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Anatomy Lecture + Lab > Exam 3 Flashcards > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the lining surrounding the heart called?

A

Pericardium

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2
Q

What is the general location of the heart?

A

It is located in the thorax between the lungs.

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3
Q

What direction do arteries travel?

A

Away/Out of the heart

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4
Q

Where are the arteries traveling out of the heart to?

A

Ascending aorta and pulmonary trunk

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5
Q

What direction do veins travel?

A

Towards/into the heart

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6
Q

What are the main veins traveling into the heart?

A

Superior and inferior vena cava

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7
Q

What is the main purpose of the circulatory system?

A

To pump blood, which contains O2, CO2, nutrients, H20, and waste.

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8
Q

What are 3 things that the circulatory system has a role in?

A

1) Respiration - Oxygen and carbon dioxide exhange
2) Waste elimination of H20, nitrogenous waste, and salts
3) Lymphatic system with interstitial fluid (water balance)

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9
Q

What makes up the pulmonary circuit?

A

Right heart chambers and deoxygenated blood

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10
Q

What makes up the systemic circuit?

A

Left heart chambers and oxygenated blood

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11
Q

How many chambers does the heart have? Name them.

A

4 chambers

Right and left atrium. Right and left ventricle.

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12
Q

What protects the heart in the thorax?

A

The thoracic cage

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13
Q

What is the sternal angle?

A

This is the place in the sternum where the manubrium meets the body.

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14
Q

What rib attaches at the sternal angle?

A

2nd rib

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15
Q

What do the muscles within the thoracic cage allow for?

A

Expansion of the lungs for breathing

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16
Q

Label the sternal notch, sternal angle, and 2nd rib.

A
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17
Q

What is the purpose of the pulmonary circuit?

A

The right side receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs to become oxygenated.

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18
Q

What is the purpose of the systematic circuit?

A

The left side receives oxygenated blood and pumps it throughout the body.

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19
Q

What do the pulmonary arteries do?

A

Carry deoxygenated blood to the lungs.

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20
Q

What are two examples of important arteries in the heart?

A

The aortic artery and the pulmonary arteries.

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21
Q

What branches to pulmonary arteries?

A

Pulmonary trunk

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22
Q

What do the pulmonary veins do?

A

Return oxygenated blood to the heart.

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23
Q

What are examples of important veins in the heart?

A

Superior and inferior vena cava. Pulmonary veins.

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24
Q

T/F: The heart is a midline structure.

A

False! The heart is situated obliquely, about 2/3 to the left, and 1/3 to the right.

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25
Q

Where is the base of the heart located?

A

At the sternal angle

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26
Q

Where is the apex of the heart located?

A

In the 5th intercostal space on the left side

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27
Q

What is the transverse thoracic plane?

A

This is a surface landmark for the heart and is a transverse plane at the sternal angle.

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28
Q

Where do we travel along the clavicle then down to reach the heart?

A

Midclavicularly

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29
Q

Where is the apex of the heart directed?

A

Anteriorly and left

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30
Q

What chamber is at the anterior border of the heart?

A

Right ventricle

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31
Q

What chamber is at the left or lateral border of the heart?

A

Left ventricle

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32
Q

What chamber(s) are located at the superior border of the heart?

A

Right and left atria

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33
Q

What does each atrium have that translates to “ear” in latin?

A

Each atrium has an Auricle.

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34
Q

What exits the heart from the base?

A

Pulmonary trunk and aorta

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35
Q

What is the Coronary Sulcus?

A

A depression between the Atria and Ventricles.

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36
Q

What is the Interventricular Sulcus?

A

A depression between the right and left Ventricles.

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37
Q

What is situs inversus? Why is this bad?

A

The vital organs in the chest and abdomen are on the opposite side of the body from the normal location.

Can be complications with breathing and more prone to infections due to non-functioning cilia.

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38
Q

What is this picture showing?

A

The individual has a heart that is located on the right side instead of the usual, left side.

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39
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

A serous membrane surrounding the heart.

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40
Q

What is a serous membrane?

A

An epithelium + connective tissue that produces serous fluid.

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41
Q

What is the inner layer of the pericardium?

A

The visceral pericardium or epicardium

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42
Q

What is the outer layer of the pericardium?

A

The parietal pericardium

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43
Q

What is the Fibrous pericardium?

A

The layer outside of the parietal pericardium.

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44
Q

T/F: There is a potential space between the parietal and fibrous pericardium.

A

False. There is no potential space between the parietal and fibrous pericardium. They are kind of sealed together.

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45
Q

What is the Pericardial Space/Cavity?

A

A serous fluid-filled space between Visceral and Parietal Pericardium.

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46
Q

What is Cardiac Tamponade?

A

This is when fluid accumulates in the pericardial space between the visceral and parietal pericardium. This prevents the heart chambers from expanding and filling and causes compression of the heart (TRAGIC).

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47
Q

What does Cardiac Tamponade literally mean?

A

Heart Plug

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48
Q

What layer of the pericardium is directly touching the heart?

A

Visceral pericardium or epicardium

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49
Q

What is the purpose of serous fluid in the pericardial space?

A

It acts as a lubricant so the layers of the pericardium do not stick or get damaged from friction.

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50
Q

How does the pericardium develop around the heart?

A

It develops as one continuous layer. Think of the fist in the balloon. The developing heart grows in the cavity of the pericardium (which remains the same size).

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51
Q

What is the Fibrous pericardium?

A

A fascia that is adhered to the parietal pericardium.

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52
Q

What secretes serous fluid?

A

Parietal pericardium

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53
Q

Clinically, what is the fibrous pericardium?

A

The parietal and fibrous pericardium.

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54
Q

How many layers does each chamber wall of the heart consist of? Name them.

A

The walls of each chamber consist of 3 layers:

-Endocardium, myocardium, and epicardium.

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55
Q

What is the endocardium?

A

Endothelial lining consisting of epithelium + subendothelial connective tissue

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56
Q

What is the myocardium?

A

A THICK layer of cardiac muscle

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57
Q

What is the histological appearance of cardiac muscle?

A

Striated, branching, with single, central nuclei

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58
Q

How do cardiac muscle cells communicate?

A

Through a cell junction called a Gap junction or Intercalated discs.

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59
Q

What is the epicardium?

A

The visceral pericardium.

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60
Q

Surrounding the heart is a layer consisting of two parts. Name those parts.

A

Parietal pericardium and Fibrous pericardium

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61
Q

Where is the pericardial space located?

A

Between the epicardium/visceral pericardium and parietal pericardium.

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62
Q

How does the heart develop?

A

Similar to the neural tube, it starts as a linear tube then bends and folds giving us atria and ventricles.

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63
Q

What serves as the filling chambers?

A

Atria

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64
Q

What serves as the pumping chambers?

A

Ventricles

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65
Q

Describe what the right atrium is receiving and from what.

A

Receives deoxygenated blood from the superior and inferior Vena cava

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66
Q

Describe what the left atrium is receiving and from what.

A

Receives oxygenated blood from the Pulmonary veins

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67
Q

What separates the right and left atrium?

A

Interatrial Septum

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68
Q

Describe the right ventricle.

A

Pumps blood through the pulmonary arteries to the lungs

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69
Q

Describe the left ventricle.

A

Pumps blood through the Aorta to the body.

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70
Q

Which ventricle has a thicker myocardium? Why?

A

The left ventricle is much thicker than the right because it is pumping blood to the whole body.

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71
Q

What separates the right and left ventricles?

A

The interventricular septum

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72
Q

What is the posterior half of the right atrium called? What is it called during embryonic development?

A

Sinus venarum

During embryonic development, sinus venosus

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73
Q

What is the posterior half of the right atrium composed of?

A

A smooth texture composed of endocardium and myocardium.

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74
Q

What do the superior and inferior vena cava lead into?

A

Right atrium

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75
Q

Where are the SinoAtrial (SA) node and AtrioVentricular (Av) node located?

A

Right atrium

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76
Q

Where are the coronary sinus, opening to the coronary sinus, and fossa ovalis found?

A

Right atrium

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77
Q

What type of texture covers the anterior half of the right atrium?

A

A texture called Pectinate muscle

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78
Q

What separates the smooth wall from the pectinate muscle?

A

Crista Terminalis

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79
Q

What is another name for the Right Auricle? What type of texture does it have?

A

The right auricle is also called the atrial appendage.

It has Pectinate muscle.

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80
Q

Where does the right ventricle pump blood to?

A

To the pulmonary trunk and then into the lungs.

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81
Q

What are Trabeculae Carnae?

A

These are the texture of the ventricle walls which look like beams of meat.

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82
Q

What is the purpose of Trabeculae Carnae?

A

It provides support and structure of the ventricular walls.

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83
Q

What is the Conus Arteriosis/Infundibulum?

A

A cone-shaped ventricle which conducts blood out of the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.

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84
Q

Name the papillary muscles of the right ventricle. What are these composed of?

A

Anterior, posterior, and septal (papilla = “nipple”).

These are composed of myocardium.

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85
Q

What occurs when papillary muscles of the right ventricle contract?

A

They tighten the cusps of the valves.

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86
Q

What are Chordae Tendinae (“tendinous cords”)?

A

They connect the papillary muscles to the cusps of the valves.

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87
Q

Describe the location of the moderator band.

A

Extends from the interventricular septum to the anterior papillary muscle.

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88
Q

What does the moderator band contain and do?

A

Contains nerve fibers (“Purkinje” fibers) which carry electrical impulses for contraction of the heart from the interventricular septum to the anterior papillary muscle.

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89
Q

What is the definition of a trunk in the heart?

A

An artery that branches into two other arteries.

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90
Q

What does the trachea do?

A

Carries oxygen towards the lungs and carbon dioxide away.

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91
Q

What is systole?

A

This is when the ventricles are contracting and valves close.

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92
Q

In terms of the apex and artery, in what direction does contraction occur?

A

From the apex up into the artery.

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93
Q

What describes contraction action?

A

Muscle fiber arrangement describes contraction action.

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94
Q

What serves as an overflow space for extra blood in the right atrium?

A

The right auricle (pectinate)

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95
Q

Which produces a stronger contraction: smooth or pectinate?

A

Both make up the atrial wall but Pectinate is stronger

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96
Q

What does the opening of the coronary sinus allow for?

A

Allows for deoxygenated blood to be returned to the right atrium.

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97
Q

Describe the left atrium.

A

A smooth-walled chamber that receives the four Pulmonary veins traveling from the lungs.

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98
Q

T/F: From inside the left atrium, it is NOT possible to see the left side of the Fossa Ovale.

A

False! From the inside of the left atrium, it is possible to see the left side of the Fossa Ovale.

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99
Q

What is another name for the Left Auricle? What is it lined by?

A

Left atrial appendage, which is lined by Pectinate muscle.

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100
Q

What chamber has the thickest myocardium? What does this mean then?

A

Left ventricle, which means it can pump the strongest then.

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101
Q

What papillary muscles are located in the left atrium?

A

Anterior and posterior

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102
Q

T/F: Trabeculae carnae and chordae tendinae are structures within the left ventricle.

A

True!

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103
Q

What valve separates the right atrium and right ventricle?

A

Tricuspid Valve

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104
Q

What valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle?

A

Bicuspid or Mitral Valve

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105
Q

What do atrioventricular valves separate?

A

Atrium from ventricles

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106
Q

What do semilunar valves separate?

A

Ventricles from aorta or pulmonary trunk.

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107
Q

What separates the left ventricle from the aorta?

A

Aortic Semilunar valve

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108
Q

What separates the right ventricle from the pulmonary trunk?

A

Pulmonary Semilunar valve

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109
Q

label

A
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110
Q

Label the visceral and parietal pericardium

A
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111
Q

Label

A
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112
Q

Label

A
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113
Q

Label

A
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114
Q

Label

A
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115
Q

Label

A
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116
Q

Label

A
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117
Q

Does the fetus require oxygenated blood in its lungs? Why?

A

No! This is because the fetus receives oxygenated blood from the mother, so it does not require oxygenated blood in its lungs.

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118
Q

What does the umbilical vein do?

A

Carries oxygenated blood from placenta to heart.

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119
Q

What does the umbilical artery do?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood from heart to placenta.

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120
Q

How do we avoid oxygenated blood from entering the placenta and going to the lungs?

A

The foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus help to divert oxygenated blood from going to the lungs.

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121
Q

What is Foramen ovale?

A

A hole to enable blood to travel directly from the right to left atrium.

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122
Q

After birth, what happens to foramen ovale?

A

This hole closes shortly after birth to become fossa ovalis.

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123
Q

What is Ductus arteriosus?

A

A duct which carries blood from the left pulmonary artery to the aorta.

