where is an absorptive (nutrients) mucus membrane found?

A

Found in the small intestine

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43
Q

What type of epithelium makes up a ABSORPTIVE (water & electrolytes) mucus membrane? What does the epithelium switch to in the anus?

A

Simple columnar

Switches to stratified squamous in the anus

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44
Q

Where is an absorptive (water & electrolytes) mucus membrane found?

A

Found in large intestine

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45
Q

What is the Alveolar Ridge?

A

The line between the tooth and gum.

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46
Q

In the oral cavity, what is the Vestibule?

A

The space between the lip and the alveolar ridge.

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47
Q

What is a Frenulum?

A

A fold

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48
Q

What is the Labial Frenulum?

A

This is a fold from the lip to the gum, also called the Frenulum of the Lip.

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49
Q

What is the Lingual Frenulum?

A

A fold from the tongue to the floor of the oral cavity.

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50
Q

Where do salivary glands open into the oral cavity?

A

Under the tongue and also through the cheek.

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51
Q

What forms the roof of the oral cavity?

A

Hard (maxillary and palatine bones) and soft palates.

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52
Q

What dangles down from the soft palate?

A

The uvula (little grape)

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53
Q

What forms the lips? What forms the cheeks?

A

Lips are formed from orbicularis oris.

Cheeks are formed by the buccinator muscle.

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54
Q

Name the lateral arches of the soft palate.

A

Palatoglassal arch (from palate to tongue) and Palatopharyngeal arch (from palate to pharynx).

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55
Q

What is the tongue covered in? Are these taste buds?

A

Papillae, which are not taste buds

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56
Q

Name the 3 lingual papillae covering the tongue. Which contain taste-buds?

A

Filiform, Fungiform, and Circumvallate.

Fungiform and Circumvallate contain taste-buds.

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57
Q

Describe Filiform papilla.

A

They resemble pointed cones.
They have no tastebuds.
Most numerous.

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58
Q

Describe Fungiform papilla.

A

Fungiform papillae resemble mushrooms.
Possesses tastebuds.

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59
Q

Describe Circumvallate papilla.

A

A papilla resembling a circular wall.
Possesses tastebuds.

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60
Q

What is Sulcus Terminalis?

A

A terminal groove that separates the circumvallate papilla and lingual tonsil.

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61
Q

What are Fauces?

A

The opening between the oral cavity and the oropharynx.

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62
Q

What are the 3 borders of the Fauces?

A

Palatoglossal arch, uvula, and sulcus terminalis.

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63
Q

What is the Tonsilar Ring? What is it comprised of?

A

A ring of protective tonsils in the oropharynx.

Tonsilar Ring = Palatine + Lingual Tonsils

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64
Q

What is the main function of Salivary Glands?

A

They produce and deposit saliva into the oral cavity.

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65
Q

What does the Parotid Gland contain and do?

A

Contains serous cells that secrete amylase and lysozymes into the parotid duct.

Amylase digests carbohydrates. Lysozymes lyse bacteria.

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66
Q

Where does the Parotid Duct pass through to get to the oral cavity?

A

Passes through the buccinator muscle.

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67
Q

What does the Sublingual Gland contain and do?

A

Contains mucous cells that secrete mucus for lubrication (via sublingual duct).

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68
Q

What does the Submandibular Gland contain and do?

A

Contains serous and mucous cells to secrete mucus, amylase, and lysozymes (via submandibular duct).

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69
Q

How many teeth are there in total?

A

There are 32 teeth in total.

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70
Q

How many teeth are:
-Incisors
-Cuspid/Canina
-Bicuspid/Premolar
-Molars

A

2 incisors
1 Cuspid/Canine (for shearing and tearing)
2 Bicuspid/Premolars
3 Molars

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71
Q

What is the function of the Esophagus?

A

Carries food material (bolus) from the oral cavity to the stomach.

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72
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the Esophagus?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

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73
Q

How does the Muscularis externa transition muscle types from within the esophagus?

A

Transitions from skeletal (voluntary) to smooth (involuntary).

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74
Q

Why are there large folds in the Esophagus?

A

Due to thick Muscularis externa. The lumen is collapsed except when food passes through.

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75
Q

What type of glands are found in the submucosa of the Esophagus? What is the function of these glands?

A

Mucus glands, which secrete mucus for lubrication as the bolus of food passes the glands.

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76
Q

T/F: The external layer of the Esophagus is serosa.

A

False! The external layer is adventitia, not serosa.

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77
Q

Where does the Inferior Vena Cava pass through the respiratory diaphragm at?

A

The Caval foramen at the level of Thoracic vertebra 8 (T8).

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78
Q

Where does the Esophagus pass through the diaphragm?

A

Passes through the Esophageal Hiatus at the level of Thoracic vertebra 10 (T10).

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79
Q

What is the Cardiac Sphincter?

A

Muscle fibers of the respiratory diaphragm that serve as functional sphincter muscles of the esophagus.

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80
Q

What layer of the muscularis externa serves as the sphincter muscle of the esophagus?

A

The inner circular layer of the muscularis externa functions as the sphincter muscle of the esophagus.

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81
Q

What is the Lower Esophageal Sphincter?

A

The inner circular layer of muscularis externa, which functions as the sphincter muscle of the esophagus.

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82
Q

Where does the Aorta pass the Respiratory Diaphragm at?

A

At the level of Thoracic vertebra T12.

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83
Q

T/F: The stomach is a site for chemical and mechanical digestion.

A

True!

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84
Q

In the stomach, what is the Pyloris?

A

A pyloric sphincter that prevents the food from leaving the stomach.

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85
Q

In the stomach, what are Rugae?

A

Folds formed when the stomach decreases in size (looks like an accordion).

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86
Q

Name the 3 layers of smooth muscle that make up the muscularis externa of the stomach.

A

Innermost oblique, middle circular, and outer longitudinal.

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87
Q

In the stomach, what is the pyloric sphincter muscle formed from?

A

Formed from a thickened middle circular layer.

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88
Q

What do Mucus Neck Cells do? Why is this function important?

A

Secrete mucus that lines the neck of the gastric pit. The mucus protects the stomach from digesting itself.

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89
Q

What types of glands do the Fundus and Body of the stomach contain?

A

Gastric glands

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90
Q

What is the function of Parietal Cells?

A

Excrete HCl, which makes the stomach pH = 2 for the hydrolysis of proteins

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91
Q

What is the function of Chief Cells?

A

Excrete Pepsinogen. In combination with HCl, we get Pepsin which breaks down proteins.

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92
Q

What is the function of Enteroendocrine cells?

A

Secretes the hormone Gastrin

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93
Q

When is Gastrin produced?

A

When food enters the stomach

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94
Q

What does Gastrin do?

A

Stimulates Parietal cells to excrete HCl and Chief cells to excrete Pepsinogen.

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95
Q

“Chemicals travel through a duct to a lumen”

Exocrine or Endocrine?

A

Exocrine

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96
Q

“Hormones travel in the blood to other cells”

Exocrine or Endocrine?

A

Endocrine

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97
Q

The stomach contains both exocrine and endocrine cells. What does each of these produce?

A

Exocrine cells excrete HCl and Pepsinogen. Endocrine cells secrete hormones (Insulin and Glucagon).

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98
Q

What hormones do the Endocrine cells in the stomach secrete?

A

Gastrin

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99
Q

What is the main function of the Small Intestine?

A

It is the site for absorption of nutrients including Glucose, Vitamins, and Fats.

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100
Q

Name the 3 parts of the Small Intestine.

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, and Ileum

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101
Q

Where does the Duodenum begin?

A

After the Pyloric Sphincter

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102
Q

Where does the Ileum end?

A

At the Ileo-cecal valve

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103
Q

The Small Intestine is specialized for absorbing nutrients. What type of epithelial cells would be good for this?

A

Simple columnar cells

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104
Q

What are Plica cicularis? Why are they good?

A

Circular folds in the Small Intestine. Increase surface area for absorption.

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105
Q

What are Villi and why are they good for the Small Intestine?

A

Macroscopic finger-like projections of the mucosa, which help to increase surface area for absorption.

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106
Q

What are Microvilli and why are they good for the Small Intestine?

A

Microscopic folds on apical surface of cells, which help to increase surface area for absorption.

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107
Q

What are located between adjacent villi?

A

Crypts of Lieberkuehn

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108
Q

What is the function of Paneth cells? Where are they located?

A

Secrete Lysozymes to lyse and destroy bacteria. They are located at the base of crypts.

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109
Q

Where are 2 places that we can find Lysozymes in the digestive system?

A

Small Intestine and in the Serous fluid of the Parotid and Submandibular glands.

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110
Q

What are Peyer’s Patches?

A

Aggregated lymphoid nodules in the Small Intestine

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111
Q

What are Lacteal Vessels and what is their function?

A

Specialized ducts of the Lymphatic System to carry fats.

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112
Q

What transfers emulsified fats into Lacteal Ducts?

A

Absorptive cells

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113
Q

What is the function of Goblet cells?

A

To secrete mucus

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114
Q

What are Brunner’s glands?

A

Mucus-secreting cells in the submucosa.

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115
Q

Where are the 2 places we find submucosal mucus cells?

A

Only in the Esophagus and Duodenum.

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116
Q

In regard to Enteroendocrine cells, what does food entering the Duodenum stimulate?

A

Stimulates the secretion of the hormones Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Secretin

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117
Q

What does CCK do?

A

Signals the gallbladder to contract and release bile into the Duodenum

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118
Q

What does Secretin do?

A

Stimulates the Pancreas to excrete digestive juices into the Duodenum.

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119
Q

What is the main function of the Large Intestine?

A

Absorption of water and electrolytes (sodium, potassium, acids, vitamins, and bases).

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120
Q

What structures does the Large Intestine contain?

A

Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, and rectum

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121
Q

Where does the Large Intestine begin?

A

Begins at the ileo-cecal junction (the junction of the ileum and cecum).

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122
Q

What is the Ileo-cecal valve? How is it formed?

A

It is a valve between the ileum of the small intestine and the cecum of the large intestine. All sphincter muscles are formed from the circular layer of the muscularis externa.

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123
Q

Where does the ascending colon become the transverse colon at?

A

At the right colic or hepatic flexure (by the liver).

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124
Q

Where does the transverse colon become the descending colon at?

A

At the left colic splenic flexure (at the spleen).

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125
Q

What is the Vermiform Appendix?

A

A worm-shaped extension of the cecum.

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126
Q

What is Taenia Coli?

A

3 bands of longitudinal smooth muscle of the muscularis externa along the Large Intestine.

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127
Q

What are Haustra?

A

Pockets formed by the contraction of the three taenia coli in the Large Intestine

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128
Q

What are Epiploic Appendages?

A

Fat-filled pounches hanging from the large colon.

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129
Q

What types of epithelial cells are present within the Large Intestine to aid with absorption of water and electrolytes? What is absent?

A

Simple columnar cells

However, there is an absence of Villi as there is no need for enormous surface area to absorb water and minerals.

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130
Q

T/F: There are no Crypts of Lieberkuehn in the Large Intestine.

A

False! There are very deep Crypts of Lieberkuehn in the Large Intestine. They are larger than those in the Small Intestine.

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131
Q

T/F: There are no Goblet cells within the Large Intestine.

A

False! There is a very abundant source of Goblet cells within the Large Intestine. More than there are in the Small Intestine.

