Exam 4 - Coagulation Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 goals of hemostais?

A
  • To limit blood loss from vascular injury
  • Maintain intravascular blood flow
  • Promote revascularization after thrombosis
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2
Q

What are the 2 stages of hemostatsis?

A

Primary - Platelet plug formation, adequate for minor injuries
Secondary - activation of clotting factors →stabilized crosslinked clot

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3
Q

Anti-clotting mechanisms of endothelial cells:
- are ____ to repel platelets
- produce platelet inhibitors ____ and ____
- excrete ____, which degrades ADP - a platelet activator
- increase ____, an anticoagulant
- produce ____, which inhibits factor Xa and TF-VIIa complex
- Synthesizes ____

A
  • are negatively charged to repel platelets
  • produce platelet inhibitors prostacyclin and nitric oxide
  • excrete adenosine diphosphatase, which degrades ADP - a platelet activator
  • increase protein C, an anticoagulant
  • produce tissue factor pathway inhbitor (TFPI), which inhibits factor Xa and TF-VIIa complex
  • Synthesizes tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
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4
Q

What are platelets derived from?

A

Bone-marrow megakaryocytes

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5
Q

Inactive platelet lifespan?

A

8-12 days

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6
Q

How many platelets are used just to maintain vascular integrity?
How many are made daily?

A

10%
120-150 billion

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7
Q

What increases the membrane surface area of platelets?

A

Numerous receptors and surface canalicular system

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8
Q

Damage to the endothelium exposes the underlying ECM which contains what?
What does this cause?

A

Collagen, vWf, glycoproteins
Platelet adhesion and activation

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9
Q

What happens when platelets are activated?

A

Release of alpha granules and dense bodies

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10
Q

What is contained within alpha granules?

A

fibrinogen, factor V, VIII, vWF, and PLT growth factors

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11
Q

What is contained within dense bodies?

A

ADP, ATP, Ca++, serotonin, histamine, and epinephrine

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12
Q

How does platelet aggregation occur?

A

Occurs when granular contents are released - activating additional platelets

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13
Q

Each stage of the clotting cascade require assembly of what?

A

membrane-bound activated tenase-complexes

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14
Q

Each membrane tenase complex is composed of?

A
  1. Substrate
  2. Enzyme
  3. Cofactor
  4. Calcium
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15
Q

Draw the clotting cascade

A
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16
Q

What are the common names for the clotting factors?

A

Foolish People Try Climbing Long Slopes After Christmas, Some People Have Fallen

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17
Q

The TF/VIIa complex activates what?

A

X to Xa
IX to IXa

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18
Q

What is the major role of the intrinsic pathway?

A

Amplifies coagulation to propagate thrombin generation initiated by the extrinsic pathway

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19
Q

What activates factor XII to start the intrinsic pathway?

A

Contact with a negatively charged surface

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20
Q

In the intrinsic pathway, what converts factor X to Xa?

A

IXa + VIIIa + Ca++

Intinisic tenase complex

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21
Q

What factors does activated thrombin (IIa) activate?

A

V, VII, VIII, and XI

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22
Q

What makes up the prothrombinase complex?
What does it do?

A

Xa + Va + Ca
Converts prothrombin (II) to thrombin (IIa)

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23
Q

How does thrombin generate fibrin?

A

Cleaves fibrinopeptides from fibrinogen to generate fibrin
Fibrin then polymerizes into strands to form basic clot

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24
Q

What does factor XIIIa do?

A

Crosslinks the fibrin strands to stablize the clot - making it resistant to degredation

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25
Q

What is the key step in regulating hemostasis?

A

Thrombin generation

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26
Q

What makes up the intrinsic and and extrisic tenase compexes?
What do these facilitate?

A

Formation of prothrombinase complex

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27
Q

What are the 4 major coagulation counter mechanisms?

A
  • Fibrinolysis
  • Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor (TFPI)
  • Protein C system
  • Serine Protease Inhibtors (SERPINs)
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28
Q

How does fibrinolysis occur?

A

Endovascular TPA & urokinase convert plasminogen to plasmin

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29
Q

How does plasmin cause fibrinolysis?

A

Plasmin breaks down clots enzymatically, and degrades factors V & VIII

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30
Q

How does TFPI function to counter the coagulation cascade?

A
  • Forms complex w/ Xa that inhibits TF/7a complex
  • Thereby downregulating the extrinsic pathway
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31
Q

What does protein C do?

A

Inhibits factors II, Va, and VIIIa

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32
Q

What are the 3 SERPINs and how do they work?