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124
Q

What does Ductus arteriosus do?

A

This duct functions to divert oxygenated blood out of the left pulmonary artery to the aorta and tissues of the body.

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125
Q

What is Atrial Septal Defect (ASD), also known as Patent Foramen Ovale?

A

In rare cases, a malformed Foramen Ovale remains patent/open after birth.

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126
Q

Are individuals with Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) initially symptomatic?

A

Initially, individuals are non-symptomatic for many decades.

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127
Q

What causes individuals with Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) to become symptomatic?

A

After decades of growth, the right atrium is able to generate more pressure than the left atrium. This then becomes symptomatic.

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128
Q

Describe how Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) leads to Hypoxia.

A

Deoxygenated blood will flow from the right atrium into the left atrium. This deoxygenated blood flows into the aorta and to all tissues of the body, leading to decreased blood oxygen concentration. Individuals will be constantly tired.

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129
Q

During embryonic development, what separates the right and left ventricles?

A

A septum/wall called the Interventricular Septum. This septum grows from the myocardium to form a wall between the ventricles.

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130
Q

What is Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)? What is this condition sometimes called?

A

In rare cases, the interventricular septum is not a complete wall separating the ventricles.

This defect is sometimes called an infant born with a hole in the heart.

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131
Q

What can aid with Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?

A

There are Amplatzer closure devices that can help to close and separate the ventricles.

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132
Q

Generally speaking, what is a stroke?

A

This is when parts of the brain are not getting enough Oxygen.

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133
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

A blood clot

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134
Q

What is the blood supply to the myocardium?

A

Coronary Arteries are the blood supply to the myocardium.

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135
Q

Where are the openings in the coronary arteries?

A

In the Aorta, just distal to the Aortic Semilunar valve.

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136
Q

When and where does blood enter the Coronary Arteries from?

A

Blood enters the Coronary Arteries from the Aorta when the aortic semilunar valves are closed and the left ventricle is relaxing (diastole) and filling.

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137
Q

What does the Left coronary artery branch into?

A

Anterior Interventricular Artery, Circumflex artery, and the Left marginal arteries (branches of the Circumflex artery).

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138
Q

What is another name for the Anterior Interventricular Artery?

A

Left Anterior Descending artery (LAD).

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139
Q

What does the Right coronary artery branch into?

A

Right Marginal Artery and Posterior Interventricular Artery.

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140
Q

What is Arteriosclerosis?

A

This is the hardening of the arteries in which plaques form in the arterial wall.

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141
Q

What is Occlusion?

A

Blockage of Coronary Arteries

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142
Q

What leads to the formation of a thrombus?

A

Rupture or damage of the endothelium.

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143
Q

What can a thrombus cause?

A

Coronary artery occlusion, blockage, and heart attack.

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144
Q

What is Myocardial Infarction?

A

This is heart muscle cell-death, also known as a heart attack.

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145
Q

What do cardiac veins do?

A

These are the vessels that return deoxygenated blood from the myocardium to the Right Atrium.

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146
Q

What are the 3 systems that get blood from the myocardium to the right atrium?

A

1) Drain from the right ventricle directly into the right atrium (Anterior Cardiac Veins)
2) Veins that travel with the Coronary Arteries (Cardiac veins and the Coronary sinus)
3) The Microscopic or Smallest cardiac veins

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147
Q

What do Anterior Cardiac veins do?

A

Drain from right ventricle into the right atrium.

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148
Q

What do the cardiac veins do? What are the names of them?

A

Cardiac veins course with the Coronary arteries and then empty into the coronary sinus.

These are called the Great, Middle, and Small cardiac veins.

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149
Q

What does the Great Cardiac Vein become?

A

It becomes the Coronary sinus, which empties into the Right Atrium.

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150
Q

Where do the Middle and Small Cardiac Veins empty into?

A

The Coronary Sinus.

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151
Q

What cardiac veins do not empty into the coronary sinus?

A

Only the anterior cardiac and smallest or microscopic cardiac veins do not empty into the coronary sinus.

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152
Q

What do the Microscopic or Smallest cardiac veins do?

A

They carry deoxygenated deoxygenated blood from the myocardium directly into the Lumen of the Chambers of the Heart.

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153
Q

What are the Lumen Chambers of the Heart?

A

The right atrium and right ventricle.

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154
Q

What are Running Mates?

A

Arteries and veins that run together.

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155
Q

Who is the Great Cardiac Vein’s running mate?

A

It runs alongside the Anterior Interventricular artery

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156
Q

Who is the Middle Cardiac Vein’s running mate?

A

It runs alongside the Posterior Interventricular artery.

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157
Q

What is the Cardiac Skeleton?

A

A dense connective tissue that encircles the 4 valves (atrioventricular + semilunar).

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158
Q

List 3 functions of the Cardiac Skeleton.

A

1) Anchor the myocardium together
2) Support and reinforce the valves of the heart
3) Block impulses from traveling from the atria to ventricles

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159
Q

What are the importance of Intercalated discs (a type of gap junction)?

A

They spread the impulse for contraction from one myocardial cell to another.

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160
Q

Where is the Sinoatrial (SA) node located?

A

In the roof of the right atrium

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161
Q

Where is the Atrioventricular node (AV) located?

A

Base of the right atrium

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162
Q

Describe impulse pathway starting at SA node and ending at AV node.

A

Impulses for contraction of the heart are spread from SA node through the atrial myocardium and into the AV node.

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163
Q

What prevents the spread of impulse from traveling between the AV node to the Ventricles?

A

Cardiac Skeleton

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164
Q

Describe impulse pathway from AV node to apex of the ventricles.

A

Impulses for contraction are spread from AV node to bundle branches to the apex of the ventricles.

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165
Q

Where are bundle branches located?

A

In the Interventricular Septum

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166
Q

What do Purkinje fibers do?

A

They carry impulses from bundle branches in the septum to the papillary muscles and then to the ventricular myocardium.

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167
Q

What is the right marginal?

A

Contains arteries to the right side of the heart.

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168
Q

What is the left marginal?

A

Contains arteries to the left side of the heart.

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169
Q

What do we mean when we say circumflex?

A

Flexes around the heart.

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170
Q

Coronary arteries are ____-epicardial. What does this mean?

A

Coronary arteries are sub-epicardial, meaning they are covered by epicardium.

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171
Q

Label

A
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172
Q

Label

A
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173
Q

Label

A
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174
Q

Label

A
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175
Q

Label

A
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176
Q

Label

A
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177
Q

During the cardiac cycle, the heart functions as a ______.

A

pump

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178
Q

What is the purpose of the two atria contracting together?

A

This pushes blood into the ventricles.

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179
Q

After the atria contract, what is the purpose of the two ventricles contracting?

A

This pushes blood into the pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries.

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180
Q

Define systole.

A

Contraction of myocardium (chamber pumps).

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181
Q

Define diastole.

A

Relaxation of myocardium (chamber fills).

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182
Q

“Leaky bundle of nerves that depolarizes on its own rate.”

What is this?

A

SA node

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183
Q

What is the “LUB” sound?

A

Systole causes the AV valves to slam shut to prevent backflow of blood from the ventricles back into the atria.

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184
Q

What is the “DUB” sound?

A

Diastole causes the Semilunar valves to shut to prevent the backflow from the arteries back into the ventricles.

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185
Q

Describe what would happen if we had occlusion of the Anterior Interventricular artery.

A

There is now a loss of blood flow to Bundle branches (Interventricular septum), which leads to infarction. This means there is then a loss of impulses to the ventricular myocardium.

Impulse for contraction cannot travel from AV node to the Ventricular myocardium.

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186
Q

How does a Pacemaker work?

A

The pacemaker generates the impulse for contraction. It is delivered by an electrode to the Ventricular myocardium.

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187
Q

What node provides “pacemaker” activity?

A

SinoAtrial (SA) node

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188
Q

In addition to the SA node “pacemaker” activity, what other innervation is there?

A

The heart has neuronal innervation from the brain

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189
Q

Autonomic Nervous System Autonomic innervation of the heart passes mainly through the ___________ ____________.

A

cardiac plexus

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190
Q

Why is a defibrillator used? What can it not do?

A

Stops electrical activity, then starts electrical activity so there is normal sized rhythm. This allows the heart to go back to normal.

It cannot restart a stopped heart. We can only defibrillate a fibrillating heart.

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191
Q

Where are sympathetic nerves derived from?

A

Thoracic and Lumbar spinal cord segments.

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192
Q

In regards to the heart, what do the sympathetic nerves (T1-L2) do?

A

Increase heart-rate (rate of contractions). SA and AV node depolarize faster.

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193
Q

Where are parasympathetic nerves derived from?

A

Cranial and Sacral spinal cord segments.

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194
Q

In regards to the heart, what do the parasympathetic nerves do?

A

Decrease the heart rate (i.e. the Vagus nerve). SA and AV node depolarize slower.

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195
Q

What is the Cardiac Plexus?

A

All sympathetic and parasympathetic (autonomic) nerves to the Heart.

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196
Q

Describe the sequence of events for Sympathetic “fight or flight” response.

A

1) Receptors detect low blood pressure and/or high carbon dioxide concentrations.
2) Centers in medulla oblongata send signals via sympathetic nerves to the SA and AV nodes in the heart.
3) The SA and AV nodes create impulses that are faster and stronger to increase heart rate.

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197
Q

Describe the sequence of events for Parasympathetic “rest and digest” response.

A

1) Receptors detect high blood pressure and/or low carbon dioxide concentrations.
2) Centers in medulla oblongata send signals via parasympathetic nerve (Vagus) to the SA and AV nodes in the heart.
3) The SA and AV nodes create impulses that are slower and weaker to decrease heart rate.

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198
Q

What effect does vasoconstriction have on blood pressure?

A

Increases

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199
Q

What effect does vasodilation have on blood pressure?

A

Decreases

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200
Q

“Ventricular contraction (atrial relaxation), pump blood to lungs, exchange carbon dioxide for oxygen.”

What is this?

A

Systole

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201
Q

“Ventricular relaxation (atrial contraction) and return of oxygen to the heart.”

What is this?

A

Diastole

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202
Q

Where does the heart pump blood through?

A

Through vessels

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203
Q

Describe the pressure in arteries versus capillaries and veins.

A

Arteries: High pressure

Capillaries and Veins: Low pressure

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204
Q

Arterioles serve to ______________ pressure.

A

reduce

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205
Q

When is pressure high?

A

During systole

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206
Q

When is pressure low?

A

During diastole

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207
Q

How many layers make up blood vessel walls?

A

There are 3 layers or Tunics of tissue that make up the tubule walls.

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208
Q

Name the 3 Tunics of tissue.

A

Tunica intima (innermost), Tunica media (middle), and Tunica externa or adventitia (outermost).

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209
Q

What is Tunica intima?

A

This is the innermost layer comprised of a simple squamous (endothelium) layer continuous with the lining of the heart.

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210
Q

What does the internal elastic lamina do?

A

Provides ability to expand and recoil at the innermost layer.

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211
Q

What is the Tunica media?

A

This is the middle layer which is smooth muscle under autonomic innervation.

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212
Q

What is the Tunica externa or adventitia?

A

This is the outermost layer of connective tissue.

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213
Q

What does the external elastic lamina do?

A

Provides ability to expand and recoil at the outermost layer.

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214
Q

A capillary has the diameter of a single ______ ____________ _____.

A

Red Blood Cell

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215
Q

What is the structural definition of an artery?

A

A capillary (endothelium + sub-endothelial) with 2 or more layers. Thus, 3 tunics around a lumen make up an artery.

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216
Q

Structurally, how is a capillary different from an artery?

A

A capillary consists of only endothelium (simple squamous epithelia + sub-endothelial).

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217
Q

What are the 3 types of capillaries?

A

Continuous, fenestrated, and sinusoidal.

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218
Q

Describe Continuous Capillaries.

A

Permeable to gases (oxygen and carbon dioxide) and water.

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219
Q

Describe Fenestrated Capillaries.

A

Permeable to molecules and peptides (i.e. hormones).

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220
Q

Describe Sinusoidal Capillaries.

A

Permeable to proteins and cells, found in liver and spleen.

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221
Q

Name the first, second, and third segment of the aortic artery or aorta.

A

Ascending aorta is the first segment.

Arch is the second segment.

Descending aorta is the third segment.

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222
Q

After exiting the thorax, what does the descending aorta become?

A

The abdominal aorta

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223
Q

There are __ branches off of the Arch of the aorta. Name them.

A

3

Braciocephalic trunk, left common carotid artery, and left subclavian artery.

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224
Q

A _______ is an artery before it branches.

A

trunk

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225
Q

What does the brachiocephalic trunk branch into?

A

The right subclavian artery and the right common carotid artery, which supplies the head.