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132
Q

Why is there a great abundance of Goblet cells within the Large Intestine?

A

The Large Intestine is specialized for absorbing water & electrolytes. This then requires a great deal of mucus to lubricate the dessicated (dry) feces.

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133
Q

Name one species of bacteria found in the colon.

A

Escherichia coli (E. coli)

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133
Q

T/F: There are no lymphoid nodules present within the Large Intestine.

A

False! There are abundant aggregated lymphoid nodules in the submucosa of the Large Intestine. They are not macroscopic, thus, they are not called Peyer’s Patches.

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134
Q

In the Large Intestine, the muscularis externa has 2 layers of smooth muscle. What are they?

A

Inner circular and outer longitudinal

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135
Q

What is considered the “longitudinal” muscle in the Large Intestine?

A

“Ribbons of the colon” or taenia coli Rectum

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136
Q

What does the Rectum eventually become?

A

The anus or anal canal

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137
Q

How does epithelium change from the Rectum to the Anus/Anal Canal?

A

Simple columnar epithelium becomes stratified squamous epithelium

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138
Q

What shape does the Lumen of the Colon appear as? Why?

A

Triangular, due to the 3 tenia coli

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139
Q

Why are there more abundant aggregated lymphoid tissues within the Large Intestine as compared to the Small Intestine?

A

More than Small Intestine because of the presence of multitudes of bacteria which live there.

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140
Q

What is the distal portion of the Colon?

A

The Rectum

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141
Q

What does the Rectum terminate as?

A

The Anus or Anal Canal

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142
Q

What does the Anal Valve do?

A

Regulates movement of feces from rectum to anal canal.

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143
Q

Where is the Anal Valve located?

A

Between the Rectum and Anus or Anal Canal

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144
Q

What is the transition of epithelium in the Anal Canal?

A

From simple columnar to stratified squamous epithelium

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145
Q

What does the Anal Valve contain/consist of?

A

Anal columns and Anal sinuses (which are spaces between the columns).

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146
Q

What is the Internal Sphincter Muscle in the Rectum?

A

Inner circular layer of muscularis externa, which is smooth muscle under involuntary control by the Autonomic Nervous System.

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147
Q

What muscle serves as the External Anal Sphincter Muscle?

A

Muscle fibers of the Levator ani muscle, which is skeletal muscle under voluntary control by somatic motor fibers of the Pudendal nerve.

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148
Q

Which rectal sphincter muscle is under involuntary control?

A

Internal Sphincter Muscle

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149
Q

Which rectal sphincter muscle is under voluntary control?

A

External Sphincter Muscle

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150
Q

Bile is produced in __________ and stored in _______ ____________.

A

Liver, Gall Bladder

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151
Q

What is the function of Bile?

A

Bile is used in the Duodenum to breakdown fats.

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152
Q

When fats enter the Duodenum, what do Enteroendocrine cells do?

A

They secrete the hormone Cholecystokinin (CCK), which causes the contraction of gallbladder to move Bile into the Duodenum.

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153
Q

What is the function of the Biliary Tree?

A

Carries bile from the Liver to the Gallbladder, and from the Gallbladder to the Duodenum.

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154
Q

T/F: There is a direct connection from the Liver to the Gallbladder.

A

False! There is NO direct connection between the Liver and the Gallbladder.

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155
Q

T/F: The Liver only excretes bile when necessary.

A

False! The Liver constantly excretes bile, which flows to the Duodenum.

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156
Q

The Liver is constantly excreting bile. If there is not a bolus of food in the Duodenum, what happens?

A

Sphincter muscles at the end of the Common Bile Duct are closed. As a result, bile is forced to flow into the Cystic Duct and into the Gallbladder.

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157
Q

What is the Duodenal Papilla?

A

The opening of the Duodenal Ampulla into the lumen of the Duodenum.

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158
Q

What is the Duodenal Ampulla?

A

Where the Common Bile Duct and Pancreatic Duct meet at the Duodenum.

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159
Q

A bolus of food material entering the Duodenum stimulates the secretion of 2 different hormones from enteroendocrine cells of the Duodenum. Name them.

A

Cholecystokinin (CCK) and Secretin

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160
Q

What does CCK do?

A

Causes the Gallbladder to contract, excreting bile into the Duodenum.

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161
Q

What does Secretin do?

A

Causes the exocrine cells in the pancreas to excrete hormones and sodium bicarbonate into the Duodenum.

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162
Q

Bile travels from the Liver through the right and left _______________ ________, which join to form a ______________ _____________ ___________.

A

Hepatic Ducts, Common Hepatic Duct

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163
Q

The Cystic Duct joints the Common Hepatic Duct to form the ______________ _________ _________.

A

Common Bile Duct

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164
Q

The Pancreatic Duct joints the Common Bile Duct to form the _____________ or ________________ _____________.

A

Duodenal or Hepatopancreatic Ampulla

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165
Q

What does the Pancreatic Duct do?

A

Carries enzymes of digestion from the Pancreas to the Duodenum.

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166
Q

Hepatopancreatic describes the duct as being from the _________ and the _______________.

A

Liver, Pancreas

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167
Q

What is an Ampulla?

A

A structure that is “swelling”.

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168
Q

It can be seen that the merger of the ___________ ____________ and ______________ _________ forms a “swelling” or Ampulla.

A

Common Bile and Pancreatic Ducts

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169
Q

What does the Head and the Tail of the Pancreas come into contact with?

A

Head with Duodenum.
Tail with Spleen.

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170
Q

T/F: The Pancreas contains only Exocrine cells.

A

False! The Pancreas contains both Exocrine and Endocrine cells.

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171
Q

What are Exocrine cells in the pancreas?

A

Acinar cells which excrete enzymes into a duct and respond to Secretin secreted from the enteroendocrine cells of the Duodenum.

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172
Q

In the Pancreas, what are 5 enzymes that the Exocrine cells excrete?

A

Proteases, Amylases, Lipases, Nucleases, and Bicarbonate.

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173
Q

What do Proteases do?

A

Breakdown polypeptides to amino acids.

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174
Q

What do Amylases/Carbohydrases?

A

Breakdown complex sugars (Carbohydrates) into simple sugars (i.e. Glucose).

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175
Q

What do Lipases do?

A

Breakdown lipids into fatty-acids.

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176
Q

T/F: Lipases emulsify fats to lipids.

A

False! Bile emulsifies fats to lipids.

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177
Q

What do Nucleases do?

A

Breakdown of the nucleus into nuclear material (DNA, RNA).

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178
Q

What is Bicarbonate?

A

A buffer to neutralize the acidic chyme or bolus from the stomach.

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179
Q

What do Endocrine cells do?

A

Secrete a hormone into the circulatory system.

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180
Q

What hormones are secreted in response to blood Glucose concentrations?

A

Insulin and Glucagon

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181
Q

What do Alpha Cells in the Pancreas do? What does this cause?

A

Secrete Glucagon to transport Glucose from the Liver into the blood.

This causes the concentration of Glucose in the blood to increase.

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182
Q

What do Beta Cells in the Pancreas do? What does this cause?

A

Secrete Insulin to transport Glucose from blood into the cells of the body and into the Liver.

This causes the concentration of Glucose in the blood to decrease.

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183
Q

What are Islands of Langerhans?

A

Alpha and Beta cells, which collectively secrete hormones into veins.

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184
Q

The Pancreas produces enzymes and Bicarbonate. Where are these released into?

A

Released into the Pancreatic Duct and into the Duodenum.

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185
Q

The Pancreas produces the hormones Insulin and Glucagon. Where are these released into?

A

Released into the Circulatory System

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186
Q

The Liver is composed of 4 lobes. Name them.

A

Right lobe, Left lobe, Caudate (“tail of the liver”) lobe, and Quadrate (“4-sided”) lobe.

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187
Q

What are the cells of the Liver called?

A

Hepatocytes

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188
Q

What are the 7 major functions of the Hepatocytes?

A

CANVSST (almost like Canvas but with a T)

-Convert the Bilirubin to Bile
-Assist the Spleen in removing dead and dying RBCs
-Nutrient metabolism and storage
-Vitamin storage
-Synthesis and excretion of bile
-Synthesize plasma proteins
-Toxin removal also called detoxification

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189
Q

To perform their functions, Hepatocytes require what 3 things?

A

Oxygen from an arterial supply.
Contact with the nutrients from digestions.
Ducts to carry away the bile.

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190
Q

What carries oxygen to the Liver?

A

Hepatic arteries and arterioles carry oxygen to the Liver.

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191
Q

What carries nutrients of digestion to the Liver?

A

The Hepatic Portal Vein carries nutrients of digestion to the Liver.

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192
Q

What carries bile away from the Liver?

A

Hepatic Ducts carry bile away from the Liver.

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193
Q

There is an ____________ supply INTO the Liver, and _____________ flow INTO and OUT of the Liver.

A

arterial, venous

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194
Q

What makes up the Portal Triad?

A

Hepatic artery, Hepatic Portal vein, and Hepatic duct.

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195
Q

What does the Hepatic Portal Vein do?

A

Carries nutrients INTO the Liver.

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196
Q

What does the Hepatic Vein do?

A

Carries nutrients and CO2 OUT of the Liver and into the Inferior Vena Cava (IVC).

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197
Q

What is the Porta Hepatis?

A

Entrance of the Portal Triad into the Liver (“the door to the Liver”).

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198
Q

Hepatocytes are organized into _____________.

A

Lobules (“little lobes”)

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199
Q

What is a Lobule?

A

A hexagonal shape around a Central Vein.

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200
Q

Where are Portal Triads found?

A

Found in every corner of the Hexagonal Lobule

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201
Q

T/F: Each lobe of the liver has one Sinusoidal Capillaries.

A

False! Each lobe of the liver has many Sinusoidal Capillaries.

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202
Q

Blood flows from the Hepatic artery and Hepatic Portal vein into the lobule and into a ______________ _______________.

A

Sinusoidal Capillary

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203
Q

What is the blood in the Sinusoidal Capillary in contact with? Why?

A

In contact with Hepatocytes, so they can perform their many functions.

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204
Q

Blood in Sinusoidal Capillaries flows past Hepatocytes and into the _______________ __________.

A

Central Vein

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205
Q

What is located in the center of each lobule of the liver?

A

Central Vein

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206
Q

What do all of the Central Veins join to form?

A

Hepatic Veins

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207
Q

Where do the Hepatic Veins drain into?

A

Inferior Vena Cava

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208
Q

What does a Bile Canaliculus do?

A

Carries bile away from the Hepatocytes.

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209
Q

Many Canaliculi join together to form what?

A

the Hepatic Duct

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210
Q

What does the Hepatic Duct do?

A

Carries bile towards the Gall Bladder

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211
Q

What are Kupffer Cells?

A

Macrophages in the Sinusoidal Capillaries

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212
Q

What is the Peritoneum?

A

A serous membrane (mesothelium) that lines the Abdominal organs.

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213
Q

What is the Visceral Peritoneum?

A

The part of the serous membrane in contact with the organs of digestion. One continuous membrane.

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214
Q

What is the Parietal Peritoneum?

A

The part of the serous membrane in contact with the Abdominal wall.

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215
Q

What does the term “Mesentery” mean?

A

A double layer of Visceral Peritoneum.

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216
Q

If an organ has a Mesentery, what is it called?

A

An Intraperitoneal organ

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217
Q

What is an organ without a Mesentery called?