A
  • Antithrombin (AT) inhibits thrombin, factors 9a (IXa), 10a (Xa), 11a (XIa), 12a (XIIa)
  • Heparin binds to AT, causing a conformational change that accelerates AT activity
  • Heparin cofactor II inhibits thrombin alone
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33
Q

If a bleeding disorder is suspected in a patient, what are the first line labs?

A

PT and aPTT

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34
Q

What is the most common inherited bleeding disorder?

A

Von Willebrands Disease

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35
Q

Patho of vWD?

A
  • Deficiency in vWF, causing defective plt adhesion/aggregation
  • vWF plays critical role in plt adhesion & prevents degradation of factor 8 (VIII)
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36
Q

Lab findings in vWD?

A

Normal PT and platelets
aPTT could be prolonged d/t decreased factor VIII

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37
Q

Treeatment for vWD?

A

DDAVP (increase vWF synthesis) or Factor VIII concentrates

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38
Q

What clotting factors are defiecent in hemophilia A and B?

A

A: Factor VIII deficient
B: Factor IX deficient

39
Q

Lab findings in hemophilia?

A

PT, Plt, and bleeding time normal
PTT prolonged

40
Q

What is the most significant cause of intraoperative bleeding?

A

Anticoagulant meds and supplements

41
Q

What meds can increase bleeding that you may not consider?

A
  • Beta-lactam abx
  • Nitroprusside
  • NO
  • NTG
  • SSRIs
42
Q

Supplements that can cause bleeding?

A
  • Cayenne
  • Garlic
  • Ginger
  • Gingko
  • Grapeseed oil
  • SJW
  • Turmeric
  • Vitamin E
43
Q

What clotting factors are NOT made in the liver?

A

I-IV, VIII, XIII

44
Q

Coagulation lab findings in patients with liver disease?

A

Prolonged PT and PTT
Labs don’t show lack of anticoagulant factors

45
Q

Why do CKD patients show a baseline anemia?

A
  • Lack of EPO
  • Plt dysfunction from uremia
46
Q

Treatment of plt dysfunction in CKD?

A
  • Cryo (rich in vWF)
  • DDAVP
  • Conjugated estrogens
47
Q

DIC patho?

A

Depletion of coag factors and plts d/t excessive activation of the extrinsic pathway that overwhelms anticoagulant mechanisms - leading to large amounts of thrombin and microemboli

48
Q

Lab findings in DIC?

A

↓Plts, prolonged PT/PTT/Thrombin time,↑soluble fibrin & fibrin degradation products

49
Q

Cause of trauma induced coagulopathy?

A

Activated protein C (from hypoperfusion) decreases thrombin generation

50
Q

What causes “auto heparinization” seen in TIC?

A

Proteoglycan shedding

51
Q

Factor V leiden patho?

A

Genetic mutation of factor V leading to activated protien C resistance

52
Q

What prothrombotic state generally presents with venous thrombi?

A

Thrombophilia

53
Q

What is antiphospholipid syndrome?
Sx?
Tx?

A
  • Autoimmune disorder w antibodies againest phospholipid binding proteins
  • Recurrent thrombosis and miscarrage/spontaneous abortion
  • Often requires life long anticoagulants
54
Q

HIT patho?

A

Autoimmune response resulting in platelet count reduction as well as activation of the remaining platelets and potential thrombosis

55
Q

What is contraindicated in HIT?
How long do the antibodies stay in the circulation?

A
  • Warfarin - decreases protein C and S synthesis
  • Clear within 3 months
56
Q

What does Prothrombin Time measure?

A
  • Assesses extrinsic and common pathways
  • Reflectsdeficiencies in factors I, II, V, VII, X
  • Used to monitor warfarin levels (WEPT)
57
Q

What is activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) measuring?

A
  • Assesses intrinsic and common pathways
  • Sensitive to factor VIII and IX deficiencies
  • May be used to monitor heparin
58
Q

What is an anti-factor Xa activity assay?

A

Provides assessment of heparin and other factor Xa inhibitors (LMWH, fondaparinux)

59
Q

Normal PLT count?

60
Q

What does activated clotting time (ACT) measure?

A
  • Measures intrinsic and extrinsic pathways - whole clotting time
  • Normal is 107 +/- 13 secs
  • Used to measure responsiveness to heparin
61
Q

Fill in this chart

62
Q

MOA of cyclooxygenase inhibitors?

A

Inhibit COX-1 from forming TXA2 - which is important in plt aggregation

63
Q

What are the COX inhibitors?
How long do they affect platelets?