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226
Q

When we describe an artery as “common”, what does this mean?

A

It means that the artery will bifuracte.

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227
Q

Abdominal Aorta will bifurcate to form _____ & ______ ____________ __________ ______________

A

left & right Common iliac arteries.

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228
Q

A Common iliac artery will bifurcate to form the __________ & ___________ _________.

A

internal & external iliac.

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229
Q

Once the subclavian artery passes the first rib, what does it become?

A

Axillary (armpit) artery

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230
Q

Once the axillary artery passes the Teres major muscle, what does it become?

A

Brachial artery

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231
Q

When does the subclavian artery become the axillary artery?

A

Once it passes the first rib

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232
Q

When does the axillary artery become the brachial artery?

A

Once it passes the Teres major muscle

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233
Q

The ________ brachial artery is a branch off of the brachial artery. Describe its location and role.

A

The DEEP brachial artery is a branch off of the brachial artery.

It runs deep or posterior to the Humerus to supply Triceps Brachii muscles.

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234
Q

What does the brachial artery split to become?

A

Radial and ulnar arteries

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235
Q

What is the common interosseous artery?

A

A branch off of the ulnar artery.

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236
Q

What forms the Palmar Arches (arch-shaped arteries)?

A

They are formed from the radial and ulnar arteries which anastomose to form collateral circulation of forearm and hand.

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237
Q

Arteries branching from the brachial artery are called _____________ arteries.

A

collateral

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238
Q

What are recurrent arteries?

A

Arteries branching from the radial or ulnar arteries.

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239
Q

What forms collateral circulation?

A

Collateral and recurrent arteries that anastomose.

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240
Q

What would happen if we had an occlusion of the brachial artery in the elbow?

A

Collateral circulation around the elbow can be achieved and blood will continue to reach the forearm.

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241
Q

What does the Common Carotid artery bifurcate to form?

A

Internal and External carotid arteries.

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242
Q

T/F: The External Carotid has a single branch to supply the external head.

A

False! The External Carotid has many branches to supply the external head.

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243
Q

Where does the Internal Carotid go and why?

A

Enters the cranium to supply the anterior and middle of cerebral hemispheres.

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244
Q

“A branch off of the subclavian artery”

What is this?

A

The Vertebral Artery

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245
Q

What does the Vertebral Artery do?

A

Supplies the posterior cerebral hemisphere.

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246
Q

Where does the Vertebral Artery travel through?

A

Travels through transverse foramina of cervical vertebrae.

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247
Q

What is the main arterial flow of the Circle of Willis (Cerebral Arterial Circle)?

A

Internal carotid artery and Vertebral artery.

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248
Q

Describe the pathway of the internal carotid artery. What does it do at the end?

A

Carotid canal –> foramen lacerum –> middle cranial fossa.

Arteries supply the anterior and middle cerebral hemispheres.

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249
Q

Describe the pathway of the Vertebral Artery. What does it do at the end?

A

Transverse foramina –> Foramen magnum –> posterior cranial fossa.

Artery supplies posterior cerebral hemisphere.

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250
Q

Describe the pathway of the Right and Left Vertebral arteries.

A

Basilar artery –> R & L posterior cerebral arteries

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251
Q

Describe the pathway of the Anterior Cerebral artery

A

Anterior Cerebral –> Anterior Communicating –> Anterior Cerebral

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252
Q

Describe the pathway of the Middle Cerebral artery.

A

Middle Cerebral –> Posterior Communicating –> Posterior Cerebral

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253
Q

What is the purpose of a Cerebral circle?

A

So that there is collateral circulation.

This means that there is alternate blood flow in the case of an occluded artery.

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254
Q

What would happen in the case of an occluded Internal Carotid Artery?

A

Blood flow through Posterior Cerebral and Posterior Communicating Arteries
and/or
Anterior Cerebral and Anterior Communicating Arteries.

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255
Q

What would happen in the event of an occluded Basilar Artery?

A

Blood flow through Middle Cerebral and Posterior Communicating Arteries.

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256
Q

Complete the sequence:
Arch of Aorta –> ____________ –> Right Common Carotid Artery

A

Arch of Aorta –> brachioencephalic trunk –> Right Common Carotid Artery

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257
Q

Complete the sequence:
Vertebral artery –> ___________________ –> Posterior cerebral artery

A

Basilar artery

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258
Q

What does the Abdominal Aorta bifurcate into?

A

Forms the right and left Common Iliac arteries

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259
Q

What do the Common Iliac arteries bifurcate into?

A

Bifurcate in the pelvis to form the internal and external iliac arteries.

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260
Q

What does the External iliac artery become and at where?

A

It passes under the Inguinal Ligament to become the Femoral artery.

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261
Q

What does the femoral artery give off a branch to? Where does this travel and why?

A

It branches off to form the Deep femoral artery.

This travels deep or posterior to the femur to supply the hamstring muscles.

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262
Q

What does the Femoral artery become?

A

Popliteal artery (behind the knee).

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263
Q

Where is the Popliteal artery location?

A

It passes from anterior to posterior side of the thigh through Adductor Hiatus (hole in the adductor muscle).

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264
Q

In the case of an occlusion of the Popliteal artery, can blood still reach the leg?

A

Yes, collateral circulation around the knee can be achieved and blood will continue to reach the leg.

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265
Q

What do the Genicular (knee) arteries do?

A

They provide collateral circulation between the Femoral artery and Anterior and Posterior Tibial arteries.

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266
Q

What does the Popliteal artery bifurcate to form?

A

Anterior and Posterior Tibial arteries.

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267
Q

What does the Posterior Tibial artery supply?

A

Supplies the posterior compartment of the leg (flexor muscles of the foot).

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268
Q

What does the Posterior Tibial artery branch off into?

A

Fibular artery and Plantar arteries

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269
Q

What does the Fibular artery supply?

A

Supplies the lateral compartment of the leg (Fibularis longus and brevis muscles).

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270
Q

What do the Plantar arteries supply?

A

Supplies the plantar muscles of the foot.

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271
Q

What does the Anterior Tibial artery supply?

A

Supples the anterior compartment of the leg (extensor muscles of the foot).

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272
Q

What does the Anterior Tibial become? Where does it become this?

A

Becomes the Dorsalis Pedis artery to supply the dorsum of the foot.

It becomes this at an imaginary line passing from medial to lateral malleolus.

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273
Q

What does the Dorsalis Pedis artery terminate as?

A

The Arcuate artery

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274
Q

T/F: Dorsal pedis is super deep in the foot.

A

False! It is superficial and we can get a pedal pulse here.

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275
Q

What would happen if we had an occlusion of the Anterior or Posterior tibial artery? Can blood still reach the foot?

A

Collateral circulation around the ankle and food can be achieved. The Arcuate artery of the Anterior tibial artery cross-connecting with the Plantar arteries of the Posterior Tibial artery can provide collateral supply to the foot.

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276
Q

How does the external iliac artery become the femoral artery?

A

Passes under the inguinal ligament.

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277
Q

If I took a pedal pulse, what artery do I need to find?

A

Dorsal pedis artery

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278
Q

What is the aorta in the thorax called?

A

Descending/Thoracic aorta

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279
Q

What does the thoracic aorta give off?

A

Posterior intercostal arteries

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280
Q

T/F: Internal thoracic arteries are present on each side of the sternum.

A

True!

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281
Q

What do internal thoracic arteries branch off of?

A

Subclavian arteries

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282
Q

What do internal thoracic arteries supply?

A

Supplies the respiratory diaphragm.

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283
Q

What do internal thoracic arteries give off?

A

Anterior intercostal arteries

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284
Q

What do Anterior and Posterior intercostal arteries supply?

A

Intercostal muscles

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285
Q

What would happen if we had an occlusion of the Anterior or Posterior Intercostal artery?

A

Collateral circulation to intercostal muscles can be achieved because the Anterior and Posterior intercostal arteries anastomose (cross-connect).

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286
Q

What is the aorta in the abdomen called?

A

Abdominal Aorta

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287
Q

What does the Abdominal Aorta bifurcate to form?

A

Left and Right Common iliac arteries

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288
Q

There are __ major branches off of the ___________ aorta to organs of digestion.

Are these arteries paired?

A

3, abdominal

These are arteries are unpaired!

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289
Q

Name the 3 major branches off of the abdominal aorta to organs of digestion.

A

Celiac trunk - to liver, stomach and spleen

Superior mesenteric artery - to small and first part of large intestine

Inferior mesenteric artery - to second part of colon and rectum

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290
Q

What acts as the arterial supply to the kidneys?

A

RENAL ARTERIES WOOOOOOHOOOOOOO

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291
Q

What supplies the gonads (ovaries and testicles)?

A

Gonadal arteries

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292
Q

T/F: The renal and gonadal arteries branch off of the aorta in pairs.

A

Very true!

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293
Q

What do the Common iliac arteries bifurcate to form?

A

External and internal iliac arteries

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294
Q

Where does the external iliac artery pass under and what does it then become?

A

Passes under the inguinal ligament and becomes the femoral artery

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295
Q

Name the organs in the pelvis that the internal iliac artery supplies.

A

Bladder, uterus, vagina, rectum, and gluteal muscles

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296
Q

What does the internal iliac artery give off branches to produce?

A

Superior and inferior gluteal arteries.

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297
Q

Where do the names for Superior and Inferior gluteal arteries come from?

A

Their position relative to the Piriformis muscle.

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298
Q

What do the Superior and Inferior Gluteal arteries run with?

A

Run with the Superior and Inferior Gluteal nerves.

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299
Q

What does the Superior Gluteal artery supply?

A

Supplies the Gluteus Medius, Minimus, and Tensor Fascia Lata muscles

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300
Q

What does the Inferior Gluteal artery supply?

A

Supplies the Gluteus Maximus muscle

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301
Q

T/F: The Superior and Inferior Gluteal arteries and nerves follow the same patterns.

A

True!

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302
Q

Muscles superior to the Piriformis muscle are supplied by __________ ___________ ____________ and muscles inferior are supplied by _____________ _______________ ____________.

A

Superior Gluteal artery, Inferior Gluteal artery.

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303
Q

Brachiocephalic –> _________________ –> axillary artery

A

subclavian

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304
Q

Vertebral artery –> _________________ –> posterior cerebral artery

A

Basilar

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305
Q

Left subclavian artery –> _______________ –> brachial artery

A

Left axillary

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306
Q

Internal carotid artery –> _________________ –> anterior communicating artery

A

Anterior cerebal

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307
Q

Abdominal aorta –> _________________ –> external iliac artery

A

Common iliac

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308
Q

Femoral artery –> _________________ –> anterior tibial artery

A

Popliteal

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309
Q

External iliac artery –> _________________ –> popliteal artery

A

Femoral

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310
Q

Popliteal artery –> _________________ –> fibular artery

A

Posterior tibial

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311
Q

Brachiocephalic –> _________________ –> internal carotid artery

A

Right common carotid

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312
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the external head?

A

External carotid artery

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313
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the anterior and middle cerebral hemispheres?

A

Internal carotid artery

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314
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the posterior cerebral hemisphere?

A

Vertebral artery

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315
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the Triceps Brachii muscle?

A

Deep brachial artery

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316
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Deep femoral artery

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317
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the fibularis longus and brevis?

A

Fibular artery

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318
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the plantar foot?

A

Plantar arteries

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319
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the dorsum of the foot?

A

Dorsalis Pedis and Arcuate arteries

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320
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Anterior Tibial artery

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321
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the Intercostal muscles?

A

Anterior and Posterior intercostal arteries

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322
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the respiratory diaphragm?

A

Internal thoracic artery

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323
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the bladder, uterus, vagina, and rectum?

A

Internal iliac artery

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324
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the Gluteus Medius, Minimus, and Tensor Fascia Lata?

A

Superior Gluteal artery

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325
Q

What is the primary arterial supply to the Gluteus Maximus?

A

Inferior Gluteal artery

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326
Q

Generally speaking, where does a vein begin and as what?

A

A vein begins distal to a capillary as a venule.

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327
Q

Generally speaking, what do veins do?

A

Return blood from tissues and organs back to the heart.

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328
Q

T/F: The venous return is a High Pressure system.

A

False! It is a low pressure system.

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329
Q

Veins carry blood from ____________ towards the __________.

A

capillaries, heart

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330
Q

How many layers are veins composed of? Name them.

A

3:
Tunica Intima
Tunica Media
Tunica Externa

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331
Q

Which do veins have: internal or external elastic lamina?

A

NEITHER

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332
Q

T/F: Veins have a thick tunica media and a thin tunica externa.

A

False! Veins have a very thin tunica media and a thick tunica externa.

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333
Q

What is the purpose of valves in veins?

