Exam 4 - Endocrine Flashcards

1
Q

The ____ is the primary source of glucose production via glycogenolysis & gluconeogenesis

A

Liver

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2
Q

____ of the glucose released by the liver is freely metabolized by tissues in the brain, GI tract, and red blood cells

A

75%

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3
Q

After eating, when does glucose usage exceed availability?

A

2-4 hours

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4
Q

Glucagon plays a primary role in regulating blood glucose by?

A
  • Stimulating glycogenolysis
  • Simulating gluconeogenesis
  • Inhibiting glycolysis
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5
Q

____ is the most common endocrine disease affecting ____ in 10 adults

A

Diabetes
1 in 10

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6
Q

What is Type 1a DM?

A

an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic β cells, leading to minimal or absentinsulin production

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7
Q

What is type 1b DM?

A

a rare, non-immune disease of absolute insulin deficiency

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8
Q

What is Type 2 DM?

A
  • non-immune, and results from defects in insulin receptors and signaling pathways
  • accounts for 90% of DM
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9
Q

What happens in Type 1 DM before onset of symptoms?

A
  • A long period (9-13 yrs) of B-cell antigen production
  • At least 80-90% B cell function is lost
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10
Q

Disease progression in Type 2 DM?

A
  • In initial stages, tissues become desensitized to insulin, leading to ↑secretion
  • Over time, pancreatic function decreases & insulin levels become inadequate
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11
Q

What 3 main abnormalities are seen in DM2?

A
  • Impaired insulin secretion
  • ↑hepatic glucose release c/b a reduction in insulin’s inhibitory effect on liver
  • Insufficient glucose uptake in peripheral tissues
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12
Q

Causes of insulin resistance?

A
  • Abnormal insulin molecules
  • Circulating insulin antagonists
  • Insulin receptor defects
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13
Q

Hgb A1c percentages for normal, prediabetic, and diabetic?

A
  • Normal < 5.7%
  • Prediabetic 5.7-6.4%
  • Diabetic >6.5%
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14
Q

ADA criteria for diagnosis of diabetes?

A
  • A1C > 6.5%
  • FPG > 126 mg/dL
  • 2 hr glucose > 200 mg/dL durting OGTT
  • w symptoms of hyperglycemia - random glucose > 200 mg/dL
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15
Q

Initial treatment for DM2?
MOA?

A
  • Metformin
  • Enhances glucose transport into tissues
  • ↓TGL & LDL levels
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16
Q

Sulfonylurea MOA?

A
  • Simulates insulin secretion
  • Enhances glucose transport to tissues
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17
Q

Sulfonylurea adverse effects?

A
  • Sulfonylureas not effective long term d/t diabetic progressive loss of B cell function
  • hypoglycemia, weight gain & cardiac effects
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18
Q

What treatments are most effective at lowering A1c?

A

Lifestyle changes, metformin, sulfonylureas: ↓ by 1-2%
Insulin: ↓ by 1.5-3.5%
GLP-1 antagonist: ↓ 0.5-1.5%

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19
Q

What drugs/substances can exacerbate hypoglycemia?

A

ETOH, metformin, sulfonylureas, ACE-I’s, MAOI’s, Non-selective BB’s

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20
Q

What is hypglycemia unawareness?
Treatment?

A
  • Pt becomes desensitized to hypoglycemia and doesn’t show autonomic sx
  • Neuroglycopenia ensues→fatigue, confusion, h/a, seizures, coma
  • Tx: PO or IV glucose (may give SQ or IM if unconscious)
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21
Q

Onset, peak, and duration of the short acting insulins?

A
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22
Q

Onset, peak, and duration of the intermediate acting insulins?

A

Onset: 1-2 hours
Peak: 6-10 hours
Duration: 10-20 hours

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23
Q

Onset, peak, and duration for glargine (lantus)?

A

Onset: 1-2 hr
Peak: none
Duration: 24 hours

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24
Q

Patho of DKA?