A

A Retroperitoneal organ

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218
Q

Is the liver an intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal organ?

A

The Liver is an intraperitoneal organ. It actually has 2 Mesenteries, both the Falciform ligament & the Lesser Omentum.

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219
Q

How many Mesenteries does the Liver have?

A

2, both the Falciform Ligament & the Lesser Omentum

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220
Q

What is the MAIN function of the Urinary System?

A

To maintain Homeostasis

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221
Q

What 5 things does the Urinary System do to help maintain Homeostasis?

A

1) Storage and excretion of urine
2) Filtration of blood
3) Releases hormones
4) Regulation of erythrocyte production
5) Regulation of ions and acid/base levels

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222
Q

What is Urine?

A

Filtrate that is removed from the blood that the body does not need in excess in order to survive.

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223
Q

What happens if we have buildup of substances in the blood?

A

Too much of something can be bad, because if it takes us out of homeostasis, it becomes toxic!

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224
Q

What is the MAIN function of the kidney?

A

Filters waste from the blood to maintain homeostasis and converts the filtrate into urine

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225
Q

In patients with chronic kidney disease, what is the kidney unable to do?

A

Unable to filter substances, thus, it cannot maintain homeostasis.

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226
Q

If the kidney is unable to maintain homeostasis and filter substances, what will happen short-term and long-term?

A

The accumulation of uremic toxins in the kidney will decrease Erythropoietin production. This then decreases RBC production (Erythropoiesis) in the bone marrow, leading to anemia and later heart failure.

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227
Q

In relation to chronic kidney disease, what is anemia?

A

Anemia is a symptom of chronic kidney disease.

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228
Q

Urogenital system derives from embryonic tissue called what?

A

Intermediate Mesoderm

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229
Q

What is the Intermediate Mesoderm?

A

Groups of cylindrical cells running down the posterior abdominal wall.

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230
Q

What does the Condensed Intermediate Mesoderm form?

A

Forms the urogenital ridge, which projects into the embryonic abdominal cavity.

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231
Q

What type of organs make up the urogenital ridge?

A

Urinary + Internal Reproductive Organs

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232
Q

What structures develop from the urogenital ridge?

A

Pronephros and Pronephric Duct

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233
Q

What is the function of Pronephros?

A

Their only function is DEGENERATION, which will instigate the formation of Mesonephros (the 2nd set of embryonic excretory organs).

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234
Q

How do Mesonephric nephrons appear to develop?

A

Mesonephric nephrons develop as sac-like segments that function in urine production.

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235
Q

What does the Pronephric Duct turn into and what does it do?

A

The Pronephric Duct is retained as the Mesonephric Duct and will drain waste/urine from the Mesonephric Nephrons to the Cloaca.

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236
Q

What is the Cloaca?

A

The common collection area for waste.

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237
Q

How long do Mesonephros persist?

A

Persist until week 10

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238
Q

What do Mesonephros give rise to?

A

Degenerating Mesonephros trigger the development of Metanephros.

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239
Q

From which structures do the Metanephros develop?

A

Metanephros develop simultaneously from Ureteric Buds and Metanephric Blastema.

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240
Q

Where do Uretic Buds come from?

A

Directly from Mesonephric Duct

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241
Q

Where do Metanephric Blastema come from and what are they?

A

They are a cluster of cells produced from the intermediate mesoderm.

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242
Q

What do Uretic Buds develop into?

A

Develop into the structures that COLLECT urine.

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243
Q

What are the structures that are collecting urine?

A

Ureter, Renal Calyces, Renal Pelvis, and Collecting Ducts.

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244
Q

What do Metanephric Blastema develop into?

A

Develop into the structures that PRODUCE urine.

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245
Q

What are the structures that are producing urine?

A

Glomerular capsule, Proximal convoluted tubule, Nephron loop, and the Distal convoluted tubule.

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246
Q

How does the structure of the kidney form from the uretic bud and metanephric blastema?

A

The Uretic Bud will come off of the Mesonephric Duct and also trigger the Metanephric Blastema for differentiation. The Uretic Bud will then grow into and form a complex with the Metanephric Blastema, which will form the Kidney.

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247
Q

The Kidney is formed when what 2 structures form a fully-functioning complex?

A

Uretic Bud + Metanephric Blastema

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248
Q

What happens at Week 7 of Urinary Development?

A

The Urorectal Septum divides the Cloaca into the Urogenital Sinus and the Anorectal Sinus. This helps to separate the bladder from the rectum.

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248
Q

Which develops first: Uretic Bud or Metanephric Blastema? Why?

A

Uretic Bud develops first, because we need a place to store/collect urine before we produce it.

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249
Q

What does the Urogenital Sinus develop into?

A

Develops into the future urinary bladder and urethra.

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250
Q

What is the pathway of Kidney migration?

A

During weeks 6-9, the developing Kidneys migrate to a more superior position in the abdominal cavity. As they ascend, they obtain temporary blood vessels from nearby vasculature to keep supplying the Kidney. By week 9, the Kidneys migrate to the lumbar region and receive permanent renal arteries from the abdominal aorta.

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251
Q

What is meant by the Indifferent Duct System?

A

All embryos begins with both the Mesonephric Duct and the Paramesonephric Duct before only 1 is retained based on genetics.

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252
Q

What determines which duct system is retained in embryos?

A

Genetics, specially the sex genes

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253
Q

What does retention of the Mesonephric Duct create?

A

Penis and associated structures (XY)

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254
Q

What does retention of the Paramesonephric Duct create?

A

Uterus and associated structures (XX)

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255
Q

The degeneration of which temporary set of embryonic excretory organs triggers the production of the mesonephros?

A

Pronephros

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256
Q

What are the Ureters, Urinary Bladder, Urethra collectively referred to as?

A

Collectively referred to as the urinary tract

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257
Q

What is the function of the Urinary Tract?

A

Transports the urine out of the body.

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258
Q

What are the organs of the Urinary System?

A

Paired Kidneys and the Urinary Tract (Ureters, Urinary Bladder, Urethra).

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259
Q

Where does the superior and inferior border of the Kidney sit?

A

Superior border sits just below T12.
Inferior border sits at about L3.

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260
Q

T/F: The Kidney is retroperitoneal.

A

True!

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261
Q

Where does the Suprarenal or Adrenal Gland sit?

A

Sits atop each Kidney

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262
Q

What color is the Kidney?

A

Reddish Brown

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263
Q

The Right Kidney sits slightly more inferior than the Left Kidney. Why?

A

The Liver is pushing down on the Right Kidney.

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264
Q

The Kidney is surrounded by 2 layers of fat. What is the function of this?

A

The fat serves to protect and cushion the Kidney from trauma.

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265
Q

What are 3 functions of the Renal Capsule of the Kidney?

A

Maintains the shape of the Kidney, protects the Kidney from damage, and prevents infection from spreading (into and out of the kidney).

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266
Q

What type of tissue is the Renal Capsule of the Kidney?

A

Dense, irregular connective tissue

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267
Q

The Renal Capsule of the Kidney has a concave medial border. What is this called and what happens here?

A

The concave medial border is called the Hilum. This is where blood vessels enter & exit the kidney. The Ureter also exists the kidney here.

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268
Q

The Kidney is divided into 3 parts. Name them.

A

Cortex (outer), medulla (inner), and Renal Pelvis

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269
Q

What does the Cortex of the Kidney do?

A

Projects into the medulla as renal columns to divide it into Renal/Medullary Pyramids.

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270
Q

What do the Renal/Medullary Pyramids do?

A

Increases the surface area of the Medulla, where urine is produced, allowing for more functional capacity.

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271
Q

Where is urine produced?

A

In the Renal/Medullary Pyramids via the nephrons.

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272
Q

From the Renal/Medullary Pyramids, where does the urine travel to get to the urinary bladder?

A

Drips into the Renal Papilla, then minor calyx, major calyx, renal pelvis, ureter, and then urinary bladder.

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273
Q

Describe the direction of movement from urine production in the Renal Pyramids to ending up collecting in the Urinary Bladder.

A

Renal Pyramids –> Renal Papilla –> Minor Calyx –> Major Calyx –> Renal Pelvis –> Ureter –> Urinary Bladder

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274
Q

What branches off of the abdominal aorta to deliver blood to the kidneys?

A

Renal Arteries

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275
Q

What do Renal Veins do?

A

Bring deoxygenated blood back to the Inferior Vena Cava

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276
Q

Where do Renal Veins lie in comparison to Renal Arteries?

A

The Renal Veins are anterior to the arteries.

277
Q

T/F: The Renal Veins are symmetrical.

A

False! The Renal Veins are asymmetrical due to the location of the IVC on the right side of the body.

278
Q

T/F: Anytime there is asymmetry in the body, we need to specify Left versus Right-sided structures.

A

True!

279
Q

T/F: The Right Gonadal Vein drains into the Right Renal Vein.

A

False! The Left Gonadal Vein drains into the Left Renal Vein. The Right Gonadal Vein drains into the right IVC instead.

280
Q

Which Renal Vein is longer? Why?

A

The Left Renal Vein is longer, because it has to cross over the Abdominal Aorta to get to the Right Kidney.

281
Q

What does the Left Renal Vein collect blood from?

A

From the kidney as well as the Left Gonadal Vein

282
Q

Between what 2 structures is the Renal Vein located?

A

The Renal Vein is located between the Superior Mesenteric Artery and the Abdominal Aorta.

283
Q

What is Nutcracker Syndrome?

A

This is when the Renal Vein becomes entrapped, causing compression, which leads to a lack of blood drainage from the Gonads. This causes Veriocele and toxic pooling of blood.

284
Q

How many Segmental Arteries branch from the Renal Artery?

A

5 Segmental Arteries branch from the Renal Artery.

285
Q

Describe the order of blood supply to the kidney beginning with the Renal Artery and ending with the Cortical Arteries.

A

Renal Artery –> Segmental Arteries –> Interlobar Arteries –> Arcuate Arteries –> Cortical Arteries

286
Q

Where are Interlobar Arteries located?

A

Between Renal/Medullary Pyramids

287
Q

Where are Arcuate Arteries located?

A

Across the tops of the Renal/Medullary Pyramids.

288
Q

Where are Cortical Arteries located and what do they give off?

A

These penetrate the Cortex and give off Afferent Arterioles.

289
Q

What are Afferent Arterioles in the Urinary System?

A

The smallest branches, which create capillary balls called Glomeruli.

290
Q

What is the function of Glomeruli?

A

This is where filtrate is removed from the blood.

291
Q

What types of arteries exit the glomerulus?

A

Efferent Arterioles exit the Glomerulus.

292
Q

What is the Nephron?

A

This is the functional unit of the Kidney, in which all filtration of blood takes place here.

293
Q

What are the 5 parts of the Nephron?

A

Corpuscle, Proximal Convoluted Tubule, Nephron Loop of Henle, Distal Convoluted Tubule, and Collecting Ducts.

294
Q

What do Nephrons do?

A

Modifies filtrate to form urine from three processes: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.

295
Q

What 3 processes modify filtrate to form urine?

A

Filtration, Reabsorption, and Secretion.

296
Q

What is Filtration?

A

Movement of substances from blood to the capsular space.

297
Q

What is Reabsorption?

A

Movement of substances from tubular fluid back to the blood.

298
Q

What is Secretion?

A

Movement of substances from the blood to the tubular fluid.

299
Q

What is the Renal Corpuscle made up of?