A

They prevent the backflow of blood due to low pressure in the vessel.

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334
Q

When the veins are moving blood towards the heart, what force are they working against?

A

GRAVITY!

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335
Q

_____________ muscles pump blood through __________.

A

Skeletal, veins

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336
Q

What do deep veins travel with? Where do they get their name?

A

Travel with arteries and have the same name.

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337
Q

Where do superficial veins travel? What accompanies them?

A

Travel in hypodermis.

They are losers (too surface-level) and have no accompanying arteries.

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338
Q

What comes together at the confluence of sinuses?

A

Superior and inferior sagittal sinus, straight sinus, and occipital sinus form the confluence of sinuses.

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339
Q

What drains the confluence of sinuses?

A

Transverse sinus

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340
Q

What does the transverse sinus become?

A

Becomes the sigmoid sinus, which exits the cranium through the jugular foramen.

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341
Q

What does the sigmoid sinus pass through the jugular foramen to become?

A

Becomes the internal jugular vein

342
Q

What forms the Brachiocephalic vein?

A

Internal Jugular vein + Subclavian vein

343
Q

The Right and Left Brachiocephalic veins join together to become what?

A

The Superior Vena Cava (SVC).

344
Q

T/F: Similar to arteries, there are both deep and superficial veins.

A

False! Arteries are just deep. Veins are both deep and superficial.

345
Q

Where do external veins reside?

A

In the Superficial fascia or Hypodermis

346
Q

T/F: The External Jugular Vein is Deep.

A

False! It is superficial and in the Hypodermis.

347
Q

A surgeon needs to insert a pacemaker into the heart. She makes an incision under the clavicle and introduced the lead into the subclavian veins. Describe the pathway to get to the heart.

A

Subclavian vein –> brachiocephalic vein –> superior vena cava –> right atrium

348
Q

The _____ veins in the extremities run with the ___________ and have the ______ name.

A

deep, arteries, same.

349
Q

The deep veins in the extremities run with the arteries and have the same name. Trace the palmar arches back to the subclavian.

A

Palmar arches –> Radial & Ulnar –> Brachial –> Axillary –> Subclavian

350
Q

What drains the muscles of the posterior compartment of the arm?

A

Deep Brachial vein

351
Q

What does the Basilic vein empty into?

A

The brachial vein

352
Q

What forms the axillary vein?

A

The Basilic + Brachial vein

353
Q

What does the Cephalic vein empty into?

A

The axillary vein

354
Q

What are the superficial veins of the upper extremity?

A

Basilic and Cephalic

355
Q

What are the deep veins in the lower extremity?

A

Dorsalis pedis, Anterior Tibial, Plantar , Posterior Tibial, Fibular, and Deep Femoral.

356
Q

What drains the dorsum of the foot?

A

Dorsalis pedis vein

357
Q

What drains the anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Anterior Tibial vein

358
Q

What drains the plantar foot?

A

Plantar veins

359
Q

What drains the posterior compartments of the leg?

A

Posterior tibial veins

360
Q

What drains the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

Fibular veins

361
Q

What drains the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Deep femoral vein

362
Q

Describe the pathway of the Great Saphenous vein.

A

Begins superior to the medial malleolus, ascends the medial side of the leg and thigh and empties into the Femoral vein.

363
Q

Describe the pathway of the Small Saphenous vein.

A

Beings inferior to the lateral malleolus, ascends up into the posterior side of the leg and empties into the Popliteal vein.

364
Q

What drains the arm and head into the heart?

A

Superior Vena Cava

365
Q

What drains the abdomen and lower extremity into the heart?

A

Inferior Vena Cava

366
Q

Where does deoxygenated blood from the anterior intercostal muscles get drained into?

A

Into the anterior intercostal veins.

367
Q

Where does deoxygenated blood from the respiratory diaphragm drain into?

A

Into the internal thoracic vein.

368
Q

Where do anterior intercostal veins drain into?

A

The internal thoracic vein.

369
Q

Where does the internal thoracic vein drain into?

A

Into the subclavian vein

370
Q

Where is deoxygenated blood from the intercostal muscles of the posterior thoracic wall drained into?

A

Into the Posterior Intercostal veins

371
Q

What do the Posterior Intercostal veins drain into?

A

Into the Azygos system of veins.

372
Q

What does the Azygos system of veins do?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood from the intercostal veins into the Superior Vena Cava.

373
Q

What is on the right side of the Azygos system of veins? What about the left side?

A

Right side = Azygos vein

Left side = Accessor Hemiazygos and Hemiazygos veins

374
Q

What does the Femoral vein of the thigh become? Where is this located?

A

Becomes the External iliac vein in the pelvis.

375
Q

What do the internal and external iliac veins from the pelvis form?

A

The Common iliac veins

376
Q

What do the Common Iliac Veins combine to form?

A

The Inferior Vena Cava

377
Q

What does the Renal vein do?

A

Carries deoxygenated blood from the kidney and empties into the IVC.

378
Q

Which renal vein is longer: left or right? Why?

A

The Left Renal Vein is much longer than the Right because it travels over the Abdominal Aorta.

Right Renal Vein is short.

379
Q

What do the Gonadal veins do?

A

Carry deoxygenated blood from the gonads (ovaries and testicles).

380
Q

Describe the pathway of veins of the digestive system.

A

Digestive organs –> Hepatic Portal Vein –> Liver

381
Q

Why is the venous blood from the digestive organs important?

A

It carries nutrients that must go to the liver via the Hepatic Portal Vein for metabolism and storage.

382
Q

T/F: The veins of the Digestive organs empty into the inferior vena cava.

A

False! They do NOT empty into the inferior vena cava.

383
Q

The _____ draining the organs of digestion share the same names as the _________________.

A

veins, arteries

384
Q

Where do the Superior and Inferior Mesenteric veins drain into?

A

The intestines

385
Q

What does the Splenic vein do?

A

Drains the spleen

386
Q

Veins that drain into the Inferior Vena Cava are part of the __________ _________ _______________.

A

Caval Venous Drainage

387
Q

What are some examples veins drain into the Inferior Vena Cava?

A

Renal veins, Gonadal veins, and Internal Iliac veins.

388
Q

Veins that drain organs of digestion and empty into the Hepatic Portal vein are part of the ___________ _____________ _____________.

A

Portal Venous Drainage.

389
Q

What are some examples of veins that drain organs of digestion and empty into the Hepatic Portal vein?

A

Intestines, Spleen, and Stomach.

390
Q

What does the word “Portal” refer to?

A

An atypical circulatory pathway (NOT artery - capillary - vein).

391
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Posterior tibial –> ________________ –> femoral.

A

Popliteal

392
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Popliteal –> ________________ –> external iliac.

A

Femoral

393
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Inferior mesenteric –> ________________ –> liver.

A

Hepatic portal

394
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Radial –> ________________ –> axillary.

A

Brachial

395
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Cephalic –> ________________ –> subclavian.

A

Axillary

396
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Internal Jugular –> ________________ –> Superior Vena Cava.

A

Brachiocephalic

397
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Great saphenous –> ________________ –> external iliac.

A

Femoral

398
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Hemiazygos –> ________________ –> Superior Vena Cava.

A

Azygos

399
Q

Insert the vein that completes the sequence:

Sigmoid Sinus –> ________________ –> Subclavian.

A

Internal Jugular

400
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Dural Sinuses?

A

Internal Jugular Vein

401
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the External cranium and face?

A

External jugular vein

402
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Right posterior intercostal veins?

A

Azygos vein

403
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Triceps Brachii muscle?

A

Deep brachial vein

404
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the muscles of the posterior compartment of the thigh?

A

Deep femoral vein

405
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Fibularis longus and brevis?

A

Fibular vein

406
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Plantar foot?

A

Plantar veins

407
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Dorsum of the foot?

A

Dorsal Pedis and Arcuate veins

408
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Anterior compartment of the leg?

A

Anterior Tibial vein

409
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine?

A

Hepatic portal vein

410
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Respiratory Diaphragm?

A

Internal Thoracic vein

411
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the bladder, uterus, vagina, and rectum?

A

Internal Iliac vein

412
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the Gluteus Medius, Minimus, and Tensor Fascia Lata?

A

Superior Gluteal vein

413
Q

What provides the primary drainage of the kidney?

A

Renal vein

414
Q

What are apertures?

A

Openings that allow for structures to move in.

415
Q

Name the apertures (openings) in and out of the thorax.

A

Superior thoracic aperture & Inferior thoracic aperture

416
Q

What is the inferior thoracic aperture covered by?

A

Covered completely by the diaphragm for protection purposes.

417
Q

Describe the contents of the pleural cavity.

A

The pleural cavity contains the lungs. In between the pleural cavities, there is the mediastinum, which contains the heart and surrounding pericardium.

418
Q

What are the 5 functions of the respiratory system?

A

GASOD:

1) Gas Exchange
2) Air Conditioning (humidifies air)
3) Sound Production
4) Olfaction (brings molecules to olfactory nerve)
5) Defense (against foreign particles)

419
Q

What is the sole function of the upper respiratory tract?

A

Air conduction

420
Q

What type(s) of passageways are in the upper respiratory tract?

A

Air and food passageways

421
Q

What structures make up the upper respiratory tract?

A

Nose, nasal cavity, paranasal sinuses, and pharynx (throat).

422
Q

What are the functions of the lower respiratory tract?

A

Air conduction and gas exchange

423
Q

What type(s) of passageways are in the lower respiratory tract?

A

Air ONLY

424
Q

What structures make up the lower respiratory tract?

A

Larynx, Trachea, Bronchi, and Lungs.

425
Q

From the larynx to the lungs, there is a change in _______________.

A

epithelium

426
Q

What are the differences between the upper and lower respiratory tract?

A

The function of the upper respiratory tract is air conduction and is made up of air and food passageways.

The function of the lower respiratory tract is air conduction and gas exchange and is made up of air passageways ONLY.

There are also different structures that make up each.

427
Q

What type of epithelium makes up shared passageways (air and food passageways)? Why?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium, which aids in protection

428
Q

What tract are considered shared passageways: upper or lower respiratory tract?

A

Upper respiratory tract

429
Q

What type of membrane is evident in air ONLY passageways? What tract is this considered: upper or lower respiratory tract?

A

Mucus membrane

Lower respiratory tract

430
Q

Name the 3 layers of the mucus membrane.

A

Respiratory epithelium
Characteristically thick basement membrane
Lamina propria containing seromucus glands

431
Q

What type of epithelium is the respiratory epithelium in the mucus membrane? What does this do?

A

Pseudostratified columnar, which produces mucous.

432
Q

What is the purpose of the characteristically thick basement membrane in the mucus membrane?

A

It protects against penetration of viruses and bacteria.

433
Q

In the mucus membrane, what do the Lamina propria containing seromucus glands do?

A

They produce serous fluid and mucus. Mucus helps to trap stuff and serous fluid destroys shit!

434
Q

Where is the nasal vestibule located?

A

This is within the external nares (nostrils).

435
Q

What two structures are important in the nasal vestibule? What do they do?

A

Vibrissae, which are nose hairs that filter the air we bring in.

And mucus, which lines the nose hairs to trap debris that gets into our nose.

436
Q

With which type of epithelium would the nasal vestibule most likely be lined by? Why?

A

EVERYBODY PICKS THEIR NOSE WAHAHAHAHHAH.

Thus, we need stratified squamous epithelium for protection.

437
Q

What protects the nasal cavity?

A

Craniofacial bones on all sides

438
Q

What divides the nasal cavity into R and L bones?

A

Nasal septum

439
Q

What two bones make up the nasal septum? What connects these bones?

A

Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone and vomer bone.

They are connected by septal cartilage.

440
Q

T/F: The Nasal Conchae are unpaired bones.

A

False! They are paired bones, meaning they are bilateral bones.

441
Q

Name the 3 Nasal Conchae.

A

Superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae

442
Q

Which nasal conchae should we identify first? Why is this?

A

Inferior nasal conchae, then work your way up.

This is because the superior nasal conchae can sometimes be tricky to visualize.

443
Q

Where are the nasal conchae found?

A

The superior and middle conchae are part of the ethmoid bone. The inferior conchae is a separate bone.

444
Q

What are Meatuses? Name the 3.

A

Spaces under nasal conchae.

Superior, middle, and inferior meatus.

445
Q

What is the function of the nasal conchae and meatuses?

A

Slow down the flow of air so it can be conditioned (warmed up & hydrated).

446
Q

Name the 4 paranasal sinuses.

A

Frontal, ethmoid ‘air cells’, sphenoid, and maxillary.

447
Q

What is a sinus?

A

A space within bone.

448
Q

What is the MAIN function of the paranasal sinuses?