A
  • DKA more common in DM1, often triggered by infection/illness
  • High glucose exceeds the threshold for renal reabsorption
  • Creates osmotic diuresis & hypovolemia
  • The liver overproduces of ketoacids
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25
Q

Lab findings for DKA?

A
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26
Q

DKA treatment?

A
  • IV volume replacement
  • Regular Insulin: Loading dose 0.1u/kg + low dose infusion @ 0.1u/kg/hr
  • Correct acidosis: sodium bicarb
  • Electrolyte supplement: k+, phos, mag, sodium
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27
Q

Why is important to correct sodium with glucose?

A

Correction of glucose w/o simultaneous correction of sodium may result in cerebral edema

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28
Q

What is HHS?

A
  • When blood glucose exceeds renal glucose absorption, massive glucosuria occurs
  • Severe hyperglycemia, hyperosmolarity & dehydration
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29
Q

Symptoms and treatments for HHS?

A

Sx: polyuria, polydipsia, hypovolemia, HoTN, tachycardia
Tx: fluid resuscitation, insulin bolus + infusion, e-lytes

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30
Q

At what point do the kidneys no longer clear K+?

A

GFR < 15-20

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31
Q

What drug slows the progression of proteinureia and GFR decrease in DM?

A

ACE-i’s

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32
Q

Definition of peripheral neuropathy?
How does it progress?

A
  • Distal symmetric diffuse senorimotor neuropathy
  • Starts in toes and progesses proximally
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33
Q

What is autonomic neuropathy?
Treatments?

A
  • Affects any part of the ANS
  • CV: orthostatic hypotension, dysrhytmias
  • GI: gastroparesis
  • TX: glucose control, small meals, prokinetics
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34
Q

DM preop anesthesia concerns?

A
  • Assess hydration status, avoid nephrotoxins, and preserve RBF
  • Gastroparesis may ↑aspiration rx, regardless of NPO status
  • PO diabetic drugs should be held to avoid hypoglycemia
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35
Q

What is an insulinoma?
Who is at greater risk?

A
  • Benign insulin-secreting pancreatic tumor
  • Occurs 2x more in women than men, normally in 50s-60s
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36
Q

How is an insulinoma diagnosed?

A

Whipple triad:
* Hypoglycemia w/ fasting
* Blood glucose < 50 w/sx
* Sx relief w/glucose

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37
Q

What drug should be given preop to someone with an insulinoma?
Insulinoma treatment?

A
  • Diazoxide, which inhibits insulin release from B cells
  • Surgery is curative
38
Q

The thyroid gland is innervated by which system?

A

Both adrenergic and cholinergic nervous systems

39
Q

What is production of thyroid hormones reliant on?

A

Exogenous iodine

40
Q

How does iodine become thyroid hormones?

A
  • Transported into thyroid fallicular cells after GI absorption
  • Iodide binds to thyroglobulin and yields inactive monoiodotyrosine and diiodotyrosine
  • These undergo coupling w/ thyroid peroxidase to form thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)
41
Q

T4/T3 ratio?

42
Q

Hypothalamus role in thyroid regulation?

A

The hypothalamus secretes Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which signals the anterior pituitary to release thyrotropin-stimulating hormone (TSH)

43
Q

Role of TSH in regulation of T3 and T4?

A
  • TSH binds to thyroid receptors and enhances thesynthesis/release of T3 & T4
  • TSH is also influenced by plasma levels of T3 & T4 via a negative feedback loop
44
Q

Best test to assess thyroid activity?

45
Q

Normal TSH level?

A

0.4-5.0 milliunits/L

46
Q

What test is used to test pituatary function and TSH secretion?

A

TRH stimulation test

47
Q

What test can determine if a thyroid lesion is cystic, solid, or mixed?

A

Ultrasound

48
Q

3 causes of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Graves (leading cause)
  • Toxic goiter
  • Toxic adenoma
49
Q

Symptoms of hyperthyroidism?

A
  • Anxious
  • Flushed
  • Exopthalmos
  • Increased DTR
  • Emotional instability
  • Tachycardia, hyperdynamic
50
Q

Patho of graves disease?
Lab findings?