A

Made of the glomerulus and the glomerular capsule.

300
Q

The Renal Corpuscle has 2 poles, what are they?

A

The Vascular Pole where afferent arterioles enter. Then, the Tubular Pole where filtrate enters the tubular system.

301
Q

What is the Glomerulus?

A

A tangle of capillaries that extend from the afferent arteriole.

302
Q

What surrounds the Glomerulus?

A

The Glomerular Capsule surrounds the Glomerulus.

303
Q

The Glomerular Capsule is made of 2 layers, what are they?

A

The Parietal Layer and the Visceral Layer.

304
Q

In the Glomerular Capsule, what type of epithelium is the Parietal Layer?

A

Simple squamous epithelium

305
Q

In the Glomerular Capsule, describe the Visceral Layer.

A

The Visceral Layer is adhered to the Glomerulus and is made of Podocytes.

306
Q

What are Podocytes?

A

Specialized cells that help to filter or reject the filtering of certain substances.

307
Q

Where is the Capsular Space located? What happens here?

A

Lies between the Parietal and Visceral Layer.

This is where filtrate is collected.

308
Q

How does filtration occur?

A

Filtration occurs because of increased pressure in the Glomerulus. This forces blood out of the blood vessels.

309
Q

What 2 things is the Filtration Membrane made of?

A

Fenestrated Endothelium of the Glomerulus and the Visceral Layer of the Glomerular Capsule, made of Podocytes with filtration slits.

310
Q

What is the function of the Filtration Membrane?

A

It allows substances that are small enough to flow through as filtrate while also preventing other substances, such as proteins and cells, from entering the filtrate.

311
Q

What does the filtration membrane allow to exit the Glomerulus?

A

Only allows the smallest solutes to exit the Glomerulus

312
Q

What causes solutes to be pressed out of the blood?

A

Solutes are pressed out of the blood due to high pressure in the Glomerulus.

313
Q

T/F: Filtration is a selective process.

A

False! Basically, anything that is small enough to get pushed through the filtration membrane will go.

314
Q

Describe the structure of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule.

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium with microvilli to help increase reabsorption capacity.

315
Q

What is the function of the Proximal Convoluted Tubule?

A

Actively reabsorbs and secretes substances to modify the filtrate.

316
Q

What is the Nephron Loop of Henle made up of?

A

It is made up of 2 limbs, one that loops down in the medulla and one that loops back up into the cortex.

317
Q

What is function of the Nephron Loop of Henle?

A

Primary function is reabsorption of water back to the blood.

318
Q

There are 2 types of Nephrons, what are they?

A

Cortical Nephrons, which work under normal conditions.

Juxtamedullary Nephrons, which work during periods of high activity and produce concentrated urine.

319
Q

Describe the structure of the Distal Convoluted Tubule.

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium with sparse microvilli.

320
Q

What is the function of the Distal Convoluted Tubule?

A

Primary function is secretion and absorption.

321
Q

Describe the histological differences between the Primary Convoluted Tubule and the Distal Convoluted Tubule.

A

DCT:
-Simple cuboidal epithelium
-Sparse microvilli
-Narrow lumen

PCT:
-Simple cuboidal epithelium
-Tall and many microvilli
-Lumen looks really fuzzy

322
Q

Name the capillaries around the tubules and the nephron.

A

Peritubular Capillaries surround the proximal and distal convoluted tubules.

Vasa Recta surround the Nephron Loop.

323
Q

What is the function of the Collecting Tubules and Ducts?

A

To increase the absorption of water back to the blood.

324
Q

What are the Collecting Tubules and Ducts under the influence of? What does this cause?

A

Act under the influence of Anti-Diuretic Hormone (ADH) and Aldosterone to limit the loss of water and sodium ions from the blood.

325
Q

Where is the last place that filtrate can be modified?

A

Collecting ducts

326
Q

Where does urine exit the Kidney through?

A

Through the Ureter

327
Q

What are Ureters?

A

Fibromuscular tubes that carry urine into the pelvic cavity to empty into the urinary bladder.

328
Q

Where do the Ureters insert into the bladder?

A

Insert in the posterolateral wall of the bladder.

329
Q

What are the 3 layers of the Ureter?

A
  1. Mucosa (transitional epithelium)
  2. Muscularis (smooth muscle layers)
  3. Adventitia (collagen and elastic fibers)
330
Q

Why does the Ureter not have a submucosa layer?

A

The Ureters are too small for submucosa. They do not need the extra support offered by the submucosa.

331
Q

Why is it a good thing for the Ureter mucosa to be transitional epithelium?

A

This allows stretching so that more fluid can flow.

332
Q

Why does the Ureter enter the Bladder obliquely?

A

It increases the surface area of the ureter making contact with the bladder. It also creates a one-way valve which prevents urine from re-entering the ureter.

333
Q

In relation to the Pubic Symphysis, how is the Bladder positioned? When the Bladder fills, how does this change?

A

Positioned posterior to and “tipped over” the Pubic Symphysis.

As the Bladder fills, it stands upright.

334
Q

The Urinary Bladder is _____________________ and is thus covered by the Parietal Peritoneum.

A

Retroperitoneal

335
Q

What are the 4 layers of the Urinary Bladder?

A
  1. Mucosa (transitional epithelium)
  2. Submucosa (dense, irregular connective tissue)
  3. Muscularis (detrusor muscle)
  4. Adventitia (outer loos connective tissue, with collagen and elastic fibers
336
Q

Describe the structure of the submucosa in the Urinary Bladder.

A

It forms folds, called Rugae, which help to increase stretch in the Urinary Bladder.

337
Q

What is the function of the Detrusor Muscle in the Urinary Bladder?

A

It contracts and helps to push all of the urine out of the Urinary Bladder.

338
Q

In the Urinary Bladder, what is the Trigone? What does it allow for?

A

A triangular area formed by the entrance of the ureters and the formation of the internal urethral opening.

This allows space for urine to exit the bladder and enter the urethra.

339
Q

What is Urethra made from?

A

Made from smooth muscle of the bladder.

340
Q

Describe the Internal Urethral Sphincter.

A

It surrounds the Urethra opening and is made of smooth muscle, thus, it is under autonomic control.

341
Q

Describe the distal end of the Urethra.

A

The distal end of the urethra is surrounded by skeletal muscle forming the external urethral sphincter. The external urethral sphincter is on the outside of the urethra and is under voluntary control.

342
Q

In males, what are 2 additional things they have as part of the Urethra pathway out of the body?

A

Males are getting rid of both urine and semen out of the urethra.

Males also have a prostatic urethra that urine passes through before entering the penis.

343
Q

What does Parasympathetic stimulation of the Bladder lead to?

A

This stimulates Micturition or urination.

Think P = PP

344
Q

What does Sympathetic stimulation of the Bladder lead to?

A

This inhibits Micturition or urination.

Think S = Storage

Also, remember, you like barely have to pee when you’re exercising.

345
Q

How does the ANS control Micturition? Describe the steps.

A

1) Stretch receptors in the bladder trigger the Micturition Reflex Center.
2) Impulses travel to the Detrusor Muscle and the Internal Urethral Sphincter.
3) Smooth muscle in the Internal Urethral Sphincter relaxes.
4) Smooth muscle in the Detrusor contracts.
5) Person must consciously relax the External Urethral Sphincter.

346
Q

Is the stomach an intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal organ?

A

The stomach is intraperitoneal with 2 mesenteries: both the greater and lesser omentum.

347
Q

Are the Jejunum and Ileum intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

Intraperitoneal with the mesentery proper

348
Q

Is the Transverse colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

Intraperitoneal with the tranverse mesocolon.

349
Q

is the Sigmoid colon intraperitoneal or retroperitoneal?

A

Intraperitoneal with the sigmoid mesocolon

350
Q

Name the Digestive Organs that are Intraperitoneal Organs.

A

Liver, stomach, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon.

351
Q

What is a Retroperitoneal Organ?

A

An organ located outside and behind the Parietal Peritoneum.

352
Q

Name the Digestive Organs that are Retroperitoneal Organs.

A

RED PAD = Retroperitoneal

Rectum, Esophagus, Duodenum, Pancreas, Ascending colon, Descending colon.

353
Q

T/F: Intraperitoneal Organs do NOT have a mesentery.

A

False! Intraperitoneal Organs have a mesentery, whereas retroperitoneal organs do not have a mesentery.

354
Q

What are the 3 main arteries that the digestive organs receive oxygenated blood from?

A

Celiac Trunk, Superior Mesenteric artery, and Inferior Mesenteric artery.

355
Q

What are the 1st, 2nd, and most inferior branches off of the Abdominal Aorta?

A

First branch = Celiac Trunk
Second branch = Superior Mesenteric artery
Most Inferior branch = Inferior Mesenteric artery

356
Q

What does the Celiac Trunk supply?

A

Supplies all of the organs from the Esophagus through the Duodenum.

(Esophagus, Stomach, Spleen, Liver, Pancreas)

357
Q

What does the Superior Mesenteric artery supply?

A

Supplies all of the organs from the Jejunum through the Transverse colon.

(Small intestine, Cecum, Vermiform Appendix, Ascending and Transverse colon)

358
Q

What does the Inferior Mesenteric artery supply?

A

Supplies the Descending colon, Sigmoid colon, and Rectum.

359
Q

The Celiac Trunk has 3 branches, name them.

A

Left Gastric artery, Common Hepatic artery, and Splenic artery.

360
Q

Where does the Left Gastric artery go to?

A

To lesser curvature of the stomach

361
Q

Where does the Common Hepatic artery go to? What does it split to form?

A

Goes to the Liver.

Splits to form Gastro-duodenal and Proper Hepatic.

362
Q

Where does the Splenic artery go to? What artery does it give off?

A

Goes to the Spleen and Pancreas.

Gives off Left Gastro-omental artery.

363
Q

Where do Gastro-Omental arteries follow?

A

Follow the greater curvature of the stomach.

364
Q

Where do Gastric arteries follow?

A

Follow the lesser curvature of the stomach.

365
Q

What does the Gastro-Duodenal artery supply?

A

Supply to the Right Gastro-Omental artery and the Duodenum.

366
Q

What does the Proper Hepatic artery form? What else does it give off?

A

Splits to form Left and Right Hepatic arteries. Also, gives off the Right Gastric artery.

367
Q

What do the Left and Right Hepatic arteries supply?

A

Supply to the left and right lobes of the liver.

368
Q

What does the Embryology of the Gut-Tube explain?

A

Explains the Adult Morphology.

369
Q

What structures does the Embryonic Foregut give rise to?

A

Stomach, Liver, Pancreas, Spleen, and Duodenum to Common Bile Duct.

370
Q

What structures does the Embryonic Midgut give rise to?

A

Duodenum distal to common bile duct, remaining small intestine, cecum, ascending and transverse colon (to splenic fixture).

371
Q

What structures does the embryonic hindgut give rise to?

A

Descending colon (at splenic fixture), sigmoid colon, and rectum.

372
Q

What branch off of the abdominal aorta will eventually supply the Embryonic Foregut?

A

Celiac Trunk

373
Q

What branch off of the abdominal aorta will eventually supply the Embryonic Midgut?

A

Superior Mesenteric artery

374
Q

What branch off of the abdominal aorta will eventually supply the Embryonic Hindgut?

A

Inferior Mesenteric artery

375
Q

What do veins going into the liver do?

A

Carry deoxygenated blood from organs of digestion and carry nutrients to the liver.