A

To produce mucus to maintain moisture in the nasal cavity.

449
Q

What is the Ethmoid Bulla?

A

These are the largest air cells that project/push into the middle meatus.

450
Q

What is the semilunar hiatus?

A

It is a gap that resides under and is formed by the ethmoid bulla.

451
Q

What is the semilunar hiatus’s relationship with the maxillary sinus?

A

Maxillary and frontal sinus drain into the semilunar hiatus.

452
Q

How do the paranasal sinuses serve in protection?

A

Paranasal sinuses provide a “crumple zone” to protect the orbit, optic nerve, and brain

453
Q

Studies show when trauma is inflicted on the face, the __________ ____________ fractures, leaving the _________ intact.

A

orbital floor, globe

454
Q

When scientists obliterated/filled the sinuses with cement, what would happen upon trauma inflicted on the face?

A

Globe rupture was inevitable

455
Q

How does the size of the sinus contribute to risk of injury?

A

Smaller frontal sinus contribute to greater risk of cerebral injury following craniofacial trauma.

456
Q

What are the internal nares?

A

This is the area between the concha and beginning of pharynx (throat)

457
Q

How is the pharynx subdivided?

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharanx
458
Q

Describe the area that the Nasopharynx covers.

A

Extends from the internal nares to the uvula of the soft palate.

459
Q

What is the sole function of the Nasopharynx? What epithelium comprises this?

A

Air ONLY.

It has a Respiratory Epithelium, which produces mucous for the air entering the nasal cavity.

460
Q

What 3 structures does the Nasopharynx contain?

A

Pharyngeal tonsil, Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tubes, and the Uvula.

461
Q

What is the Pharyngeal tonsil made up of and what is its function?

A

It is made up of Lymphatic tissue and it surveys the air we breathe in for pathogens.

462
Q

What is the function of the Pharyngotympanic tube?

A

Think of flying on an airplane and getting ear bubbles.

It stabilizes the air pressure in the inner ear versus the external ear pressure. It also releases fluid from the inner ear.

463
Q

The Uvula forms a loose seal between _____ and ____________.

A

naso- and oropharynx

464
Q

Where does the Oropharynx extend from and to?

A

From the uvula to the hyoid bone

465
Q

What type of passageway is the Oropharynx? What does this mean?

A

It is a shared passageway, meaning it is used for both air and foot

466
Q

What type of epithelium does the Oropharynx have? Why?

A

It has a stratified squamous epithelium, which helps with protection.

467
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis? What section of the pharynx is it located in?

A

Prevents food from getting into the larynx and then down into the trachea.

Most of the epiglottis is located in the Oropharynx, but some is in the Laryngopharynx.

468
Q

What is the function of the Palatine and Lingual tonsils? What section of the pharynx are these located in?

A

Monitors the food we swallow for pathogens before hitting the Oropharynx.

Located in the Oropharynx.

469
Q

Describe the area that the Laryngopharynx covers?

A

Extends from the hyoid to the cricoid cartilage.

470
Q

What type of passageway is the Laryngopharynx? What does this mean?

A

It is a shared passageway, meaning it includes both air and food

471
Q

What type of epithelium does the Laryngopharynx contain? Why?

A

Stratified squamous for protection

472
Q

What structures does the Laryngopharynx contain?

A

Contains the opening into the larynx and the epiglottis.

473
Q

What is the dedicated pathway to the lungs?

A

Lower Respiratory Tract

474
Q

What 3 things make up the Hyo-Laryngeal Complex?

A

Hyoid bone, Thyroid cartilage, and Cricoid cartilage.

475
Q

Describe 3 functions of the Hyo-Laryngeal complex.

A

1) Protection of Larynx (“Voice Box”)
2) Insertion for intrinsic laryngeal muscles
3) Insertion site for vocal cords

476
Q

Fracture of the hyolaryngeal complex are only present in __% of the suspected cases of neck trauma.

When fractures do occur, the ___________ _______________ contains a higher percentage of fracture than does the ___________ ____________.

A

20

thyroid cartilage, hyoid bone

477
Q

During strangulation, what is most likely to fracture in the hyo-laryngeal complex?

A

Superior horn thyroid

478
Q

Describe 3 things about the Thyroid Cartilage.

A

C-shaped
Lateral halves form the laryngeal prominence (Adam’s Apple)
Origin of vocal cords

479
Q

Describe 2 things about the Cricoid Cartilage.

A

Ring-shaped cartilage which encircles the larynx
Expands as it covers the posterior larynx

480
Q

What serves as the origin for muscles that move the vocal cords?

A

Posterior larynx

481
Q

What does the Epiglottis cover and when?

A

Covers the larynx during swallowing

482
Q

What does the Cricoid cartilage cover?

A

Covers the anterior and posterior side of the larynx

483
Q

What does the Arytenoid cartilage articulate with?

A

Articulates with the cricoid cartilage

484
Q

What does the anterior Arytenoid cartilage serve as?

A

Vocal process; insertion of vocal cords

485
Q

What does the posterior Arytenoid cartilage serve as?

A

Muscular process; insertion of laryngeal muscles

486
Q

Name the 2 muscles of the Larynx.

A

Posterior Cricoarytenoid muscles & Arytenoid muscles

487
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the Posterior Cricoarytenoid muscles?

A

Origin: Cricoid cartilage
Insertion: Arytenoid cartilage

488
Q

What action do the Posterior Cricoarytenoid muscles perform?

A

ABDUCT vocal cords

489
Q

What is the origin and insertion of the Arytenoid muscles?

A

Origin and Insertion: Arytenoid cartilage

490
Q

What action do the Arytenoid muscles perform?

A

ADDUCT vocal cords

491
Q

What type of pitch does abduction of the vocal cords create?

A

Deeper pitch voice

492
Q

What type of pitch does adduction of the vocal cords create?

A

Higher pitch voice

493
Q

Where do vocal cords originate and insert?

A

Vocal cords originate on thyroid cartilage and insert of arytenoid cartilage.

494
Q

What forms the Rima Glottidis?

A

The conus elasticus covers and stretches from the vocal cord to the cricoid cartilage, forming the rima glottidis.

495
Q

How does the Rima Glottidis change shape?

A

Muscles of the larynx change the shape of the rima glottidis by adducting abducting the vocal cords.

496
Q

How are different sounds produced?

A

Different sounds are produced as air flows through the rima glottidis and vibrates the vocal cords.

497
Q

“Change in shape = Change in tone.”

What structure is this true of regarding sound?

A

Rima Glottidis

498
Q

“Wraps around the vocal cords and manipulates air to force it between the vocal cords.”

What structure is this true of?

A

Conus elasticus

499
Q

What is the False Vocal Fold?

A

It protects the true vocal fold.

500
Q

Where does the False vocal fold lie in comparison to the True vocal fold?

A

The False vocal fold is superior to the True vocal fold.

501
Q

T/F: Vocal fold and vocal cord are separate structures.

A

False! Vocal fold is just another term for vocal cord.

502
Q

Air _______ the larynx and __________ the trachea.

A

exits, enters

503
Q

Describe the area that the Trachea covers.

A

Begins inferior to the cricoid cartilage and extends to the manubriosternal angle/2nd rib.

504
Q

What structures support the trachea?

A

There are C-shaped cartilaginous rings that support the anterior and lateral trachea to keep it in an open position.

There is also smooth muscle located between the cartilaginous rings.

505
Q

The posterior side of the trachea is covered by the ___________ ______________.

A

trachealis muscle

506
Q

What does the Trachealis Muscle do?

A

It allows the esophagus to slightly bulge into the lumen of the trachea when swallowing. This gives the esophagus more room to breathe while we are eating.

507
Q

What does the Trachea bifurcate into?

A

Primary bronchi

508
Q

Both the __________ and _____________ _________ are supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings.

A

trachea, primary bronchi

509
Q

What is the Carina? How is it formed?

A

It serves as the last line of defense against aspiration.

The Carina is formed by the last cartilaginous ring of the trachea.

510
Q

T/F: The bronchi bifurcate into two even tunnels.

A

False! The bronchi bifurcate unevenly.

511
Q

If we were to aspirate food into the bronchi, is it more likely to go into the Right or Left Bronchi? Why?

A

More likely to travel into the Right Bronchi, because of the angle to get into the Left Bronchi and also because the Right Bronchi is bigger.

512
Q

Why does the trachea bifurcate asymmetrically?

A

We have to note the displacement of the left primary bronchi around the growing and developing heart.

513
Q

Each primary bronchus divides into?

A

Secondary bronchi, tertiary bronchi, several more bronchi, and then bronchioles.

514
Q

T/F: The bronchioles have cartilage.

A

False! There is no cartilage in the bronchioles, because they are too tiny.

515
Q

What helps to hold the bronchioles open?

A

Smooth muscle

516
Q

____________ ____________ designate the end of the conducting zone & transition into the respiratory zone.

A

Terminal bronchioles

517
Q

How big is the diameter of bronchioles?

A

<1 mm diameter

518
Q

In the Trachea and Primary Bronchi, what cartilage is present?

A

Supported by C-shaped cartilaginous rings

519
Q

In the bronchi, what provides support?

A

Supported by cartilaginous plates.

520
Q

What is the difference between a bronchus and a bronchiole?

A

Bronchi are supported by cartilaginous plates and continue branching.

Bronchioles are supported by smooth muscle and terminal bronchioles mark the end of the conducting zone.

521
Q

Why is there smooth muscle in the airway?

A

Smooth muscle controls the size of the airway, dictating how much oxygen gets in and out.

522
Q

What type of innervation controls the smooth muscle in the airway?

A

Autonomic innervation

523
Q

What does sympathetic control of the smooth muscle in the airway cause?

A

Bronchodilation, which increases the amount of oxygen in the lungs.

524
Q

What does para-sympathetic control of the smooth muscle in the airway cause?

A

Bronchoconstriction, which reduces the amount of oxygen in the lungs.

525
Q

_____________ __________ branch from terminal bronchioles.

A

Respiratory bronchiole

526
Q

What type of epithelium makes up the Respiratory bronchiole? Why is this good?

A

Simple squamous epithelium, which is good for fast diffusion of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide.

527
Q

Respiratory bronchioles lead to ____________ _______.

A

respiratory ducts

528
Q

The distal end of the respiratory ducts dilate into an ____________ _____.

A

alveolar sac

529
Q

What are the three structures that make up the respiratory zone?

A

Respiratory bronchiole, respiratory ducts, and alveolar sac.

530
Q

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, and alveolar sacs are all made of ____________________.

A

Alveoli (singular alveolus).

531
Q

What are Alveoli?

A

They serve as the final termination of the airway and where gas exchange takes place.

532
Q

What type of epithelium is in the Alveoli? Why is this?

A

Lined mostly with simple squamous epithelium, which is important, because very thin walls will help to facilitate gas exchange.

533
Q

What is the function of the simple squamous epithelium in the alveoli?

A

Allows for quick diffusion of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide with the capillaries.

534
Q

What are two important functions of Alveolar pores?

A

Communication and Collateral Ventilation

535
Q

What is the function of Collateral Ventilation?

A

Allows for air to still fill the alveoli/lungs even if an area collapses.

536
Q

What 3 cell types are present in the Alveoli?

A

Type I pneumocyte, Dust cell, and Type II pneumocyte.

537
Q

What epithelium do Type I pneumocytes have? What are these cells the location of?

A

Simple squamous cells, because this is where gas exchange takes place.

538
Q

Describe Dust Cells.

A

They can be fixed in tissue or migratory. They are alveolar Macrophages that seek out pathogens to destroy.

539
Q

What shape are Type II pneumocytes?

A

Dome-shaped cells

540
Q

What do Type II pneumocytes produce? What does it do?

A

Surfactant, which is a lipid that repels other type II pneumocytes so the alveoli stay open instead of collapsing.

541
Q

What do Type II pneumocytes function as?

A

Function as stem cells by replacing dead Type I pneumocytes.

542
Q

What cells produce Surfactant?

A

Type II pneumocytes.

543
Q

What 3 things surround the Alveolar sac?

A

Smooth muscles, elastic fibers, and capillaries.

544
Q

What is the function of smooth muscle in the Alveolar sac?

A

Controls the size of the airway and maintains patency/openness.

545
Q

What is the function of elastic fibers in the Alveolar sac?

A

Suspend and support the alveolar sacs.

546
Q

What is the function of Capillaries in the Alveolar sac?

A

Exchange of gasses between blood and alveoli.

547
Q

Why is there asymmetry of the lungs?

A

Asymmetry of the lungs is due to development of the heart on the left side.

548
Q

What is the Cardiac Impression?

A

Mediastinal surface of BOTH lungs.

549
Q

What is the Cardiac Notch?