A
  • Autoimmune, c/b thyroid-stimulating antibodies, stimulating growth, vascularity, and hypersecretion
  • +TSH antibodies, low TSH, high T3 & T4
51
Q

Graves disease treatments?

A
  • 1st line: methimazole or propylthiouracil (PTU)
  • BB relieve symptoms (propanolol impairs peripheral conversion of T4 to T3)
  • Subtotal thyroidectomy
52
Q

What is thyroid storm?
Triggers?
Lab findings?

A
  • Life-threatening hyperthyroid exacerbation
  • Triggered by stress, trauma, infection, medical illness, or surgery (inadequate treatment after emergency)
  • Thyroid hormone levels in thyroid storm may not be much higher than basic hyperthyroidism
53
Q

1st and 2nd most common cause of hypothyroidsim?

A

1st - thyroid gland ablation
2nd - idopathic, likely autoimmune (hashimoto’s thyroiditis)

54
Q

Hypothyroidism symptoms?

A
  • Fatigue
  • Apathy
  • Pale, cool skin
  • Decreased CO
  • Decreased ECG amplitude
55
Q

Hypothyroidism treatment?

A

Levothyroxine

56
Q

What is myxedema coma?

A
  • Rare, severe form of hypothyroidism characterized by delirium, hypoventilation, hypothermia, bradycardia, HoTN, and dilutional hyponatremia
  • Medical emergency
57
Q

Myxedema coma treatments?

A
  • IV hydration w/glucose solutions, temp regulation, e-lyte correction, and supportive care
  • Mechanical ventilation is frequently required
58
Q

Causes of goiter?

A
  • Lack of iodine
  • Ingestion of goitrogen
  • Hormone defect
59
Q

What may the patient need if both layrngeal nerves are damaged?

A

Tracheostomy d/t AW obstruction (vocal cords close)

60
Q

How may hypoparathyroidism present after thyroid surgery?

A

Hypocalcemia within 48 hours

61
Q

What does the adrenal cortex synthesize?

A

glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), and androgens

62
Q

What is the pathway for adrenal secretion of substances?

A
  • Hypothalamus sends corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) to the anterior pituitary, which stimulates release of corticotropin (ACTH)
  • ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol
  • Cortisol helps convert NE to EPI, and induces hyperglycemia
63
Q

What is pheochromocytoma?

A

Catecholamine-secreting tumor that originates from chromaffin cells

64
Q

Where do pheochromocytomas occur?

A
  • 80% occur in the adrenal medulla
  • 18% in organ of Zuckerkandle (glands)
  • 2% neck/thorax
65
Q

How do pheochromocytomas change epi and norepinephrine secretion?

A

NE:EPI ratio 85:15, the inverse of normal adrenal secretion

66
Q

Diagnosis for pheochromocytoma?

A
  • 24h urine collection for metanephrines and catecholamines
  • CT & MRI
67
Q

Drugs used to treat pheochromocytoma?

A
  • Phenoxybenzamine- (most frequent) - noncompetitive α1 antagonist with some α2-blocking properties
  • Prazosin & Doxazosin- pure α1 blockers, shorter acting w/ less tachycardia
  • CCB
68
Q

Why should you never give a nonselective BB before and alpha blocker?

A

Blocking vasodilatory β2 receptors results in unopposed α agonism, leading to vasoconstriction and hypertensive crises

69
Q

What are the 2 forms of Cushings (hypercortisolism)?

A

ACTH-dependent Cushings: high plasma ACTH stimulates adrenal cortex to produce excess cortisol
ACTH-independent Cushings: excessive cortisol production by abnormal adrenocortical tissue that is not regulated by CRH and ACTH (adrenocortical tumors)

70
Q

Symptoms of Cushings?

A

sudden weight gain - usually central w/ ↑facial fat (moon face), ecchymoses, HTN, glucose intolerance,muscle wasting, depression, insomnia

71
Q

Treatment for Cushings?

