Exam 1 - Preop Assessment Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of a complete medical history?

A
  • Past medical history
  • Reason for surgery
  • Review of systems
  • Previous anesthetic complications
  • Medications
  • Allergies
  • Drug use
  • Functional capacity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the (metric) formula for BMI?

A

BMI = weight (kg) / height (m)²

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the (imperial) formula for BMI?

A

703 · BW (lbs) ÷ height (inches)²

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a normal BMI?
What is an obese BMI?
Why is BMI not very accurate?

A

Normal: 18.5-24.9
Obese: > 30.0
BMI does not account for muscle mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why is it important to complete a baseline neuro exam?

A

To determine patients pre-surgical baseline to be able to catch any new defecits post-op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What mnemonic guides an emergent physical examination?

A

AMPLE
- Allergies
- Medications
- Past medical history
- Last meal (assume full stomach)
- Events leading up to need for surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the components of a pre-op airway examination?

A
  • Mallampati
  • Inter-incisors gap
  • Thyromental distance
  • Forward movement mandible
  • Range of cervical spine (flexion and extension)
  • Loose/chipped teeth (ensure patient is aware of danger of loss of teeth during intubation)
  • Tracheal deviation (mass?)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What complications account for almost half of perioperative mortalities?

A

Cardiovascular complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most significant adverse respiratory event that can occur during anesthesia?

A

Hypoxemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What court case helped establish the practice of informed consent in modern medicine?

A

Salgo v. Leland Stanford Jr. University Board of Trustees(1957)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is frailty?

A

A state of increased vulnerability to physiologic stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What group of surgeries has the highest risk?

A

Vascular (Aortic, major, & peripheral vascular) > 5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Revised Cardiac Risk Index (RCRI)?
What are the components?

A

Estimates risk of cardiac complications after surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is functional capacity?

A

Assesses cardiopulmonary fitness and estimates risk for major post-op morbidity and mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is funcitonal capacity measured?
What is its units?
What level is desired before surgery?

A
  • METs (metabolic equivalent of task)
  • 1 MET = 3.5 mL O2/kg/min
  • > 4 METs is desired (need to climb one flight of stairs without getting short of breath or chest pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three levels of urgency of surgery?

A
  • Emergent - Life or limb threatened, sx needed within 6 hours, no cardiac pre-op necessary.
  • Urgent - Life or limb threatened, sx needed in 6-24 hours.
  • Time-sensitive - delays exceeding 1-6 weeks would adversely affect patient.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who described the 6 degree ASA Physical Status grading?

A

Meyer Saklad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe an ASA I patient?

A

A normal healthy patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe an ASA II patient?

A

A patient with mild systemic disease without functional limitations (smoker, social drinker, pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe an ASA III patient?

A

A patient with severe systemic disease with substantive functional limitations (poorly controlled DM or HTN, COPD, CVA, morbid obesity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe an ASA IV patient?

A

A patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life (recent <3 months MI, CVA, or stents, sepsis, ARDS, severe valve dysfunction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe an ASA V patient?

A

A moribound patient that is not expected to survive without surgery (ruptured AAA, massive trauma, ischemic bowel with MODS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Describe and ASA VI patient?

A

A declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When should pre-op testing be ordered?