A

Indentation on the anterior border of the left lung’s superior lobe.

550
Q

What is the Lingula (little tongue)? Where is it located?

A

It is a remnant of what would have been the middle lobe.

Extends from the cardiac notch and the oblique fissure.

551
Q

The cardiac impression is found on both lungs, but on which lung would the impression be more obvious? Why?

A

Left lung, because this is where the heart sits.

552
Q

What is the Hilum?

A

The physical part of the lung where structures enter or exit.

553
Q

What does “root of the lung” mean? Name examples.

A

Root of the lung refers to the structures that are entering and exiting.

Bronchi, pulmonary arteries, and pulmonary veins.

554
Q

What structures are entering or exiting the Left Lung?

A

Pulmonary artery, Hypoarterial (below the artery) bronchus, and Pulmonary vein

555
Q

What structures are entering or exiting the Right Lung?

A

Eparterial (above the artery) bronchus, Pulmonary artery, and Pulmonary vein.

556
Q

Describe the 3 steps of development of the pleural cavity.

A

1) Lung bud is developing into the fluid-filled space of the intraembryonic cavity.
2) Lung bud is covered with visceral lining as it develops into the membrane.
3) Visceral and parietal lining are separated by pleural space.

557
Q

What is the intraembryonic cavity surrounded by? What is this adhered to?

A

The intraembryonic cavity is surrounded by a serous membrane which is adhered to the thoracic wall.

558
Q

In the lung bud, where does the parietal lining stay attached to?

A

The thoracic wall

559
Q

Visceral and parietal lining are separated by pleural space. What fills this space?

A

Serous fluid fills this space and separates the linings.

560
Q

Which layer of the pleural cavity maintains an attachment with the thoracic wall?

A

Parietal lining of the serous membrane

561
Q

Which layer of the serous membrane covers the developing lung bud?

A

Lung bud is covered with visceral lining.

562
Q

What are the 2 main functions of the serous fluid in the pleural cavity?

A

1) Lubrication of the pleural cavity
2) Creation of tension between the visceral and parietal pleural layers that sticks the two layers of pleura together. This indirectly attaches the lungs to the thoracic wall.

563
Q

What does indirect attachment of the lungs to the thoracic wall in terms of contraction and expansion?

A

As the thoracic wall expands/contracts, the lungs will also expand/contract because they are attached to the thoracic wall.

564
Q

How is the Parietal Pleura named?

A

Named for the regions of the thoracic that it touches.

565
Q

Name the 3 regions of the thoracic cavity that the Parietal Pleura touches.

A

Costal = touches ribs
Mediastinal = touches mediastinum
Diaphragmatic = touches diaphragm

566
Q

What is a Pneumothorax? What is this caused by?

A

In the case of trauma or illness, air can enter the space from the lung, causing a pneumothorax.

Air creates excessive pressure on the lung causing the lung to collapse.

567
Q

Besides a Pneumothorax, what else can the pleural space be filled with?

A

Blood (hemothorax) or fluid (pleural effusion).

568
Q

How do we treat a Pneumothorax?

A

Treatment involves needle aspiration of air.

569
Q

What is the Pleural Cavity normally filled with?

A

Lubricating serous fluid

570
Q

What type of muscles expand and contract the thoracic cavity: skeletal, cardiac, or smooth?

A

Skeletal muscles expand and contract the thoracic cavity.

571
Q

At rest, what is the main muscle of respiration? What does it increase?

What muscle also assists in respiration at rest? What does it increase?

A

Main muscle of respiration is the diaphragm. It increases vertical dimensions.

External Intercostal muscles also aid in respiration. They increase the lateral dimensions.

572
Q

What type of muscles aid with forced inhalation? Name the 3 and what they increase.

A

Muscles SUPERIOR to the thoracic cavity help with forced inhalation.

Pectoralis Minor, Serratus posterior superior, and Sternocleidomastoid.

They help to increase lateral dimensions.

573
Q

What type of muscles aid with forced exhalation? Name the 3 and what they increase.

A

Muscles INFERIOR to the thoracic cavity help with forced exhalation.

Abdominals, Serratus posterior inferior, and Internal intercostal mm.

They help to decrease vertical dimensions.

574
Q

Which nerve innervates the diaphragm? From what spinal cord segments do these come from?

A

The Phrenic Nerve innervates the diaphragm (cervical spinal cord segments 3, 4, and 5).

575
Q

Where do the Intercostal nerves from T1-T11 run?

A

Run in the inferior border of each rib with the intercostal vein and artery.

576
Q

Which nerves innervate the intercostal muscles?

A

Intercostal nerves innervate the intercostal muscles.

577
Q

Where does neural control of the respiratory system come from?

A

Medulla oblongata

578
Q

In the respiratory center, what do nuclei do?

A

Set a baseline rate of ventilation

579
Q

What does the respiratory center do?

A

Gathers information from stretch receptors in the lungs and chemoreceptors in the arteries.

580
Q

From which structures does the respiratory center gather information?

A

Stretch receptors in the lungs and chemoreceptors in the arteries.

581
Q

Where are stretch receptors (mechanoreceptors) located? What do they do?

A

Located in the lungs.

They respond to excessive stretching in the lungs (prolonged inhalation) and trigger exhalation.

582
Q

Where are chemoreceptors located? What do they do?

A

Located in the aortic and carotid bodies.

They sense changes in blood oxygen/carbon dioxide levels and changes in pH. They also trigger inhalation.

583
Q

Why is it good that the chemoreceptors are located where they are?

A

The aortic and carotid bodies are the first places where oxygenated blood will travel. This is a good place for our body to sense if it has good oxygen and pH levels before it reaches the rest of the body.

584
Q

In regards to chemoreceptors, what do cranial nerves do?

A

Cranial nerves bring information regarding chemoreception to the brain.

585
Q

Which cranial nerves sense/receive information from the carotid bodies?

A

Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)

586
Q

Which cranial nerves sense/receive information from the aortic bodies?

A

Vagus Nerve (CN X)

587
Q

What are the 3 functions of blood?

A

Transportation, regulation, and protection.

588
Q

What are some examples of what the blood transports?

A

Oxygen, Carbon Dioxide, Immune cells, nutrients, hormones, and waste products.

589
Q

What are some examples of things the blood is regulating?

A

pH (between 7.35 - 7.45), body temperature, and normal fluid levels.

590
Q

What are some examples of how the blood provides protection?

A

Immunity and clotting

591
Q

Blood cells perform specific _________________ based on their ______________.

A

functions, structure

592
Q

What do we mean by “whole blood”? When would we see whole blood?

A

All parts of the blood are distributed homogenously.

We can see this when we do a blood draw.

593
Q

What does centrifugation of blood allow for?

A

Whole blood can be separated into liquid and formed elements.

594
Q

What are the Formed Elements of blood?

A

Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.

595
Q

Components of blood separate during centrifugation to reveal what 3 things?

A

Plasma, buffy coat, and erythrocytes.

596
Q

During centrifugation, why are RBCs at the bottom of the tube?

A

They contain lots of metals, such as Iron, which makes it heavy.

597
Q

What is found in plasma?

A

Water, proteins, nutrients, hormones, etc.

598
Q

What is found in the buffy coat?

A

White blood cells and platelets

599
Q

What is Hematocrit?

A

Hematocrit determines the percent of RBCs in your entire blood volume.

600
Q

What is normal Hematocrit?

A

37 - 47% RBCs in the entire blood volume

601
Q

What does a depressed or elevated hematocrit level tell us?

A

Depressed and elevated Hematocrits are symptoms of underlying conditions.

602
Q

What is Anemia? What can it indicate?

A

Anemia is a depressed Hematocrit %, which may indicate bleeding, low iron, autoimmune diseases, infection, etc.

603
Q

T/F: Anemia is a disease.

A

False! Anemia is a symptom of underlying disease.

604
Q

What is Polycythemia? What are 3 reasons for why someone might have this?

A

Elevated hematocrit %.

Living at higher altitudes, dehydration, and doping (increasing RBCs) can make your hematocrit % elevated.

605
Q

What are the 3 components of blood? Name the percentages for each.

A

Plasma ~55%
Buffy Coat <1%
Erythrocytes (RBCs) ~44%

606
Q

What are the 3 major types of plasma proteins? Name the percentages of each.

A

Albumin (60%), Globulins (35%), and Fibrinogens (4%).

607
Q

What does Albumin do in the plasma?

A

Maintains osmotic pressure within blood vessels. Helps keep fluid from leaking out of blood and into other tissues. Also carry hormones, vitamins, and enzymes through the body.

608
Q

What do Globulins do in the plasma?

A

Immunoglobulins (antibodies) are another type of globulin that are produced by the immune system that protect the body from antigens.

609
Q

Where are antibodies found circulating?

A

In the blood plasma

610
Q

What do Fibrinogens do?

A

They are released by platelets and undergo a reaction that results in blood clotting.

611
Q

How can we examine formed elements?

A

We can perform a blood smear to stain and examine the formed elements.

612
Q

Describe the 2 components of a blood smear and stain.

A

Smear distributes the elements of the blood. Staining allows visualization of cellular components.

613
Q

Why would a blood smear be performed?

A

Helps to identify or narrow down a diagnosis.

614
Q

T/F: Erythrocytes are defined as cells.

A

False! Erythrocytes are not actual cells, because they do not contain a nucleus or organelles.

615
Q

What does the cytoplasm of erythrocytes contain?

A

Hemoglobin, no nucleus or organelles.

616
Q

What do erythrocytes do?

A

Transport oxygen to tissues and carbon dioxide (lesser extent) to the lungs.

617
Q

What is the shape of erythrocytes? Why is this good?

A

Biconcave disc shape.

The shape allows it to get into tiny spaces and perform gas exchange. It can fold at the center of the erythrocyte to get through capillaries 4 mm wide.

618
Q

Describe the dimensions of erythrocytes.

A

Width = 7.8 micrometers
Height = 2.6 micrometers
Middle Heigh = 0.8 micrometers

619
Q

How does RBC shape assist in their function?

A

They are able to squeeze through narrowest capillaries. Additionally, they make tons of contact, which increases surface area and allows for rapid diffusion of gases.

620
Q

How many globin chains and heme units does each hemoglobin molecule contain?

A

4 globin chains and 4 heme units per 1 hemoglobin molecule.

621
Q

Each heme unit contains __ iron and each iron binds __ O2 molecule

A

1, 1

622
Q

How many Oxygen atoms are there per 1 hemoglobin molecule?

A

4 heme units per 1 hemoglobin each binding 1 O2 molecule. O2 molecule has 2 O atoms
8 Oxygen per 1 hemoglobin molecule

623
Q

Each blood cell contains ____ _______________ heme units, which transport ____ ______________ oxygen molecules per RBC.

A

300 million, 1.2 billion

624
Q

What does iron bind?

A

Iron will bind O2 and CO2 during gas exchange in the tissue or the lungs.

625
Q

How does shape of RBC facilitate gas exchage?

A

The concavity is closer to the surface to better diffuse. If it was a sphere, then the large diameter makes it difficult to diffuse.

626
Q

What causes Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

A rare genetic disorder that involves a homozygous recessive (hh) hemoglobin gene resulting in sickle cell anemia.

627
Q

How do we diagnose Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Affected red blood cells appear sickle-shaped.

628
Q

What are the symptoms of Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Shortness of breath, pain joints, chest, abdomen, fatigue, and dizziness.

629
Q

How do we treat Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Blood transfusions and bone marrow transplants.

630
Q

In regards to Sickle Cell Anemia, what would an Hh gene indicate? Why has this gene persisted throughout evolution?

A

This person would be non-symptomatic with just a few cells being sickle-shaped.

This has persisted through evolution because it provides protection against Malaria.

631
Q

What is Hematopoiesis?

A

Production of formed elements.

632
Q

Hematopoietic stem cells are referred to as ______________________.

A

hematocytoblasts

633
Q

Which types of cells do Hematocytoblasts produce?

A

Lymphoid and myeloid cells

634
Q

What formed elements do Myeloid cells produce?

A

Erythrocytes, megakaryocytes, and all leukocytes, except lymphocytes.

635
Q

What formed elements do Lymphoid cells produce?

A

ONLY lymphocytes

636
Q

Where does Erythropoiesis take place? What is it stimulated by?

A

Only in red bone marrow including midline bones and the proximal ends of proximal long bones.

Stimulated by erythropoietin.

637
Q

What are the midline bones in which Erythropoiesis takes place?

A

Skull, sternum, ribs, vertebrae, scapula, and pelvis.

638
Q

What are the proximal end of proximal long bones in which Erythropoiesis takes place?

A

Humerus and Femur

639
Q

What is a bone marrow transplant?

A

A procedure that infuses healthy blood-forming stem cells into your body.