376
Q

Where does venous blood from organs of digestion drain into?

A

Into the Hepatic Portal vein and then into the liver.

377
Q

What are the 4 Organs of Digestion that get drained by the Hepatic Portal Vein?

A

Stomach, Spleen, Small Intestines, and Large Intestines.

378
Q

What do Gastric veins drain?

A

Drain the stomach into the Hepatic Portal Vein.

379
Q

What do Splenic veins do?

A

Drains the Spleen and Pancreas into the Hepatic Portal Vein.

380
Q

What do Superior Mesenteric Veins drain?

A

Drains organs of the mid-gut (from the bile duct to splenic fixture).

381
Q

What do Inferior Mesenteric Veins drain?

A

Drains organs of the hind-gut (from splenic fixture through the rectum).

382
Q

What are the organs of the fore-gut drained by?

A

Drained by the Gastric and Splenic veins

383
Q

What are organs of the mid-gut drained by?

A

Drained by the Superior Mesenteric vein

384
Q

What are the organs of the hind-gut drained by?

A

Drained by the Inferior Mesenteric vein

385
Q

What veins join to form the Hepatic Portal vein?

A

Gastric, Splenic, Superior Mesenteric, and Inferior Mesenteric.

386
Q

What does the Superior Mesenteric Vein join to form the Hepatic Portal Vein?

A

The Superior Mesenteric joints the Splenic Vein to form the Hepatic Portal Vein.

387
Q

What does Portal Venous Drainage mean?

A

These are the veins that drain into the Liver.

388
Q

What organs have Portal Venous Drainage?

A

Spleen, Stomach, Pancreas, Small Intestines, and Large Intestines.

389
Q

What does Caval Venous Drainage mean?

A

These are the veins that drain into the Inferior Vena Cava.

390
Q

What organs have Caval Venous Drainage?

A

Kidneys, Gonads, and Liver.

391
Q

What is the effect of parasympathetic stimulation on the rate of peristalsis?

A

Parasympathetic nerves INCREASE the rate of peristalsis.

392
Q

What is the effect of sympathetic stimulation on the rate of peristalsis?

A

Sympathetic nerves DECREASE the rate of peristalsis.

393
Q

What innervates the Muscularis Externa?

A

The Myenteric Nerve Plexus innervates the Muscularis Externa.

394
Q

What innervates the Muscularis Mucosa?

A

The Submucosal Nerve Plexus innervates the Muscularis Mucosa.

395
Q

What nerves innervate the GI tract?

A

There are 3 (Thoracic) Splanchnic nerves that innervate the GI tract.

396
Q

How many arteries supply the GI tract?

A

There are 3 arteries that supply the GI tract.

397
Q

What is the Sympathetic Innervation to the Embryonic Foregut?

A

Greater Splanchnic nerve

398
Q

What is the Sympathetic Innervation to the Embryonic Midgut?

A

Lesser Splanchnic nerve

399
Q

What is the Sympathetic Innervation to the Embryonic Hindgut?

A

Least Splanchnic nerve

400
Q

In the GI tract, what accompanies arteries to their targets?

A

Sympathetic nerves accompany arteries to their targets.

401
Q

How many parasympathetic nerves innervate the GI tract?

A

There are 2 parasympathetic nerves that innervate the GI tract.

402
Q

Parasympathetic nerves travel ________ the GI tract to their targets.

A

atop

403
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation for the embryonic foregut and midgut?

A

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

404
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation for the embryonic hindgut?

A

Pelvic Splanchnic nerve (S2, 3, 4).

405
Q

What are the similarities between Exocrine and Endocrine Glands?

A

Both are made of epithelial cells.

406
Q

What is the difference between Exocrine and Endocrine Glands?

A

Exocrine glands secrete substances directly on the SURFACE (skin) of the body.
-Immediate reaction
-Sweat, electrolytes, etc.

Endocrine glands release substances directly into the BLOOD.
-Delayed reaction
-Completely inside the body

407
Q

T/F: Exocrine glands are supplied by a bunch of blood vessels.

A

False! Endocrine glands must be supplied by a plethora of blood vessels.

408
Q

What are 2 reasons for why endocrine glands are surrounded by a plethora of blood vessels?

A

1) To monitor the blood to look for areas with abnormal substance concentrations.
2) Hormone secretion as a response to abnormal concentrations. Hormones get right into the bloodstream.

409
Q

Describe the structure of an Endocrine Gland.

A

Simple cuboidal cells (secretory cells) are clustered around fenestrated capillaries.
1) Cells release hormones into sinusoids (empty spaces)
2) Hormones flow through fenestrations into capillaries when they are needed.

410
Q

Why is Pancreatic Cancer so deadly?

A

The Pancreas has a vast blood supply, which will quickly circulate cancerous cells to other parts of the body, particularly lymph nodes.

411
Q

T/F: Hormones affect any type of cell they come into contact with.

A

False! Hormones ONLY affect cells that have a specific receptor (Target Cell).

412
Q

T/F: The effect of a hormone is preprogrammed.

A

True!

413
Q

What determines the specific reaction of a hormone?

A

The specific reaction is dependent on the target cell, not the hormone.

One hormone can cause different reactions in different target cells.

414
Q

Name the 3 triggers that stimulate hormone secretion. Which is the most common?

A

Humoral, Neuronal Control, and Hormonal.

Hormonal is the MOST COMMON.

415
Q

What is Humoral Hormone Secretion?

A

Hormone secretion is based on the concentration of a specific substance in the body, such as ions or nutrients.

416
Q

What is Neuronal Control Hormone Secretion?

A

Nerve fibers stimulate the release of hormones. (Ex: Adrenal Gland).

417
Q

What is Hormonal Hormone Secretion?

A

Other hormones stimulate the release of hormones.

418
Q

How is hormone secretion regulated?

A

By FEEDBACK LOOPS.

419
Q

What is a Positive Feedback Loop?

A

This is when an increase in a hormone leads to increase in a specific action.

420
Q

What is a Negative Feedback Loop?

A

An increase in a hormone leads to a decrease in a specific action.

421
Q

“An extension of the Hypothalamus”

What is this?

A

The Pituitary Gland

422
Q

What is another name for the Pituitary Gland?

A

The Hypophysis

423
Q

Describe the location of the Pituitary Gland.

A

It sits inferior to the brain in the hypophyseal fossa, which is a depression in the sella turcica of the sphenoid bone. The pituitary gland is suspended from the hypothalamus via a stalk or infundibulum.

424
Q

What can the pituitary gland be divided into?

A

Anterior and posterior lobe

425
Q

What controls/oversees the Pituitary Gland?

A

The Hypothalamus controls the Pituitary Gland. This is why it is important that they are connected.

426
Q

The anterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland is under hormonal control via the _________________.

A

Hypothalamus

427
Q

Describe how the anterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland produces hormones.

A

Hormones from the Hypothalamus enter the Hypophyseal-Hypothalamic Portal System (HHPS). These hormones will travel directly to the anterior lobe where they either stimulate or inhibit the production of hormones.

428
Q

Where do Hormones secreted by the anterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland go?

A

They ultimately enter systemic circulation.

429
Q

What does the Hypophyseal-Hypothalamic Portal System (HHPS) do?

A

It takes hormones that have been secreted into the blood from the Hypothalamus and shunts this blood towards the anterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland.

430
Q

What is the anterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland made up of? What do these do?

A

Made of epithelial tissue that contains 5 different cells. These cells produce 7 different hormones.

431
Q

What does Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) do?

A

Stimulates the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone, which will control/regulate metabolism.

432
Q

What do Follicle-stimulating & Luteinizing Hormones do?

A

These act on the gonads to stimulate sperm and oocyte production and enable the release of sex hormones.

433
Q

What does Adrenocorticotropic Hormone do?

A

Acts on the Adrenal Cortex to cause the release of corticosteroids.

434
Q

What does Growth Hormone do?

A

Acts on all body tissues (especially muscles and bones) to stimulate growth of the body.

435
Q

What does Melanocyte-Stimulating Hormone do?

A

Acts on melanocytes in the skin to produce melanin.

436
Q

What does Prolactin do?

A

Acts on mammary glands of the breast for growth and milk production.

437
Q

T/F: The posterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland produces its own hormones.

A

False! It does NOT produce any of its own hormones.

438
Q

What does the posterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland do?

A

The posterior lobe stores and releases antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin produced in the Hypothalamus.

439
Q

What do axons in the posterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland form?

A

The Hypothalamohypophyseal tract.

440
Q

What is the posterior lobe of the Pituitary Gland made of?

A

Made of neural tissue

441
Q

What does Antidiuretic Hormone do?

A

Stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water when dehydrated. This helps the body to retain water.

Also tells blood vessels to constrict when blood pressure is low to return it to normal (water loss -> low blood volume).

442
Q

What does Oxytocin do?

A

-Stimulates ejection of milk from breast milk during breastfeeding.
-Induces contraction of smooth muscles in reproductive organs (e.g., uterine contractions during childbirth).

443
Q

For the anterior and posterior lobes of the Pituitary Gland, how do they stain differently histologically?

A

Anterior lobe is made of epithelial cells which will take up H&E stain readily (stains darker).

Posterior lobe is made of unmyelinated axons and therefore resists most dyes (stains lighter).

444
Q

What is Hypersecretion? What is the clinical name for this?

A

This is an overactive pituitary gland before puberty and before the growth plates have closed.

Because this is more growth hormone than usual, this is called Pituitary Gigantism.

445
Q

What is Hyposecretion? What is the clinical name for this?

A

This is an underactive pituitary gland in which there is less growth hormone than usual. This is called Pituitary Dwarfism.

446
Q

All endocrine control ultimately comes from what?

A

From the Hypothalamus

447
Q

What are the 3 ways in which the Hypothalamus controls the endocrine system?

A

1) The Hypothalamus produces hormones that are transported and stored in the posterior Pituitary Gland.
2) The Hypothalamus stimulates sympathetic neurons directly to the adrenal medulla during fight or flight.
3) The Hypothalamus produces regulatory hormones which have an effect on the anterior pituitary gland.

448
Q

What is the largest gland in the anterior neck?

A

Thyroid gland

449
Q

Describe the gross anatomy of the Thyroid gland.

A

-Two lobes, connected by isthmus
-Copious blood supply

450
Q

Describe the microscopic anatomy of the Thyroid Gland.

A

-Spherical follicles surrounded by numerous capillaries
-Walls of the follicles are made of simple cuboidal epithelium, with a central lumen filled with a jelly-like substance called “colloid”.

451
Q

What does the Colloid contain?

A

Contains Thyroglobulin, which is a protein that helps to produce Thyroid Hormone.

452
Q

Describe Thyroid Hormone Production.

A

1) Hypothalamus triggers the release of Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH) from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland.
2) Follicular cells make secrete TH.
3) TH diffuses out of the follicular cells into the surrounding capillaries.
4) This increases basal metabolic rate.

453
Q

What is the effect of Thyroid Hormone?

A

Increases basal metabolic rate

454
Q

What is an essential nutrient for Thyroid Hormone production?

A

The Thyroid Gland requires IODINE for TH production.

455
Q

What is Hyperthyroidism?

A

This is an overactive thyroid gland. It is an autoimmune disease in which the immune system produces antibodies that stimulate Thyroid Hormone secretion.

456
Q

What are the symptoms associated with Hyperthyroidism?