A

If it can identify abnormalities, change the diagnosis or management plan, or change the patients outcome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When should CBC or H/H be ordered pre-op?
* Surgery with potential blood loss * ASA III or IV * All patient undergoing major operations * Known coagulopathies
26
When should renal testing be ordered pre-op?
* DM, HTN, cardiac dx, N/V, ESRD * ASA III and IV undergoing intermediate risk procedures * ASA II, III, IV undergoing major operations
27
What lab test is for wafarin? What pathway does in test?
PT, extrinsic pathway **W**arfarin **E**xtrinsic **PT**
28
Fill in the labs in the image below:
29
What condition makes one more prone to latex allergy?
- Spina Bifida
30
What is important to notify women of if they recieve sugammedex?
They need to use alternative forms of birth control because sugammadex can inactivate birth control
31
What are the most common anaphylactic drug allergy? What other two drugs have really common allergies?
- NMBs with rocuronium being the most common - Antibiotics & chlorhexidine
32
What antibiotic classes are the most common causes of anaphylaxis?
Penicillins and cephalosporins
33
What may a patient be experiencing when they say they have a vancomycin allergy?
Red man syndrome - side effect caused by histamine release, not an allergy
34
What are people reacting to when given an ester local anesthetic?
The preservative in the solution - para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
35
What cross-reactivity allergies are possible for someone who has a known neuromuscular blocking agent allergy?
- Neostigmine & Morphine
36
What medications should be **continued** prior to surgery?
* Antihypertensives - **not ACEi or ARBs** * Antidepressants and other psych meds * Thyroid medications * Opiods * Anticonvulsants * Asthma meds * Corticosteroids * Statins ##Footnote 4 A’s To Obtain Cornelius’ Standards
37
How should you adjust your anesthestia plan for someone taking an MAOI?
Avoid meperidine and in-direct acting vasopressers (ephedrine)
38
What medications need to be **discontinued** for surgery?
- Aspirin & P2Y12 Inhibitors (clopidogrel & ticlopidine) - Topical Medications - Diuretics - Sildenafil - NSAIDs - Warfarin (continue for cataract sx) - Post Menopausal Hormone Replacement Therapy - Non-insulin DM meds (SGLT2 inhibitors)
39
What insulin should a type 1 diabetic take (or not take) the day of their surgery?
- DC short-acting - Continue basal rate if using a pump - Take 1/3 of normal long-acting if no pump.
40
What insulin should a type 2 diabetic take (or not take) the day of their surgery?
- DC short-acting - Continue basal rate if using a pump - 0 - 50% of normal long-acting dose
41
What drug and dose of steroids is standard for a patient having surgery taking gluccocorticoids? Why is it important to bolus them steroids perioperatively?
* Hydrocortisone 100 mg q6-8h * Exogenous gluccocorticoids supress cortisol secretion * Stress dose steroid regimens replace physiologic cortisol levels. (thus prevent adrenal crisis)
42
What herbs/supplements carry an increased risk of bleeding?
- Saw Palmetto - Garlic - Ginger - Ginkgo - Ginseng - Green Tea (essentially; saw palmetto & anything starting with a "g")
43
Which herbs/supplements carry an increased risk of excessive sedation/anxiolysis?
- Kava - St. John's Wort - Valerian - Melatonin
44
Which herbs/supplements carry a cardiovascular risk (especially intraoperatively)? Why?
- Ephedra (ma huang) - Basically ephedrine = ↑ HR & BP
45
How long before a procedure should a patient be NPO after a full fatty meal?
8 hours
46
If a patient just ate toast mith coffee and milk, how long should they be NPO prior to surgery?
6 hours
47
How long does an infant need to be NPO after having breast milk?
4 hours
48
How long after drinking water or tea can a patient have surgery?
2 hours
49
What is Mendelson syndrome? What two factors increase your risk for this?
- Aspiration Pneumonitis - Increased risk of aspiration due to > 25mL of gastric contents and a gastric pH < 2.5.
50
What can be done to prevent aspiration pneumonitis?
- ↓gastric volume and ↑gastric pH
51
What drugs are given to help prevent aspiration pneumonitis?
- Antacids (ex. sodium citrate;↑pH) - H2 Antagonists (ex. famotidine; ↑pH, ↓ secretion) - PPI's (ex. omeprazole; ↑pH, ↓ secretion) - D2 Antagonist (ex. metaclopramide; reduces gastric volume) - give sedation before this drug d/t dyskinesia
52
What scoring tool is used to determine PONV risk?
- Simplified Apfel Score
53
What are the four risk factors of a Simplified Apfel Score?
- Female - Hx of PONV/motion sickness - Non-smoker - Post-op opioids
54
What sort of risk is conferred by an Apfel score of 1-2? What would be done with this score?
- Moderate-severe risk - Prevention with 2-3 antiemetics & limiting opioids.
55
What sort of risk is conferred by an Apfel score of 3-4? Treatments?
- Severe risk - Avoid volatiles, use propofol. No opioids if possible, use 3 different classes of antiemetics.
56
What drugs are useful in prevention/treatment of PONV?
- Scopolamine (necessary well in advance) - GABA analogs (lower opioid usage) - Ondansetron (5HT3 antagonist) - Promethazine (H1 Antagonist) - Dexamethasone (may cause perineal burning)
57
What should be known about presurgical antibiotics?
- Prophylactic abx should be given within 1 hour before incision - Vanc & fluoroquinolone should be initiated within 2 hours before incision.
58
What is the most commonly administerd surgical antibiotic? What does it treat? Dose?
- Cefazolin - Broad-spectrum beta-lactam antimicrobial agent that treats most aerobic gram-positive bacteria - 2g; if >120 kg then 3g
59
What does clindamycin treat? Dose?
- gram-positve and gram negative aerobic bacteria - recommended in many intrabdominal procedures - 900 mg
60
What does vancomycin treat? Dose?
- Gram-positive bacteria - Recommended for distal ilium, colon, and appendix surgeries - 15mg/kg