A

ASA - effects last 7-10 days after d/c
NSAIDS - effects last 3 days

64
Q

What are the P2Y12 inhibitors?
MOA?

A

Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Ticagrelor, and Cangrelor
Inhibit P2Y12-R→preventing GIIb/IIIa expression

65
Q

How long do the antiplatelets effects last for the P2Y12 inhibitors?

A
  • Clopidogrel: anti-plt effects x 7 days after d/c
  • Ticlopidine: anti-plt effects x 14-21 days after d/c
  • Ticagrelor & Cangrelor: Short-acting, < 24h activity
66
Q

How do GIIb/IIIa antagonisits work?
What drugs are in this class?

A
  • Prevent vWF and fibrinogen from binding to the GIIb/IIIa receptors on platelets
  • Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban
67
Q

Warfarin inhibts…?

A

Vitamin K dependent clotting factors (2, 7, 9, 10, Protein C & S)

68
Q

What is the drug of choice for valvular afib and valve replacements?

69
Q

Heparin MOA?

A

Binds to antithrombin (increasing it’s activity)→ directly inhibits soluble thrombin and Xa

70
Q

Compare unfractionated heparin and LMWH?

A

Unfractionated: Short HL, given IV, Fully reversable w/Protamine, Close monitoring required
LMWH: Longer HL, dosed BID SQ, No coag testing needed, Protamine only partially effective

71
Q

Can you reverse fondaparinux with protamine?

72
Q

What are the direct thrombin inhibitors and their MOA?

A
  • Hirudin, Argatroban, Bivalirudin, Dabigatran
  • Bind/block thrombin in both soluble & fibrin-bound states
73
Q

What anticoagulant is naturally occuring in leeches?

74
Q

Which direct thrombin inhibitor has the shortest half life and is the DOC for liver/renal impairment?

A

Bivalirudin

75
Q

What was the first direct oral anticoagulant?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa)

76
Q

Which direct thrombin inhibitor reversibly binds thrombin?
What labs are monitored intraop?

A

Argatroban
PTT or ACT

77
Q

What are the direct Xa inhibitors?

A

Rivaroxaban (Xarelto), Apixaban (Eliquis), Edoxaban (Savaysa)

78
Q

What are the 2 categories or thrombolytics and the drugs in each category?

A
  • Fibrin-specific: Alteplase (tPA), Reteplase, Tenecteplase
  • Non-fibrin specific: Streptokinase
79
Q

How long should someone wait who hase received thrombolytic therapy?

80
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to thrombolytic therapy?

81
Q

What are the 2 subclasses of fibrinolytics oand the drugs in each?

A
  1. Lysine analogues: Epsilon-amino-caproic acid (EACA) & Tranexamic Acid (TXA)
  2. SERPIN: Aprotinin (removed from market d/t renal & cardio toxicity)
82
Q

MOA of lysine analogues?

A

Binds & inhibits plasminogen from becoming plasmin→impairing fibrinolysis

83
Q

What are the 4 factor replacements used to improve clotting?

A
  • Recombinant VIIa
  • Prothrombin Complex Concentrate (PCC)
  • Fibrinogen concentratre
  • Cryoprecipitate and FFP
84
Q

Which factor replacement increases generation of thrombin?

85
Q

Which factor replacement contains Vit K factors?

A

Prothrombin Complex Concentrates

86
Q

When should warfarin be stopped and restarted perioperatively?

A

Low risk pts: 5 days prior, resumed 12-24hr post op
High risk pts: 5 days prior, bridge with heparin through surgery

87
Q

When should UFH and LMWH be stopped and restarted perioperatively?

A

UFH: stop 4-6h preop, resume >12 h post op
LMWH: stop 24 preop, resume 24h post op

88
Q

When should ASA be stopped before surgery?

A

Moderate and high risk pts: continue ASA
Low risk: 7-10 days prior

89
Q

How long should elective surgery be delayed for patients who have bare metal and drug eluting stents post PCI?

A

Bare metal - 6 weeks
Drug-eluting - 6 months

90
Q

Which anticoagulants do we need to worry about when preforming neuraxial anesthesia?

A

Heparin TID SQ
Lovenox qD
Warfarin

91
Q

What drug would you give for emergent reversal of warfarin?

A

PCC (short 1/2 life)
Vit K also for more sustained correction

92
Q

Which DOAC has a reveral drug and what is it?

A

Dabigatran (Pradaxa) - reversed with Idarucizumab

93
Q

Oral factor Xa inhibitors can be reversed with what?