A

-Elevated heart rate
-Weight loss
-Elevated metabolic rate
-Protruding eyeballs due to edema

457
Q

Where are Parathyroid Glands located?

A

There are 4 Parathyroid Glands located on the posterior Thyroid Gland.

458
Q

What do Parathyroid Glands do?

A

Produces Parathyroid Hormone (PTH), which regulates Calcium levels in the blood.

459
Q

T/F: The Parathyroid Glands are under the control of the Hypothalamus.

A

False! Parathyroid Glands are NOT under the control of Hypothalamus.

460
Q

Describe how Parathyroid Hormone increases calcium levels if blood calcium levels are low.

A

PTH is released into the blood. Osteoclasts release calcium from the bone via reabsorption. Increase absorption of calcium from the tubular fluid in the kidney. The small intestine absorbs more calcium.

461
Q

Where are Adrenal Glands located?

A

Located on the superior border of each kidney, also called suprarenal glands.

462
Q

Describe the microscopic anatomy of Adrenal Glands.

A

-Centrally located adrenal medulla made of neural crest cells
-External adrenal cortex (with 3 zones) surrounding the medulla

463
Q

For Adrenal Glands, how we distinguish the 3 external adrenal cortex zones? Name them and what each secretes.

A

Each zone is distinguishable by the amount of dye it takes up.

Zona Glomerulosa: Mineralocorticoids
Zona Fasciculata: Glucocorticoids
Zona Reticularis: Adrenal androgens

464
Q

What does short-term stress of the Adrenal Glands cause?

A

Chromaffin cells in the Medulla act as a post-synaptic neuron and release epinephrine and norepinephrine into the bloodstream.

465
Q

What does long-term stress of the Adrenal Glands cause in each zone of the Cortex?

A

Zone Glomerulosa: Increases water absorption in the kidney to maintain BP.
Zone Fasciculata: Maintains high blood glucose levels.
Zona Reticularis: Counter act stress, boost immunity, and make you happy.

466
Q

Where is the Pancreas located? What artery runs directly through it?

A

Located in the posterior wall of the abdomen, behind the stomach. It is found spooning inside the Duodenum.

The Splenic artery runs directly through it.

467
Q

T/F: The Pancreas contains both exocrine and endocrine cells.

A

True! The Exocrine cells stain darker and the Endocrine cells have islets containing alpha and beta cells.

468
Q

What do Alpha Cells do?

A

Secrete Glucagon which leads to the production of glucose. Glucose enters the blood stream and raises blood sugar levels when they fall too low.

469
Q

What do Beta Cells do?

A

Secrete Insulin that signals cells of the body to take up Glucose from the blood and store it. This promotes the storage of Glucose as Glycogen in the liver, thus lowering excessive blood sugar levels.

470
Q

Where is the Thymus located?

A

Located in the superior mediastinum; atrophies (diminishes) during adolescence.

471
Q

Describe the microscopic anatomy of the Thymus.

A

Epithelial reticular cells with a rosy appearance.

472
Q

What do epithelial reticular cells in the Thymus secrete?

A

Secrete Thymic hormones

473
Q

What stimulates maturation and immunocompetence of T cells?

A

Stimulated by thymic hormones.

474
Q

What is the main source of steroid sex hormones?

A

The testes and ovaries are the main source of steroid sex hormones.

475
Q

What does Testosterone do?

A

Maintains reproductive organs and secondary sex characteristics. Also, promotes sperm formation.

476
Q

What do Interstitial endocrine cells in the Testes do?

A

Secrete Androgens, primarily Testosterone

477
Q

What do Ovarian Follicle Cells do?

A

Androgens are secreted and converted into estrogen and progesterone by ovarian follicle cells.

478
Q

What does Estrogen do?

A

Maintains the reproductive organs and secondary sex characteristics.

479
Q

What does Progesterone do?

A

Signals the uterus to prepare for pregnancy.

480
Q

What are 3 ways in which we can reference sex?

A

Genotypical (biological) sex, Phenotypical sex, and Intersex.

481
Q

What is Genotypical (biological) Sex?

A

These are the sex chromosomes, so XY for a male and XX for a female.

482
Q

What is Phenotypical Sex?

A

An individual’s sex as determined by their internal and external genitalia, expression of secondary sex characteristics, and behavior.

483
Q

Genotype predetermines what?

A

Predetermines Phenotypical Sex. This is because chromosomes determine what hormones are produced, which contribute to the formation of sex characteristics.

484
Q

What is Intersex?

A

A general term used for a variety of situations in which a person is born with reproductive or sexual anatomy that doesn’t fit the boxes of “female” or “male”.

Basically, this is on a continuous spectrum that is atypical of male or female anatomy.

485
Q

When studying anatomy, do we need to assign a sex? Why?

A

No, we do not need to assign a sex. This is because we are studying the STRUCTURES of the body.

486
Q

When studying anatomy, what organs are we referencing and what are we not?

A

We are referencing the organs we can SEE, NOT the organs we EXPECT to see.

487
Q

When discussing skeletal structure, what way can we reference sex? Why?

A

Genotypical sex

This is because hormones generated by the sex chromosomes are responsible for producing specific changes to bony structures.

488
Q

Organs and structures associated with the reproductive system are located within and supported by the _________ ________________, as well as attached to it.

A

bony pelvis

489
Q

What are the primary organs of reproduction? What is their function?

A

Testes and Ovaries.

They produce gametes and hormones.

490
Q

What are the secondary organs of reproduction? What is their function?

A

Everything else besides the testes and ovaries.

Receives, stores, transports, and supports the gametes. They help with fertilization.

491
Q

How many bones make up the adult pelvis? Name them.

A

4 bones make up the adult pelvis:

-Sacrum
-Coccyx
-Bilateral Os Coxae

492
Q

What are the 3 parts of the Os Coxae?

A

Ischium, Ilium, and Pubis

493
Q

How does each Ox Coxae form relative to the other?

A

Each bone of the Os Coxae develops independent of one another from a separate ossification center. The bones then grow towards each other with a loss of cartilage when they fuse. Fusion of the bones forms the acetabulum.

494
Q

Label:
-Obturator foramen
-Ischial spine
-Ischial tuberosity
-Greater sciatic notch
-Lesser sciatic notch

A
495
Q

What 3 ligaments provide ligamentous support of the pelvis?

A

Sacroiliac ligaments, sacrospinous ligament, and sacrotuberous ligament.

496
Q

What do the Sacroiliac ligaments connect? Where do they run?

A

Run from sacrum to ilium anterior and posterior.

497
Q

What does the Sacrospinous ligament connect?

A

Connects sacrum to ischial spine

498
Q

What does the Sacrotuberous ligament connect? What does it close off and what does this create?

A

Connects sacrum to ischial tuberosity

This ligament closes off the greater and lesser sciatic notches to create the greater sciatic foramen and the lesser sciatic foramen.

499
Q

Why is it important that the greater sciatic foramen and lesser sciatic foramen are there?

A

These foramen create safe passages through which structures can exit and enter the pelvis.

500
Q

What 5 structures enter and exit the Greater Sciatic Foramen?

A

-Piriformis muscle
-Superior gluteal a and n
-Inferior gluteal a and n
-Sciatic nerve
-Pudendal n and a (exits pelvis)

501
Q

What nerve and artery stimulate/supply the external and internal genitalia?

A

Pudendal n and a

502
Q

What 2 structures enter/exit the Lesser Sciatic Foramen?

A

-Obturator internus muscle
-Pudendal n and a (re-enters pelvis)

503
Q

What nerve and artery exit the pelvis at the Greater Sciatic Foramen and re-enters the pelvis at the Lesser Sciatic Foramen?

A

Pudendal n and a

504
Q

What does the Pelvic Inlet (Superior Pelvic Aperture) form?

A

Forms the anatomical limit/division between the true and false pelvis.

505
Q

What is the Pelvic Outlet (Inferior Pelvic Aperture)?

A

The inferior margin of the lesser pelvic cavity.

506
Q

What is the Subpubic Angle?

A

The angle formed at the pubic arch by the convergence of the ischiopubic rami.

This is the angle that looks like an upside down U or V when you look at the pubic symphysis anteriorly.

507
Q

What does the False Pelvis support? What bone of the Os Coxae is the False Pelvis?

A

The ilium support the organs of the abdomen.

508
Q

What does the True Pelvis support?

A

Supports the organs of the pelvis.

509
Q

What is the Perineum of the pelvis? What 4 bones are part of it?

A

Diamond-shape region on the pelvis looking from superior angle.

Formed by:
-Pubic symphysis
-Ischial tuberosity (left)
-Ischial tuberosity (right)
-Tip of the coccyx

510
Q

A line drawn between the ischial tuberosities divides the perineum into what?

A

-Anterior Urogenital triangle
-Posterior Anal triangle

511
Q

What muscle acts as a major stabilizer of the hip?

A

Obturator internus muscle

512
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the Obturator Internus muscle?

A

Origin: Obturator membrane and pubic ramus
Insertion: Greater trochanter

Makes a 90 degree angle around the ischial tuberosity

513
Q

What action does the Obturator Internus muscle perform?

A

Lateral rotator of the thigh at the hip; Abduction of the thigh at hip

514
Q

What 2 muscles comprise the Pelvic Floor (aka Pelvis Diaphragm)?

A

Coccygeus muscle and Levator Ani muscle

515
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the Coccygeus muscle?

A

Origin: Sacrum and coccyx
Insertion: Sacrospinous ligament

516
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the Levator Ani muscle?

A

Origin: Tendinous arch of Levator Ani
Insertion: Pubic bones anteriorly, ischial spines posteriorly

517
Q

What do the muscle fibers of the Levator Ani muscle form?

A

Muscle fibers form a hammock which supports the pelvic organs.

518
Q

How many muscles take up the Levator Ani muscle? Name them.

A

Levator Ani is made up of 3 different muscles that work together to support the organs of the pelvis.

-Puborectalis
-Pubococcygeus
-Ilicoccygeus

519
Q

What does the Puborectalis contribute?

A

It contributes slips of muscle that wrap around the anal, urethral, and vaginal orifice.

520
Q

How does Levator Ani contribute to continence?

A

Levator Ani contributes slips of muscle that surround the anal canal and the urethra. These slips of muscle create the external urethral and external anal sphincter, which are under voluntary control.

521
Q

Why are there gaps or hiatuses in the Pelvic Diaphragm?

A

These allow structures to pass through Levator Ani to the outside of the body.

522
Q

Name the 2 hiatuses in the Pelvic Diaphragm.

A

Urogenital Hiatus and Anal Hiatus

523
Q

What structures pass through the Urogenital Hiatus?

A

Urethra and Vaginal Canal

524
Q

What structure passes through the Anal Hiatus?

A

Anal Canal

525
Q

Name the organs within the pelvis from anterior to posterior.

A

-Bladder (prostate then seminal vesicle if male)
-Uterus (if female)
-Rectum

526
Q

What type of lining covers the organs of the pelvis?

A

Peritoneal lining covers the organs of the pelvis.

527
Q

What does the peritoneal lining covering the organs of the pelvis form in the Uterine and Prostate?

A

Uterine: Broad ligament, and Vesicouterine and Rectouterine pouches

Prostatic: Rectovesical pouch

528
Q

What do the Vesicouterine, Rectouterine, and Rectovesical pouches do?

A

Collect fluid and breed bacteria

529
Q

T/F: The organs within the pelvis have a retroperitoneal lining.