640
Q

What are some reasons for a bone marrow transplant?

A

Cancers of the blood, sickle cell anemia, and certain autoimmune disorders.

641
Q

For bone marrow transplants, what does pretreatment involve?

A

Pretreatment involves chemotherapy or radiation to destroy foreign cells and prepare the bone marrow for transplant in the recipient of the bone marrow transplant.

642
Q

What does bone marrow transplant involve?

A

Involves the introduction of healthy bone marrow stem cells that will divide and produce healthy cells that will populate the blood and function properly.

643
Q

Erythropoiesis is stimulated by _______________.

A

erythropoietin, which is a hormone.

644
Q

How long do Erythrocytes circulate for?

A

120 days

645
Q

In the liver and spleen, what happens to aged erythrocytes? What happens to the heme components of the blood?

A

They are phagocytized/decomposed.

The heme components, Hemoglobin and Iron, are recycled and stored in the bone marrow for new red blood cell production.

646
Q

Where is Bilirubin from the heme unit stored?

A

Stored in the liver for bile production

647
Q

Why do RBCs only last for 120 days?

A

They don’t have a nucleus or organelles so they just die.

648
Q

What determines your blood type?

A

The presence and/or absence of the cell surface antigens (A & B type).

649
Q

All red blood cells maintain the __ type antigen. Why is this?

A

O type

Protects against certain infectious diseases.

650
Q

What cell surface antigens are Type O blood?

A

Neither A nor B surface antigens

651
Q

What cell surface antigens are Type A blood?

A

Surface antigen A

652
Q

What cell surface antigens are Type B blood?

A

Surface antigen B

653
Q

What cell surface antigens are Type AB blood?

A

Surface antigens A and B.

654
Q

How do we know what type of antibodies white blood cells will produce against red blood cells?

A

White blood cells produce antibodies against surface antigens not found on OWN red blood cells.

655
Q

Where do antibodies circulate?

A

In the blood plasma

656
Q

What antibodies are present with Type A blood?

A

Anti-B antibodies

657
Q

What antibodies are present with Type B blood?

A

Anti-A antibodies

658
Q

What antibodies are present with Type AB blood?

A

Neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies

659
Q

What antibodies are present with Type O blood?

A

Both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

660
Q

When we do a blood transfusion, what is transfused into the recipient?

A

ONLY RBCs are transfused into the recipient, not the plasma (so only worry about what antibodies the RECIPIENT has).

661
Q

What would happen if we gave a type A individual a type B blood transfusion?

A

The recipient has anti-B antibodies which will bind to the type B cells, resulting in agglutination and hemolysis (death will occur within minutes).

662
Q

How do antibodies protect against foreign blood cells?

A

Antibodies will agglutinate (form complexes) withforeign blood cells and cause hemolysis (death of foreign cells).

663
Q

Describe Rapid Agglutination Tests.

A

A drop of blood is placed on a card containing antibodies against the A and B. Whichever one we see agglutination with is the blood type.

For example: Dots on anti-A = blood type A.

664
Q

If someone has anti-A and anti-B antibodies, which blood type can they be transfused?

A

Only type O

665
Q

If someone has anti-A antibodies, which blood type can they be transfused?

A

Type B and Type O

666
Q

If someone has anti-B antibodies, which blood type can they be transfused?

A

Type A and Type O

667
Q

If someone has no antibodies, which blood type can they be transfused?

A

Type A, Type B, Type AB, and Type O.

668
Q

Which blood type is the Universal recipient? Which blood type is the Universal donor?

A

Universal recipient = Blood type AB
Universal donor = Blood type O

669
Q

If we didn’t know the blood type of an individual, what blood type should we transfuse to this patient?

A

Type O- because it is the universal donor

670
Q

Rh is present = ____

A

Rh+

671
Q

Rh antigen is absent = _____

A

Rh-

672
Q

T/F: Anyone is Rh- naturally produces the Rh antibody.

A

False! Antibodies against the Rh antigen are only produced if someone is Rh- and has been previously exposed to the Rh antigen.

673
Q

Describe a situation in which a Rh- mother would produce Rh antibody.

A

A Rh- mother during her first pregnancy could have a Rh+ baby. After the 1st pregnancy, the Rh- mother will produce anti-Rh antibodies. If the mother has a second pregnancy with a Rh+ fetus, the anti-Rh antibody from the mother will attack the Rh antigen and kill the fetus.

674
Q

Describe structural characteristics of Leukocytes (WBCs).

A

Contain nuclei
Larger than red blood cells
Motile and can leave the bloodstream

675
Q

__________________ are classified as either granular or agranular.

A

Leukocytes

676
Q

_________ initiate immune response.

A

Leukocytes

677
Q

How do we classify a Leukocyte as granular?

A

-Contain visible cytoplasmic granules
-Nuclei are divided into 2-5 lobes

678
Q

Name 3 granular Leukocytes.

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils.

679
Q

What are Granules?

A

Digestive enzymes that destroy bacteria.

680
Q

How do we classify a Leukocyte as agranular?

A

-Cytoplasmic granules are NOT visible with staining techniques
-Single lobed, thick nucleus

681
Q

Name 2 agranular Leukocytes.

A

Monocytes and Lymphocytes

682
Q

How do Neutrophils initiate an immune response?

A

They are the first immune cells to reach the infection site, leaving the bloodstream and entering the infected tissues.

683
Q

What is pus?

A

Accumulation of dead tissue, cells, and bacteria.

Basically, accumulation of dead neutrophils.

684
Q

What type of WBC has a nucleus with 2-6 connected lobes and makes up 60-70% of leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils

685
Q

______________ are also referred to as polymorphonuclear (PMN).

A

Neutrophils

686
Q

How do eosinophils initiate an immune response?

A

They attack parasites or worms.

687
Q

Describe the appearance of eosinophils.

A

Nucleus with 2 connected lobes, granules stain dark red
Old-fashioned “telephone” or “earmuff” shape

688
Q

Name the characteristics of basophils.

A

Nucleus with 2 connected lobes
“U” or “S” shaped nucleus
Granules stain dark blue/purple

689
Q

How do basophils help with the immune response?

A

They release Histamine and Heparin during allergic or inflammatory reactions. They also assist in vasodilation and inhibition of blood clotting.

690
Q

Name the characteristics of Monocytes.

A

Nucleus is 3x the size of an RBC
Horseshoe-shaped nucleus

691
Q

When in the blood, what are monocytes called? What about when they exit the bloodstream and enter bodily tissues?

A

When in blood = monocyte
When in tissue = macrophage

692
Q

What are the 3 types of Lymphocytes?

A

B cells, T cells, and Natural Killer (NK) cells.

693
Q

Describe Lymphocytes.

A

Nucleus almost fills the entire cell
Reside in lymphatic structures and organs
Major component of the immune system

694
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

Megakaryocytes extend processes into blood vessels. The force of the blood flow breaks off pieces, creating platelets.

695
Q

How do platelets function in blood clotting?

A

Platelets convert fibrinogen into fibrin. Fibrin will bind erythrocytes and platelets to form a clot.

696
Q
A
697
Q

what type of epithelium?

A

stratified squamous epithelium

698
Q
A
699
Q
A
700
Q
A
701
Q
A
702
Q
A
703
Q
A
704
Q
A
705
Q
A
706
Q
A
707
Q
A
708
Q
A
709
Q
A
710
Q
A
711
Q

what cell is normal and what is abnormal?

A

left is normal, right is sickle cell

712
Q

what blood type is this person?

A

type A

713
Q
A
714
Q
A
715
Q

what is this

A

Neutrophil

716
Q

what is this

A

eosinophil

717
Q

what is this

A

Basophil

718
Q

what is this

A

Monocyte

719
Q

what is on the right? And label

A

Lymphocyte

720
Q

What is Hypovolemia? What does it lead to?

A

It is low blood volume. This leads to lack of oxygen to bodily tissues and organs.

721
Q

What is Edema?

A

Build up of fluid in the interstitial spaces around the tissues, usually in the extremities.

722
Q

What are the results of having fluid build up in the interstitial spaces?

A

This leads to Hypovolemia, in which there is low blood volume (more RBCs than plasma).

722
Q

How do we fix Edema?

A

Fix this with movement, so that the fluid doesn’t pool

723
Q

What size substances can Lymphatic vessels transport?

A

Lymphatic vessels can transport larger substances

724
Q

What are the 3 main functions of the Lymphatic System?

A

1) Regulate blood-fluid volume
2) Transport large nutrients, lipids, hormones, and waste
3) Immunity

725
Q

Explain how the Lymphatic System regulates blood-fluid volume.

A

Blood pressure pushes fluid from vessels. Blood capillaries are able to pick up about 85% of this fluid, so Lymphatic capillaries will reabsorb the rest. The fluid is then filtered and returned to the circulatory system to maintain blood-volume levels.

726
Q

When Lymphatic capillaries reabsorb fluid from vessels, where are they returned to? Why?

A

The fluid is reabsorbed, filtered, and returned to the circulatory system to maintain blood-volume levels.

727
Q

What are Lacteals and what do they do?

A

Lacteals are specific lymphatic vessels that absorb larger lipids and lipid-soluble vitamins.

728
Q

What part of the Lymphatic System is SPECIFIC to the villi of the small intestine?

A

Lacteals are specific to the small intestine which is where super large solutes are.

729
Q

How does the Lymphatic System defend the body?

A

The Lymphatic System surveys blood and lymph fluid for antigens. When it finds them, the antigens initiate an immune response. The Lymphatic System will then produce cells that kill antigens.

730
Q

Blood pressure forces fluid from the _____________ ________________ into _____________ ______________.

A

arterial capillaries into interstitial spaces

731
Q

How is the fluid found in the interstitial spaces reabsorbed?

A

85% of the fluid is reabsorbed by venous capillaries. The remaining interstitial fluid is absorbed by Lymphatic capillaries.

732
Q

Once interstitial fluid is reabsorbed into the Lymphatic capillaries, what do we refer to the “fluid” as?

A

Lymph

733
Q

What is the function of Lymphatic Capillaries?

A

Absorbs the remaining interstitial fluid that is not reabsorbed by venous capillaries.

734
Q

Explain the structure of a lymphatic vessel.

A

-Large diameter
-Overlapping endothelial cells migrate into the vessel to create one-way valves. These cells are also leaky and allow fluid to flow into the vessel.

735
Q

How does lymphatic fluid move through the vessels?

A

Lymph is forced through the vessels via muscular contraction so that fluid flows back to the circulatory system.

Standing around without moving (resting) encourages pooling of fluid in the vessels

736
Q

What do all lymphatic vessels enter and why?

A

All lymphatic vessels enter lymph nodes to be filtered and surveyed for antigens.

737
Q

What is the difference between the afferent and efferent vessels?

A

Afferent vessels will ENTER lymph nodes. Efferent vessels will EXIT lymph nodes.

738
Q

Lymphatic vessels merge to form ___________.

A

trunks

739
Q

What 5 major regions of the body do lymphatic trunks drain?

A

Jugular, Subclavian, Bronchomediastinal, Intestinal, and Lumbar

740
Q

Trunks merge into __ ________.

A

2 ducts

741
Q

Where does the Right Lymphatic duct drain lymph into?

A

Right subclavian vein

742
Q

Where does the Thoracic duct drain lymph into?

A

Left subclavian vein

743
Q

What is the Cisterna Chyli and where does it drain?

A

It receives lymph (specific type called chyli) from intestinal nodes. It is continuous with the thoracic duct (transitions into the thoracic duct) and drains into the left subclavian vein.

744
Q

Blockage of the jugular lymphatic trunk would result in a build up of lymphatic fluid in what region?

A

Head and neck

745
Q

What is Lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis)?

A

Buildup of interstitial fluid in the extremities resulting from a parasitic nematode blocking the lymphatic capillaries.

746
Q

For an individual with Lymphatic filariasis (elephantiasis), what white blood cell would you expect to be elevated?

A

Eosinophils

747
Q

Where are antigens found? Where are antibodies found?

A

Antigens = cell surface
Antibodies = blood plasma

748
Q

What stimulates an immune response?

A

Antigens

749
Q

What is produced in response to antigens?

A

Antibodies

750
Q

What are the 2 classes of Antigen Presenting Cells (APCs)?

A

Macrophages and Dendritic Cells

751
Q

How do APCs present antigens?

A

1) Enemy cell is ingested.
2) Enemy cell is broken down.
3) Fragments of antigen ‘presented’ on surface of APC.
4) Circulate within lymphoid tissues where lymphocytes are established for cells to recognize the antigen.

752
Q

What are Macrophages?

A

Monocytes that have migrated from the blood to the tissues.