A
  • transsphenoidal microadenomectomy if resectable (1st choice)
  • Ant. pituatary resection
  • Adrenalectomy for adenoma or carcinoma
71
Q

Anesthesia concerns for hypercortisolism?

A
  • Manage BP
  • Cosider osteoporosis in positioning
72
Q

What are the two forms of Conn Syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)?

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism: Excess secretion of aldosterone c/b tumor (aldosteronoma) - decreased renin
Secondary hyperaldosteronism: c/b elevated renin levels

73
Q

Hallmark symptom of hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spontaneous HTN w/hypokalemia

74
Q

What can mimic hyperaldosteronism?

A

Long-term ingestion of licorice

75
Q

Treatments for hyperaldosteromism?

A
  • Aldosterone antagonist (Spironolactone)
  • K+ replacement
  • antihypertensives
  • diuretics
  • tumor removal
  • possible adrenalectomy
76
Q

Hallmark symptoms for hypoaldosteronism?
Treatment?

A
  • Hyperkalemia in the absecene of renal insufficiency
  • Commonly have hypercholremic metabolic acidosis
  • Increased Na+ intake and daily fludrocortisone
77
Q

What are the 2 types of adrenal insufficency?

A

Primary (Addison dz): Autoimmune adrenal gland suppression (>90% of the glands must be involved before signs appear)
Secondary: hypothalamic-pituitary suppression leading to a lack of CRH or ACTH production - only gluccocorticoid deficency

These patients lack pigmentation

78
Q

Diagnosis for adrenal insufficency?
Treatments?

A
  • Baseline cortisol < 20 μg/dL and remains < 20 μg/dL after ACTH stimulation
  • Tx: steroids
79
Q

How many PT glands are there?
What causes PTH release or inhibition?

A
  • 4, behind the thyroid gland
  • Hypocalcemia stimulates release
  • Hypercalcemia stimulates inhibition
80
Q

What causes primary hyperparathyroidsim?

A
  • benign parathyroid adenoma (90%)
  • carcinoma (< 5%)
  • parathyroid hyperplasia
81
Q

Symptoms and treatment for hyperparathyroidism?

A

Sx: lethargy, weakness, n/v, polyuria, renal stones, PUD, cardiac disturbances
TX: surgical removal of abnormal portions of the gland

82
Q

What is secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

compensatory response of the parathyroid glands to counteract a separate disease process involving hypocalcemia (CKD)

83
Q

What is pseudohypoparathyroidsim?

A

Disorder where PTH is adequate,but the kidneys are unable to respond to it

84
Q

Labs for hypoparathyroidism?
Anesthesia concerns?
Treatments?

A

Labs: ↓PTH, ↓Ca++,↑phos
Anesthesia concerns: Acute hypocalcemia s/a after accidental parathyroid removal may cause inspiratory stridor or laryngospasm
Tx: Tx: Calcium replacement, Vitamin D

85
Q

What hromones are secreted by the anterior and posterior pituatary?

A

Anterior: GH, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, prolactin
Posterior: vasopressin and oxytocin

86
Q

What is acromegaly?
Treatments?

A
  • Excessive growth hormone (insulin-like growth factor 1), most often seen with anterior pituitary adenomas
  • Causes overgrowth of soft tissues (airway obstruction)
  • Tx: removal of pituatary adenoma or somatostatin analouges
87
Q

What are the 2 types of DI (vasopressin deficiency)?

A

Central/Neurogenic DI: destruction/dysfunction of the posterior pituitary
Nephrogenic DI: failure of kidneys to respond to ADH

88
Q

How can you treat DI?

A

Neurogenic DI: DDAVP
Nephrogenic DI: low-salt, low-protein diet, thiazide diuretics, and NSAIDs

89
Q

What is SIADH?
Symptoms and treatment?

A
  • Excessive vasopressin
  • hyponatremia, ↓serum osmolarity, ↑urine sodium and osmolarity
  • Tx: fluid restriction, Na+ tabs, loop diuretics, ADHantagonists (Demeclocycline)