A

True!

530
Q

Describe the blood supply to the pelvis beginning at the abdominal aorta.

A

Abdominal aorta –> Common iliac arteries –> Internal iliac artery

Internal iliac artery supplies the pelvic viscera and targets outside the pelvis.

531
Q

What are the 4 branches of the Internal Iliac artery?

A

Superior gluteal artery, Inferior gluteal artery, Obturator artery, and Internal Pudendal artery.

532
Q

What does the Superior Gluteal artery supply?

A

Gluteus minimus and medius

533
Q

What does the Inferior Gluteal artery supply?

A

Gluteus maximus

534
Q

What does the Obturator artery supply?

A

Medial compartment of the thigh (Adductors)

535
Q

What does the Internal Pudendal artery supply?

A

External genitalia

536
Q

Where does the Internal Pudendal artery exit and re-enter the pelvis at?

A

Exits through the Greater Sciatic Foramen and re-enters through the Lesser Sciatic Foramen.

537
Q

Where does the Internal Pudendal artery travel through before branching into several arteries that target the external genitalia?

A

Travels through the Pudendal Canal

538
Q

What is the target of the Internal Pudendal artery?

A

Targets structures within the Urogenital and Anal triangle.

539
Q

What provides somatic motor and sensory innervation to the pelvis?

A

Pudendal nerve

540
Q

What does the Pudendal nerve travel with?

A

Travels with the Pudendal artery

541
Q

What does the Pudendal nerve do?

A

Provides somatic motor and sensory innervation to the pelvis

542
Q

Where does the Pudendal nerve stem from?

A

From S2-4

543
Q

What nerve maintains erection?

A

Pudendal nerve

544
Q

What 3 things does the Pudendal nerve provide somatic motor innervation for?

A

-Muscles of the pelvic floor
-External urethral and anal sphincters
-Muscles covering the erectile tissues

545
Q

What does the Pudendal nerve provide sensory innervation for?

A

Sensation from the external genitalia

546
Q

What does the Pudendal nerve target?

A

Targets within the Urogenital and Anal triangle

547
Q

What provides sympathetic innervation to the pelvis?

A

Superior hypogastric plexus

548
Q

What does sympathetic innervation to the pelvis do?

A

“Sympathetic = Shooting”

Ejaculation and contraction of the internal urethral and anal sphincters

549
Q

What provides parasympathetic innervation to the pelvis?

A

Pelvis splanchnic nerves from S2-4

550
Q

What does parasympathetic innervation to the pelvis do?

A

“Para = Point”

Erection of erectile tissues and relaxation of the internal urethral and anal sphincters.

551
Q

What is the primary function of the pelvis? What about the secondary function?

A

Primary Function: Protection
–> Structure of the bony pelvis protects vital organs of the pelvis, abdomen, and developing embryos.

Secondary Function: Locomotion

552
Q

Describe 3 things about the Quadrupedal Pelvis.

A

-Ilium is lateral to and parallel to the vertebral column
-Ischium extends dorsally
-Sacral vertebrae lie superior to the pubic symphysis

553
Q

Describe 2 ways in which the Bipedal Pelvis is different from the Quadrupedal Pelvis.

A

-Wider pelvis to support body weight and place the legs under the body
-Ilium is shorter, wider, and expanded front to back.

554
Q

How do we determine when Bipedalism first begin?

A

We can look at the shape of the pelvis and determine when it begins to look like modern Homo Sapiens.

555
Q

While Bipedalism is a very useful form of locomotion, what has been a disadvantage to it?

A

The pelvic shape evolved with the sacrum and pubic symphysis opposite each other, which results in challenges when birthing a child (Obstetric Challenges).

556
Q

Describe how birthing happens with a Quadruped pelvis.

A

Babies head passes the sacrum before entering the birth canal. This is easier for birthing.

557
Q

Describe how birthing happens with a Biped pelvis and why this is more difficult than with a Quadruped pelvis.

A

Babies head must pass between 2 bones at the same time, which restricts the birth canal and makes birthing more difficult.

558
Q

T/F: We are still experiencing all of the obstetric (birthing) challenges originally experienced.

A

False! While there are still challenges with birthing, evolution of the pelvic shape has helped to alleviate obstetric challenges.

559
Q

What is Sexual Dimorphism?

A

The difference in form between individuals born with testes or ovaries.

560
Q

T/F: By observing the shape of specific pelvic features, predictions of an individuals genotype may be possible.

A

Quite true! These features occur on a scale of 1-5, with 1 and 5 maintaining the most extreme examples of a specific genotype.

561
Q

Describe the difference between the Sciatic Notch in an XX individual versus an XY individual.

A

XX- U-shaped sciatic notch

XY- V-shaped sciatic notch

562
Q

Describe the difference between the Iliac Crest in an XX individual versus an XY individual.

A

XX- Flatter, shorter

XY- Taller, rounder

563
Q

Describe the difference between the Subpubic Angle in an XX individual versus an XY individual.

A

XX- U-shaped, angle is greater than 80 degrees

XY- V-shaped, angle is less than 70 degrees

564
Q

Describe the difference between the Acetabulum in an XX individual versus an XY individual.

A

XX- Shallower and wider

XY- Oriented more laterally and deeper

565
Q

Describe the difference between the Iliopubic Ramus in an XX individual versus an XY individual.

A

XX- Longer, rounder, longer compared to the diameter of the Acetabulum.

XY- Shorter, sharper edge, length is equal to the diameter of the Acetabulum.

566
Q

Prediction of genotype based on the Pelvis is only possible when?

A

Only possible when comparing an unknown pelvis to a pelvis maintaining all of the extreme characteristics.

567
Q

T/F: XX individuals have reduced tolerance for hip fracture compared to XY individuals.

A

False! XY individuals actually have the reduced tolerance for hip fractures. This is because there are statistically significant differences between pelvis shape for XX and XY. XY have a narrow pelvis which can be more prone to hip fractures.

568
Q

In embryonic development, what accounts for the differences in Pelvic form? When are these differences visible?

A

Hormones influence Pelvic shape. These differences are visible during development but become more pronounced during puberty.

569
Q

What are Puberty Blockers?

A

Also called Hormone Blockers, these delay or stop puberty-related changes in your body.

570
Q

What is Hormone Replacement Therapy?

A

This is when you take hormones to develop secondary sex characteristics that better align with your gender identity, before or after puberty.

571
Q

Describe the difference in Hormone Replacement Therapy pre-puberty versus post-puberty for hip shape.

A

Hormone Replacement Therapy prior to puberty will affect the hip shape.

However, after puberty, it will not alter hip shape.

572
Q

What structures are associated with the Urogenital Triangle?

A

-External urethral sphincter
-Vaginal orifice (if present)

573
Q

What is Levator Ani covered by? What does this serve as?

A

Covered by the perineal membrane.

This serves as a foundation for the erectile tissues.

574
Q

Name the 2 types of Erectile Tissues.

A

Cavernous & Spongy

575
Q

Name 4 general features of Erectile Tissues.

A

-Highly vascularized, sinusoidal tissues
-Smooth muscle (blood enters when relaxed)
-Extensive nerve endings
-Surrounded by a layer of connective tissue called the Tunica Albuginea

576
Q

What is the function of Cavernous tissue?

A

Erection

577
Q

What is the function of Spongy tissue?

A

Patency (keep open and expanded), becomes less turgid

578
Q

What is the structural variation of Cavernous tissue?

A

Thicker Tunica Albuginea, tissue maintains larger sinusoids than Spongy tissue.

579
Q

Why would it be important for Cavernous tissue to have larger sinusoids than Spongy tissue?

A

Larger and more abundant sinusoids allow for blood to enter and cause an erection, which is the function of Cavernous tissue.

580
Q

What is the structural variation of Spongy tissue?

A

Thinner Tunica Albuginea, tissue maintains smaller sinusoids than Cavernosum tissue.

581
Q

Why would it make sense that we would need smaller sinusoids in Spongy tissue than in Cavernosum tissue?

A

We don’t want to close off the Urethra, thus, it is not necessary to have as much blood flow here as in the Cavernosum tissue.

582
Q

T/F: The penis is formed by only Cavernosum tissue.

A

False! The penis is formed by both Cavernosum and Spongy erectile tissues.

583
Q

Describe how the Cavernous erectile tissue contributes to the body of the penis.

A

There are 2 crura attached to the inferior pubic ramus. These 2 will merge past the pubic bone to form Corpora Cavernosa, which is the body of the penis. This is then surrounded by Tunica Albuginea.

584
Q

Describe how the Spongy erectile tissue contributes to the body of the penis.

A

The Spongy erectile tissue attaches to the perineal membrane and joins the Corpora Cavernosa. It will grow in the space between the 2 cylinders. The penile urethra will then run through the Spongy erectile tissue.

585
Q

What makes up the Body of the Penis?

A

2 cylinders of Corpus Cavernosum to form the Corpus Cavernosum.
1 cylinder of Bulbospongiosum/Corpus Spongiosum

586
Q

What makes up the Root of the Penis?

A

2 Crura of Cavernosum erectile tissue
Bulb of the penis

587
Q

What is the cavernous erectile tissue attached to both ischiopubic rami called? What does this merge to form in individuals with ovaries?

A

Called crura, meaning leg.

Each crura merge at the pubic symphysis to form the body of the clitoris.

588
Q

What does the Body of the Clitoris expand to form?

A

Body of the clitoris expands and forms the glans of the clitoris.

589
Q

What is the spongy erectile tissue supported by the perineal membrane referred to as?

A

The bulb of the vestibule

590
Q

Where do the bulbs lie in relation to the vagina? What happens to them during sexual arousal?

A

Two bulbs lie on either side of the vestibule of the vagina.

Bulbs become erect during sexual arousal and compress the vaginal opening.

591
Q

What muscle covers the cavernous erectile tissues?

A

Ischiocavernosus muscle

592
Q

What muscle covers the spongy erectile tissues?

A

Bulbospongiosus muscle

593
Q

How does muscle contraction affect blood vessels? Why is this good?

A

Muscle contraction compresses blood vessels to maintain erection.

594
Q

Describe how an erection of cavernous and spongy tissues occur.

A

Erectile tissues are loaded with blood vessels. When blood fills the tissues, they become erect. Muscles surrounding the tissue will contract to hold blood in, which maintains erection.

595
Q

T/F: Penile and Clitoral erectile dysfunction have both been studied vigorously.

A

False! There has been a lot of research on Penile erectile dysfunction with lots of solutions. However, Clitoral erectile dysfunction has barely been studied and there are no good solutions.

Shocking.

596
Q

What is Sexual Dysfunction? Who can this happen to?

A

Occurs when erection is not achieved.

This can happen to anyone with erectile tissues.

597
Q

Who has Sexual Dysfunction been studied and treated in?

A

Better studied and treated in dysfunction associated with the penis.

598
Q

What can Sexual Dysfunction often be a symptom of?

A

An underlying problem such as hormone imbalance, depression, heart disease, etc.

599
Q

What are the penis and scrotum covered by?

A

Erectile tissues covered most superficially by the skin.

600
Q

What is the Scrotum?

A

An extension of the abdominal wall that is a pouch of skin in which the testes and spermatic cord reside.

601
Q

What are the layers of the Scrotum? What is the function of this?

A

Layers of the scrotum include Cremaster and Dartos muscle.

These maintain temperature in the testes for spermatogenesis to occur.