753
Q

Where are Dendritic Cells found?

A

Found in epithelial tissues of respiratory and GI system.

754
Q

What do Dendritic Cells do?

A

They are ‘Professional APCs’ who enforce tolerance of ‘self’ and harmless antigens. This means that they make sure macrophages don’t destroy own cells with antigens (ex: RBCs).

755
Q

What is the most abundant cell in the lymphatic system?

A

Lymphocytes

756
Q

Name the 3 types of Lymphocytes.

A

T-lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes, and Natural Killer Cells

757
Q

What do T-Lymphocytes (T-cells) do?

A

They recognize ONE particular antigen. They are able to travel to sites of infection and directly kill the antigen.

758
Q

What are the 4 types of T-Cells?

A
  1. Helper
  2. Cytotoxic
  3. Regulatory cells (Treg)
  4. Memory Cells
759
Q

T/F: T-Lymphocytes are part of CELL-MEDIATED IMMUNITY.

A

True! This means that actual cell itself kills the antigen

760
Q

How do Helper T-cells initiate an immune response?

A

Each Helper T-cell is activated by one specific antigen. The cell will then act as an APC as well as release cytokines to activate other lymphatic cells, such as B cells.

761
Q

What is the function of cytotoxic T-cells?

A

They are activated by Helper T-cells and are antigen-specific. They will DIRECTLY cause cell death.

762
Q

What is the function of a regulatory T-cell?

A

It regulates the immune response by inhibiting cell activity / cytokines to slow down the immune response. It is thus good at suppressing autoimmunity.

763
Q

Which T-cells are inactive and long-living?

A

Memory T-cells

764
Q

What is the function of Memory T-cells?

A

They remember antigens that have previously been encountered so that they can elicit a quicker immune response with more cells being produced upon future encounters.

765
Q

When do autoimmune disorders occur?

A

When lymphatic cells mistake healthy cells of the body as foreign.

766
Q

___________ cells are activated to decrease macrophage activity.

A

Regulatory T-cells

767
Q

What cells does treatment of autoimmune disorders rely on? What do they do?

A

Regulatory T-cells are used to help decrease macrophage activity.

768
Q

Where do B-cells reside? Are they mobile?

A

Reside in lymphatic tissues of the body. They are NOT mobile.

769
Q

B-cells contain surface receptors for how many antigens?

A

ONLY ONE antigen

770
Q

T/F: B-cells are a part of cell-mediated immunity.

A

False! They are a part of HUMORAL MEDIATED immunity, meaning there is indirect cell death via the production of antibodies.

771
Q

Explain how B-cells kill antigens indirectly.

A

B-cells are activated by APCs and Cytokines. B-cells will then proliferate into plasma and memory cells. Plasma cells will produce antibodies to kill the antigen.

772
Q

What do Plasma cells do?

A

Produce antibodies (immunoglobulins)

773
Q

Generally speaking, what do Memory B-cells do?

A

They remember the antigen for future encounters. If it recognizes an antigen, it immediately produces plasma cells, meaning NO activation is needed from other processes.

774
Q

T/F: B-cells are mobile whereas antibodies are immobile.

A

False! B-cells are immobile whereas the antibodies are mobile.

775
Q

T/F: B-cells themselves are able to kill antigens directly.

A

False! They kill indirectly via the production of antibodies.

776
Q

What are Natural Killer (NK) cells and what do they do?

A

They are large granular lymphocytes that can kill a wide variety of infected cells and some cancerous cells.

777
Q

What type of cells are used in immunotherapy against cancer cells?

A

Natural Killer (NK) cells

778
Q

What kind of cells do NK cells attack?

A

They are not specific to any type of antigen, a wide variety of infected cells and some cancerous cells.

779
Q

What type of tissue is Lymphatic tissue?

A

A connective tissue made with reticular fibers.

780
Q

Capillaries are abundant within Lymphatic tissue. What do they do?

A

They bring Lymphocytes into the tissue.

781
Q

How do we identify Lymphoid tissues?

A

They are identifiable by areas of densely packed B-cells called Nodules.

782
Q

What are Nodules?

A

B-cells that are densely packed and reside in the tissue.

783
Q

What are the 2 types of Nodules that B-cells form?

A

Primary and Secondary Nodules

784
Q

What are Primary Nodules?

A

Areas of inactivated B-lymphocytes.

785
Q

What are Secondary Nodules? How are they characterized?

A

The site of lymphocyte activation.

They are characterized by the dark outer ring surrounding the GERMINAL CENTER.

786
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

Lymphatic tissue

787
Q

Classify the nodules

A

Left is Secondary Nodule with Germinal center.
Right is Primary Nodule.

788
Q

Where are the 2 types of Lymphatic Tissues found?

A

1) Found in all lymphatic organs
2) Found in mucosa-associated lymph tissue (MALT)

789
Q

Define GALT, BALT, and Peyer’s Patches.

A

Gut-Associated Lymph Tissue

Bronchiole-Associated Lymph Tissue

Ileum of small intestine.

790
Q

What are tonsils and how are they arranged?

A

Tonsils are swellings of the mucus membrane lining the pharynx. They are arranged in a circle around the pharynx.

791
Q

The lamina propria contains abundant ___________.

A

MALT (mucosa-associated lymph tissue)

792
Q

How are Crypts formed and what do they do?

A

Crypts are created by the overlying epithelium. They trap antigens and activate nodules.

793
Q

What is Lymphopoiesis?

A

The process of lymphocyte production and maturation.

794
Q

What 3 things do Lymphoid stem cells differentiate into?

A

B-cells, T-cells, and NK cells.

795
Q

What is Immunocompetence?

A

Process of maturation in which a lymphoid cell is fully capable of participating in the immune response.

796
Q

What cells mature in the bone marrow?

A

B-cells and NK cells

797
Q

Where do T-cells migrate to and why?

A

T-cells migrate to the thymus for maturation.

798
Q

What is the site of T-cell maturation and immunocompetence?

A

Thymus

799
Q

How is the Thymus divided?

A

Divided into lobules, with each lobule containing an outer cortex and inner medulla.

800
Q

When is the Thymus most active?

A

During childhood

801
Q

T/F: The thymus is considered a central lymphatic organ.

A

True!

802
Q

Where is the Bilobate organ located?

A

In the superior mediastinum

803
Q

The cortex in the thymus contains 3 cell types. Name them.

A

1) Macrophages
2) Developing T-cells
3) Epithelial Reticular Cells (ER Cells)

804
Q

What do Epithelial Reticular (ER) cells do?

A

They form the Blood-Thymic Barrier and secrete hormones that train and test T-cells for immunocompetence.

805
Q

What 3 things make up the Blood-Thymus Barrier?

A

Epithelium of ER cells, Endothelium of capillary, and Fused basement membrane

806
Q

What does the Blood-Thymus Barrier do? What are T-cells protected from?

A

Blood-Thymus Barrier isolates T-cells from the blood.

T-cells are protected from entering the bloodstream before they are immunocompetent as well as antigens in the bloodstream.

807
Q

T-cells are screened to ensure ___________________ ________________.

A

immunological tolerance

808
Q

What are self-antigens?

A

Any cell in the host organism’s body that the immune system tolerates.

809
Q

How do we classify a T-cell as Positive Selection?

A

T-cells must recognize foreign antigens.

810
Q

How do we classify a T-cell as Negative Selection?

A

T-cells must NOT recognize ‘self-antigen’.

811
Q

What does the Medulla of the thymus contain?

A

Numerous blood capillaries and thymic corpuscles.

812
Q

Where do immunocompetent T-cells migrate to?

A

Migrate to the medulla and enter the blood vessels.

813
Q

What are Thymic corpuscles? How do we recognize them? What are they used to ID histologically?

A

They are degenerated ER cells.

They have a rosy appearance and are used to ID the thymus histologically.

814
Q

What is the largest lymphoid organ? Where is it located?

A

The spleen is the largest lymphoid organ and it is located in the upper left quadrant of the abdoment

815
Q

What does the spleen do?

A

Filters the blood by:
-Removing antigens from the blood
-Removing defective/old RBCs
-Storage of blood
-Fetal hematopoiesis

816
Q

What enters the spleen at the hilum (concave edge)?

A

Splenic artery

817
Q

Spleen is an __________ and maintains a _________ connective tissue capsule.

A

organ, dense

818
Q

How are trabeculae in the spleen formed and what do they do?

A

The dense connective tissue capsule invaginates into the spleen forming trabeculae.

The trabeculae create pathways for blood vessels.

819
Q

How is the spleen broken down into lobules?

A

Trabeculae divide the spleen into lobes. Each lobe contains areas of red pulp (RBCs) and white pulp (WBCs).

820
Q

Describe the blood flow through the spleen.

A

Blood flow begins with the splenic artery. Splenic artery divides into trabecular arteries. Central arteries enter the inner tissue of the spleen, where they become coated with Peri-arterial Lymphatic Sheaths (PALS).

821
Q

What do Peri-arterial Lymphatic Sheaths (PALS) do? What are they made of?

A

White blood cells in the PALS monitor blood entering the spleen for antigens.

Made of clusters of T-cells, B-cells, and macrophages.

822
Q

Blood flows from central arteries to ___________ ______________.

A

splenic sinusoids

823
Q

What are splenic sinusoids?

A

Open areas where blood flows freely (open circulation).

824
Q

What types of cell would you find in the red pulp?

A

Macrophages inspect and destroy old/defective RBCs. RBCs are also stored in the reticular fibers of the splenic cords.

825
Q

What is the function of the lymph nodes? Where are they located?

A

Filter lymph fluid

Nodes are scattered in groups along lymphatic vessels, typically surrounding joints.

826
Q

Describe the structure of the Lymph Nodes.

A

Surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. The capsule forms trabeculae. Trabeculae form sinuses through which fluid will flow.

827
Q

Lymph Nodes:
Afferent vessels enter all along _________ ______________. Efferent vessels exit at the _________.

A

convex border, hilum

828
Q

What 3 regions are the lymphatic nodes divided into?

A

Outer cortex, paracortex, and inner medulla.

829
Q

What does the outer cortex of the lymph nodes contain?

A

Primary and secondary nodules make of resident B-cells

830
Q

What cells are present in the Paracortex of the lymph nodes?

A

T-cells entering the lymph node from the blood

831
Q

What does the inner medulla of the lymph nodes contain?

A

Sinuses and cords made of reticular fibers.

832
Q

What happens as lymph fluid flows through the cortex?

A

Afferent vessels release lymph into the subcapsular sinus. The sinus is lined with APCs that present the antigen to B-cells, which then become activated. Primary nodules turn into secondary nodules.

833
Q

Which lymphocytes are in the paracortex? What do they do?

A

T-cells are attracted to the paracortex when cytokines are released from APCs. T-cells scan the lymphatic fluid for antigens.

834
Q

What types of cells are present in the cords of the lymph node medulla?

A

Cords contain plasma cells, macrophages, and B-cells.

835
Q

Antibodies from plasma cell exit through ___________ _______________. Lymph exit through _____________ _____________.

A

blood vessels, efferent vessel

836
Q

T/F: T helper cells are required for only cell mediated response.

A

False! T helper cells are required for BOTH cell and humoral mediated response.

837
Q

Describe T- cells cell mediated immune response.

A

Begins with antigen recognition. T helper cells release cytokines. Cytokines stimulate produce of cytotoxic T-cells, T-regs, and memory cells. Also attract T-cells to the site of infection.

838
Q

Describe Opsonization.

A

An indirect method of defense in which antibody forms a complex with antigen, which attracts macrophages to come ingest the entire complex.

839
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary immune response?

A

In the secondary immune response, there will be a much higher concentration of antibodies.

840
Q

What are Lymphatic Vessels?

A

A bunch of merged lymphatic capillaries.

841
Q

What keeps valves in the Lymphatic Vessels closed?

A

The pressure of fluid pressed up against the valve keeps it closed after it passes through.

842
Q

T/F: The structure of the Lymphatic vessels allows for fluid to leak in and out easily.

A

False! Fluid can get in but it CANNOT get out.

843
Q

What does the jugular trunk drain?

A

Head & neck

844
Q

What does the subclavian trunk drain?

A

Upper extremities

845
Q

What does the bronchomediastinal trunk drain?

A

Chest

846
Q

What does the intestinal trunk drain?

A

Lacteals from intestine (abdomen)

847
Q

What does the lumbar trunk drain?

A

Lower extremities into the intestinal trunks

848
Q

What drains each color of the body?

A

Dark green = Drained by lymphatic duct
Light green = Drained by thoracic duct

849
Q

T/F: Not only do helper T-cells help to initiate the cell response, but they also keep the cell response going.

A

True!

Anatomy Lecture + Lab (6 decks)

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