Exam 1 - Physical Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When should patient identification be completed?
Who is important to be involved?

A
  • Prior to administration of mind altering substances
  • The patient
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2
Q

Why is it important to chart core temperatures and have accurate post-op temperatures?

A
  • Core temperatures are most accurate
  • Post-op temperatures are typically a QI measure ($)
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3
Q

What is anthropometry?

A

The study of the measurements and proportions of the body

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4
Q

What does someone with redundant neck tissue and snoring alert you to?

A

The patient may have a difficuly airway and be prone to obstruct

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5
Q

What might recent weight gain or loss alert you to?

A
  • Weight loss: cancer or undiagnosed T1DM
  • Weight gain: CHF, hypothyroidsim
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6
Q

Approximately what should the axillary temp be in comparison to a core temperature?

A
  • 1° lower
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7
Q

Why is it important to investigate patient reported allergies?

A
  • Some reported allergies may just be medication side effects (ex: lido w/ epi can cause tachycardia, sedation from benzos)
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8
Q

What should we focus on with patients that have known or suspected drug abuse?

A
  • Yes or no primarily, not necissarily doses
  • Focus on drugs with high clinical significance like coke and meth
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9
Q

Why is an accurate pack year history important?

A
  • Pack year history correlates to risk of lung cancer and median survival rate if diagnosed
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10
Q

Why is it important to review lab data trends for each specific patient?
Example?

A
  • What may be normal for one patient, could be abnormal for another.
  • Smokers are typically hemoconentrated, so is it from them smoking or are they dehydrated?
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11
Q

What is palpation used to assess?

A
  • Texture
  • Masses (firm or soft?)
  • Fluid
  • Skin temperature
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12
Q

How deep would one palpate with light palpation technique?
Deep palpation technique?

A
  • 1-2 cm
  • 4-5 cm
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13
Q

What is percussion used to assess?

A
  • Evaluation of the prescence of air or fluid in body tissues
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14
Q

What is Mediate or Indirect Percussion?
How is it performed and what is its purpose?

A
  • Plexor (striking finger) & pleximeter (finger being struck).
  • Evaluation of abdomen and thorax
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15
Q

What is Immediate percussion? What is it utilized for?

A
  • Striking of surface directly with fingers of the hand.
  • Adult sinus or infant thorax evaluation.
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16
Q

What is Fist percussion? What is it utilized for?

A
  • Flat hand on area to be evaluated being struck with a fist.
  • Used to evaluate the back & kidney for tenderness.
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17
Q

What are the three forms of percussion?

A
  • Mediate/Indirect percussion
  • Immediate percussion
  • Fist percussion
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18
Q

What would be expected with tympanic, drum-like percussion?

A
  • Air-containg space (puffed out cheek, gastric air bubble, etc.)
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19
Q

What would be expected with resonant, hollow sounding percussion?

A
  • Normal lungs
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20
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed hyper-resonant, booming percussive sounds?

A
  • Emphysematous lungs
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21
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed dull, thud-like percussive sounds?

A
  • Softer organs (ex. Liver)
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22
Q

What would be an expected finding with assessed flat percussive sounds?

A
  • Denser organs (ex. muscle)
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23
Q

What temperature does one need to be to go to PACU?

A

96°

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24
Q

When is circumoral cyanosis primarily seen?
How might circumoral cyanosis present on patients with darker skin tones?

A
  • In infants primarily above the upper lip.
  • gray or white rather than blue
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25
Q

What is the cause of jaundice?

A

Elevated bilirubin, assumer impaired liver function

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26
Q

What are situations that can cause jaundice?

A
  • Acute liver inflammation
  • Inflammation/obstruction of the bile duct
  • Cholestasis
  • Hemolytic anemia
  • Gilbert’s syndrome
  • Crigler-Najjar syndrome
  • Dubin-Johnson syndrome
  • Pseudojaundice

Always Inform Clients How Great Crnas Deliver Perioperatively

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27
Q

What causes pseudojaundice? How harmful is it?

A
  • Harmless condition caused by excess carrots, pumpkins or melon consumption (↑ β-carotene)
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28
Q

What is Gilbert’s syndrome?

A
  • Inherited condition where enzymes can’t process bile excretion.
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29
Q

What is Crigler-Najjar’s syndrome?

A
  • Inherited condition where enzyme that processes bilirubin is ineffective.
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30
Q

What is Dubin-Johnson syndrome?

A
  • Inherited chronic jaundice where bilirubin can’t be secreted from the hepatic cells.
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31
Q

What type of cells does vitiligo attack?
When does it usually appear?

A
  • Melanocytes
  • After a triggering event like a cut, scrape, or bruise
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32
Q

What is the sign name of periorbital ecchymosis?
What does it indicate?

A
  • Battle’s Sign: indicates basilar skull fracture.
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33
Q

What are petechiae indicative of?

A
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Leukemia
  • Infectious disease
  • Medications
  • Prolonged straining (coughing)
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34
Q

What are Kaposis sarcoma a result of?

35
Q

What is koilonychia? What is it often indicative of?

A
  • Spoon-nails where nails become flat or convex. (opposite of clubbing)
  • Iron-deficiency anemia.
36
Q

What is nail clubbing? What is it often indicative of?

A
  • Increased concavity of nails
  • Heart/lung diseases, also potential osteoarthropathies.
37
Q

What is paronychia?

A
  • Inflammation of skin around the nail.
38
Q

What are Beau’s lines? What are they indicative of?

A
  • Horizontal striations that develop on the nail.
  • Lots of things. Nail trauma, kidney failure, mumps, thyroid disorders, syphilis, etc.
39
Q

What is hirsutism?
What are some of the causes?