602
Q

What type of muscle are the Cremaster and Dartos muscle? How do they help to regulate temperature?

A

They are SMOOTH muscles that contract (when cold) and relax (when hot) to bring the testes closer or farther from the body to regulate ideal temperature required for spermatogenesis.

603
Q

Where are the Cremaster and Dartos muscles located?

A

Cremaster muscle is in the Spermatic Cord.
Dartos Fascia is in the Scrotum.

604
Q

What is the fatpad overlying the pubic bone called?

A

Mons pubis

605
Q

In individuals with ovaries, what do the Greater Vestibular glands do?

A

These secrete a vaginal lubricant.

606
Q

In individuals with ovaries, what do the Paraurethral glands do?

A

Lubricates the urethral opening. The lubricant is antimicrobial and is also the source of ejaculate.

607
Q

In males, what is the primary sex organ?

A

Testes

608
Q

What do Testes produce?

A

Produces sperm and hormones

609
Q

Where are the Testes found?

A

Scrotum

610
Q

What are the Testes surrounded by within the Scrotum?

A

Surrounded by the Tunica Albuginea which invaginate to form septa that create lobules.

611
Q

Describe the internal structure of the Testes.

A

There are lobules that contain Seminiferous Tubules, which support sperm development. These Tubules will converge into 1 tubule leading to the Epididymis.

612
Q

What gets developed within the Seminiferous Tubules?

A

Sperm

613
Q

After the sperm are produced in the Seminiferous Tubules, where do they move? Why?

A

After production, they move to the Epididymis where they will mature, learn to swim, and are stored.

614
Q

Where does the Gonadal artery originate?

A

Originates from the Abdominal Aorta

615
Q

What does the Pampiniform Plexus merge to form?

A

Merges to form Gonadal vein

616
Q

What is a continuation of the epididymis that travels to the abdomen?

A

Vas Deferens

617
Q

What is the Inguinal Canal?

A

Space within the inguinal ligament that allows structures to pass from the inside to the outside of the body.

618
Q

How is the Inguinal Canal formed?

A

Formed by the rolling of the abdominal muscles as they form the inguinal ligament and stretch from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle.

619
Q

In regards to the Inguinal Ligament, why do the abdominal muscles roll?

A

Allows more Surface Area to attach to as well as keeps it tighter to keep guts in.

620
Q

What is the internal opening of the Inguinal Canal called? What does it allow?

A

Deep Inguinal Ring

Allows structures to enter the canal.

621
Q

What is the external opening of the Inguinal Canal? What does it allow?

A

Superficial Inguinal Ring

Allows structures to exit the canal.

622
Q

What structures enter the Inguinal Canal through the deep ring?

A

Testes, artery, vein, and vas deferens enter the Inguinal Canal through the deep ring.

623
Q

What surrounds the structures passing through the deep ring of the Inguinal Canal?

A

As they pass through the ring, they are surrounded by fascia and muscle originating from the abdominal wall.

624
Q

What structures exit the Superficial Ring?

A

Testes, artery, vein, and vas deferens.

625
Q

When structures exit the Superficial Ring, what are they surrounded by?

A

Exit the Superficial Ring surrounded by the Spermatic Cord.

626
Q

Nerves from the ______________ abdominal wall become embedded within the spermatic cord.

A

posterior

627
Q

What are secondary sex organs associated with in males?

A

Associated with semen transport.

628
Q

What is the Epididymis?

A

Tightly coiled tube made of smooth muscle.

629
Q

What are the 3 major functions of the Epididymis?

A

1) Monitors and adjusts the fluid of all the seminiferous tubules for hormones, temperature, etc.
2) Recycles damaged sperm
3) Stores capacitated sperm

630
Q

What is the continuation of the Epididymis?

A

Ductus (vas) deferens

631
Q

What is the vas deferens made of? What does it do?

A

Made of 2 layers of smooth muscle (for unidirectionality)

Contractions propel sperm and fluid through the duct.

632
Q

Describe the location of the vas deferens.

A

Extends from the Epididymis and descends along the posterior surface of the urinary bladder towards the prostate gland.

633
Q

Once the vas deferens reaches the area near the prostate gland, what happens?

A

The vas deferens dilates forming an ampulla. The ampulla joins the seminal vesicle which contributes to seminal fluid.

634
Q

What does the ampulla of the vas deferens contribute to the seminal fluid?

A

Fructose, Prostaglandins (contraction of uterus), enzymes (reduce immunity at cervix), and pigment.

635
Q

What 2 things comprise the ejaculatory duct?

A

The joining of the seminal vesicle and vas deferens form the ejaculatory duct.

636
Q

As the ejaculatory duct moves through the prostate, what does it collect?

A

It collects prostatic fluid containing enzymes.

637
Q

What do the enzymes from the prostatic fluid do?

A

-Enhance sperm motility
-Clot and liquefy ejaculated semen
-Prostate specific antigen (PSA) secreted for liquefying semen

638
Q

Ejaculatory fluid flows through the ______________ urethra and into the ______________ urethra.

A

prostatic, penile

639
Q

What are Bulbourethral glands?

A

Small glands embedded in the external urethral sphincter.

640
Q

What do Bulbourethral glands do?

A

Secrete lubricating fluid which helps semen to pass through the urethra to the vagina.

641
Q

What is a Vasectomy?

A

A permanent form of birth control in which the vas deferens is cut. Thus, sperm is removed from the semen.

642
Q

What is Semen?

A

All fluid contributed by structures as it passes through the ejaculatory duct.

643
Q

What is the primary sex organ in females?

A

Ovaries

644
Q

What do Ovaries do?

A

Responsible for the production of oocytes and secreting hormones.

645
Q

Describe the Ovarian structure.

A

Flat oval, 5 cm long, 2.5 cm wide

646
Q

What are the Ovaries covered by?

A

Covered by the Tunica Albuginea

647
Q

How is the interior tissue of the Ovaries divided?

A

Divided into a cortex and medulla

648
Q

In what part of the ovarian cortex are the gametes produced?

A

Produced in the cortex

649
Q

Each ovary is stabilized by 2 ligaments. What are they?

A

Suspensory ligament and Ovarian ligament

650
Q

What is the Suspensory ligament?

A

A fold of peritoneum that extends from the lateral pelvic wall to the ovary.

651
Q

What does the Suspensory ligament contain?

A

Contains the ovarian artery and vein.

652
Q

What is the Ovarian ligament?

A

Extends from the lateral side of the uterus to the ovary and positions the ovary close to the uterine tube.

653
Q

Where does the Ovarian artery branch off of? What does it supply?

A

Branches off of the abdominal aorta to supply blood to the Ovary.

654
Q

Where do the Ovarian veins drain into?

A

On the right side of the body, the vein drains directly into the inferior vena cava.

On the left side of the body, the vein drains into the left renal vein.

655
Q

In females, what is the Reproductive Tract associated with?

A

Associated with storage, nourishment, and transport of the oocyte.

656
Q

What is the Ovarian Cycle?

A

A monthly series of events, directed by hormones, that result in the maturation and release of an oocyte.

657
Q

What coaxes the oocyte into the uterine tube?

A

Fimbriae

658
Q

The uterine tube is a hollow muscular tube. What 4 structures does the uterine tube contain?

A

Fimbriae, infundibulum, ampulla, and isthmus

659
Q

Within the uterine tube, where does fertilization occur?

A

Ampulla

660
Q

What structure in the uterine tube connects to the uterine wall?

A

Isthmus

661
Q

Describe the appearance and general location of the uterus.

A

Pear-shaped organ found tipped over the bladder and being spooned by the rectum.

662
Q

There are 3 stabilizing ligaments of the uterus. Name them.

A

Round ligament, Transverse cervical ligament, and Uterosacral ligament.

663
Q

Where does the round ligament connect?

A

Lateral uterus to the mons pubis by the labia majora.

664
Q

Where does the transverse cervical ligament connect?

A

Base of the uterus to the lateral pelvic wall.

665
Q

Where does the uterosacral ligament connect?

A

Posterior/inferior uterus to the sacrum.

666
Q

What is the body of the uterus made of?

A

Made of the myometrium and the endometrium

667
Q

Describe the structure of the body of the uterus?

A

Myometrium = thick, outer muscle layer
Endometrium = Within, glandular tissue

668
Q

What is shed during menstruation?

A

The glandular tissue of the Endometrium in the uterus.

669
Q

What does the Cervix produce?

A

Produces copious amounts of mucus that change throughout the monthly cycle.

670
Q

How does the mucus from the Cervix change throughout the monthly cycle?

A

Thin and watery during ovulation to allow passage of sperm.
Thick mucus acts as a barrier to stop pathogens from entering the uterus.

671
Q

What is Effacement?

A

The thinning of the cervix as labor begins.

672
Q

What is the dilation of the cervix?

A

Refers to the opening of the cervix so the baby can pass into the birth canal.

673
Q

What is the Vagina?

A

An elastic, muscular tube extending from the cervix to the vestibule.

674
Q

What are the 2 functions of the Vagina?

A

Passage for fluids and then passage for babies

675
Q

What type of environment does the Vagina maintain? What is the purpose of this?

A

The vagina maintains an acidic environment that controls pathogens, such as Lactobacillus, which is a probiotic found in the gut and vagina.

676
Q

When Lactobacillus is out of control in the vagina, what is the result?

A

A yeast infection

677
Q

What is a Hysterectomy?

A

Surgical excision of the uterus and cervix. Sometimes, it can include the removal of the ovaries and uterine tube.

678
Q

What was a popular diagnosis in the Victorian Era?

A

Female Hysteria

679
Q

What system is the development of reproductive organs called?

A

Indifferent Duct System

680
Q

What happens in the 5th week of Indifferent Duct System development?

A

Gonads begin to develop in the 5th week as masses of the urogenital ridge including the Mesonephric duct and the Paramesonephric duct.

681
Q

When do the Mesonephric and Paramesonephric duct begin to develop?

A

During the 5th week

682
Q

During the 6th week of development in the Indifferent Duct System?

A

Cells infiltrate the gonad that will differentiate into either spermatogonia or oogonia.

683
Q

Gonads with spermatogonia develop into what? What is required?

A

Develop into testes.

The presence of the SRY protein is required for the testes to develop.

684
Q

Gonads with oogonia will develop into what?

A

Develop into ovaries.

685
Q

T/F: Individuals with testes retain the Paramesonephric duct.

A

False! Individuals with testes retain the Mesonephric duct, which will turn into the penis and associated structures.

686
Q

T/F: Individuals with ovaries retain the Paramesonephric duct.

A

True! This will turn into the uterus and associated structures.

687
Q

What is Endometriosis caused by?

A

Caused by transported endometrial tissue that creates lesions on the organs of the pelvis and abdomen.

688
Q

T/F: The diagnosis for Endometriosis may take 7-10 years.

A

True! It can take a while for symptoms to appear but also, other diagnoses must be ruled out.

689
Q

What are symptoms of Endometriosis?

A

Life-impacting pain during periods, sexual intercourse, bowel movements and/or urination, chronic pelvic pain, abdominal bloating, nausea, fatigue, and sometimes depression, anxiety, and infertility.

690
Q

What does Endometriosis present as?

A

Presents as lesions on the organs of the pelvis and abdomen.

691
Q

How do we treat Endometriosis?

A

Its aimed at reducing pain and improving quality of life.

Anatomy Lecture + Lab (6 decks)

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