A
  • Abnormal hair-growth in places where men usually have hair
  • PCOS
  • Cushings
  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • tumors
  • medications
40
Q

What should you be concerned about with funny looking kids?

A
  • They may have a genetic syndrome and they are typically difficult airways (Down’s)
  • Always assess the parents also…per Cornelius “sometimes funny looking kids have funny looking parents”
41
Q

What is the eye chart used for visual acuity called?

A

Snellen’s Chart

42
Q

What should we be concerned about for patients undergoing opthalmic procedures?
What anesthetic procedure can induce it?

A
  • Horner’s Syndrome
  • Interscalene block
43
Q

What are the symptoms Horner’s Syndrome?

A
  • Miosis: persistently small pupil
  • Anisocoria: a notable difference in pupil size between the two eyes
  • Ptosis: drooping of the upper eyelid
  • Little or delayed opening (dilation) of the affected pupil in dim light
  • Anhidrosis - little or no sweating either on the entire side of the face or an isolated patch of skin on the affected side
44
Q

What is ectropion?

A
  • Eversion of eyelid; lid margin turns out
45
Q

What is entropion?

A
  • Inversion of eyelid; lid margin turns in
46
Q

What is stage I of anesthesia?

A

Stage of analgesia
Extends from beginning of anesthetic inhalation to loss of conciousness.

47
Q

What is Arcus Senilis?

A
  • Deposition of phospholipids/cholesterol in the peripheral cornea of older patients. (benign usually)
48
Q

What occurs with the eyes during stage 2 of anesthesia?

A
  • Roving eyeball
  • Partial pupillary dilation
  • Loss of eyelash reflex (1st reflex lost)
  • No loss of eyelid reflex
49
Q

What is stage II of anesthesia?

A

Stage of delirium or excitement.
Extends fromloss of conciousness to beginningof regular respiration.

50
Q

What is stage III of anesthesia?

A

Stage of surgical anesthesia.

51
Q

What is ocular accomodation?

A

Ability of the eye to focus in on objects far away and close.

52
Q

What is the Random E test?

A

Used for those who cannot read or don’t know the alphabet. They must correctly identify the position of the ‘E’ as it gets smaller

53
Q

What opthalmic condition is a medical emergency?

A

Entrapment of occular nerves or muscles

54
Q

What condition causes loss of peripheral vision?
What class of medications is contraindicated in these patients?

A
  • Glaucoma
  • Anticholinergics
55
Q

What is most often the most important anesthetic consideration regarding the ears?

A

Padding during surgery to prevent injury

56
Q

Differentiate Weber’s & Rinne’s tests

A
  • Weber: tuning fork held on the head (assesses left vs right ear hearing)
  • Rinne: tuning fork held to each ear (bone vs air conduction)
57
Q

What are cherry colored lips a sign of?

A

Late sign of carbon monoxide poisioning

58
Q

What is Leukoplakia? What causes it?

A

Thick white patches on the gums from smoking and/or alcohol (usually precancerous)

59
Q

What 2 conditions can cause a bright red tongue?

A

B-12 and niacin deficiency

60
Q

What condition can cause spongy gums that bleed easily?

A

Vitamin C deficiency

61
Q

How do you assess function of the sternoclediomastoid muscle?

A

Ask the patient to flex the neck with the chin to the chest.

62
Q

How do you assess function of the trapezius muscle?

A

Ask the patient to move their head to their shoulder

63
Q

What needs to be checked pre-op with psych patients? Why?

A
  • EKG for prolonged QT interval. Many psych meds prolong QT interval.
64
Q

Which herb tends to cause an allergic reaction peri-operatively?

65
Q

Bedridden, wheelchair-bound patients should not receive what drug?

A

Succinylcholine

66
Q

Why should we not use nitrous on patients with full sinuses?

A

Nitrous can diffuse into the sinuses and increase pressure leading to postoperative pain and discomfort

67
Q

Where is the apical pulse located?

A
  • 5th Intercostal space, left of sternum, medial to left mid-clavicular line.
68
Q

What drug treats preeclampsia?
How can you check for overdose with this drug?

A
  • Magnesium
  • hypermagnesemia will cause patellar reflexes to disappear.
69
Q

Chipmunk face is associated with what disorder?

70
Q

Leoning face is associated with what disease?

71
Q

Spider angioma is associated with what liver disorder?

72
Q

Pyloric stenosis is associated with what shape mass?

73
Q

What is the Romberg test?

A

Assesses proprioception
Ask patient to stand with eyes closed and arms outstretched
Positive = unsteadiness

74
Q

When would we need to assess the gluteal nerve?

A

If a patient reports incontinence and has no gluteal nerve reflex they may have an epidural hematoma

75
Q

What is the name of the sign for RUQ pain?

A

Murphy’s sign

76
Q

What disease is associated with exopthalamus?

A

Hyperthyroidsim

77
Q

What disease causes a buffalo hump?

A

Cushing’s

78
Q

What disease is characteristic of rice water stool?
What was invented to treat this?

A
  • Cholera
  • Normal Saline
79
Q

What is the name for chest-clutching that occurs during MI?

A
  • Levine’s sign
80
Q

What capability is lost with peroneal nerve injury?

A
  • Dorsiflexion
81
Q

What is a VAN exam?
What does being VAN positive indicate?

A
  • A bedside assessment tool that assess risk for large cerebral vessel stroke
  • VAN (+) = ↑ risk for LVO (large vessel occlusion)
82
Q

What is another name for plantar reflex?

A

Babinski reflex

83
Q

What are seizure meds effects on anesthesia?

A
  • Seizure meds make anesthetics work less effectively.
84
Q

Pill-rolling tremors are associated with what disorder?

A
  • Parkinson’s