Exam 4 (Ch 22 & 23) (Mod 13) Flashcards

Question

# Assessment Abnormalities: Eyelids What is ectropion? Symptoms? Causes?

Answer 1

Description: Outward turning or drooping of the eyelid margin, usually the lower lid. Symptoms: Dryness, irritation, excessive tearing, redness, and potential corneal damage due to exposure. Causes: Age-related muscle weakness, scarring from injury or surgery, and skin diseases.

Answer 2

Description: A small, painful lump on the eyelid caused by a bacterial infection of an oil gland in the eyelid. Symptoms: Redness, swelling, pain, and a visible bump on the eyelid margin. Causes: Staphylococcus bacterial infection.

Answer 3

Description: Drooping of the upper eyelid. Symptoms: Partially or completely covering the pupil, affecting vision. Causes: Muscle weakness (myasthenia gravis), nerve damage (cranial nerve palsy), congenital conditions, aging, and injury.

Answer 4

Purpose: Detects changes in the central visual field, particularly in the macula. Method: The patient looks at a grid pattern and reports any distortions, blurred areas, or missing lines. Use: Used to monitor macular degeneration and other macular diseases.

Answer 5

Purpose: Visualizes the blood vessels in the retina and choroid. Method: A fluorescent dye is injected into a vein, and photographs are taken as the dye travels through the retinal blood vessels. Use: Diagnoses and monitors conditions like diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, and retinal vascular occlusions.

Answer 6

Purpose: Measures the extent of peripheral vision and detects blind spots. Method: The patient indicates when they see a light or target in their peripheral vision while focusing on a central point. Use: Detects glaucoma, optic nerve damage, and neurological conditions that affect vision.

Answer 7

Purpose: Measures refractive errors of the eye (nearsightedness, farsightedness, astigmatism). Method: Uses a phoropter or autorefractor to determine the lens power needed for clear vision. Use: Prescribes eyeglasses or contact lenses and assesses the need for refractive surgery.

Answer 8

Purpose: Creates images of the internal structures of the eye using sound waves. Method: A probe is placed on the eye or eyelid, and sound waves are used to generate images of the eye's interior. Use: Visualizes structures obscured by cataracts, detects retinal detachment, tumors, and foreign objects.

Answer 9

Nearsightedness Description: Difficulty seeing distant objects clearly, while near objects are seen sharply. Cause: The eyeball is too long, or the cornea is too curved, causing light to focus in front of the retina. Correction: Concave (diverging) lenses.

Answer 10

Farsightedness Description: Difficulty seeing near objects clearly, while distant objects are seen sharply. Cause: The eyeball is too short, or the cornea is too flat, causing light to focus behind the retina. Correction: Convex (converging) lenses.

Answer 11

Description: Age-related difficulty focusing on near objects, due to the lens losing its flexibility. Cause: Natural hardening of the lens with age, reducing its ability to change shape for near vision. Correction: Reading glasses, bifocals, or progressive lenses.

Answer 12

Description: Blurred vision at all distances due to an irregularly shaped cornea or lens. (football shaped) Cause: The cornea or lens is curved more in one direction than the other, causing light to focus unevenly on the retina. Correction: Toric lenses (special cylindrical lenses).

Answer 13

Description: Absence of the eye's lens, usually due to surgical removal (e.g., after cataract surgery). Cause: Surgical removal of the lens without an artificial lens implant. Correction: Thick eyeglasses, contact lenses, or intraocular lens (IOL) implant.

Answer 14

Corrective Glasses Contact Lenses Surgery can eliminate or reduce the need for eyeglasses or contact lenses and correct refractive errors by changing the focus of the eye.

Answer 15

* LASIK (Laser-Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis): A laser procedure that creates a flap in the cornea and reshapes the underlying tissue. (can be used to correct near and far sidedness) (very drying to the eyes) * PRK (Photorefractive Keratectomy): A laser procedure that removes the outer layer of the cornea and reshapes the underlying tissue. * IOL (Refractive Intraocular Lens) Implantation: Replacing the eye's natural lens with an artificial lens to correct refractive errors, often used in cataract surgery or for high refractive errors.

Answer 16

vision that cannot be fully corrected by corrective lenses, medical treatment, or surgery ## Footnote includes conditions ranging from low vision to the absence of all vision or total blindness

Answer 17

The best-corrected vision in the better eye of 20/200 or less or 20 degrees or less of remaining visual field.

Answer 18

Common eye diseases, including cataracts, glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration (AMD), and diabetic retinopathy. | Cataracts are a big one

Answer 19

1. Ask the patient whether they would like help. 2. Stand slightly in front and to one side of the patient and offer an elbow for the patient to hold. 3. Walk slightly in front of the patient at a pace that’s comfortable for them. 4. Serve as the sighted guide. As you walk, describe the environment to help orient the patient. 5. Never guide someone into a seat backward. Help the patient sit by placing 1 of their hands on the back of the chair. Then, allow the patient to orient themselves to the chair independently.

Answer 20

Societal devaluation of older adults may compound the self-esteem or isolation issues associated with visual impairment. Financial resources may be inadequate to secure vision services or assistive devices. Decreased vision may compromise the older patient's ability to function, resulting in concerns about independence and a diminished self-image. Decreased manual dexterity may make instilling prescribed eye drops hard. Those with low vision are more likely to make medication errors that are potentially dangerous, such as taking too much insulin or mistaking one drug for another.

Answer 21

Most common eye injuries in the United States are due to falls and fights. Injuries at home may be caused by cooking, cleaning, gardening, power tool use, and home repair work. | Sport and work-related injuries are other causes of eye trauma.

Answer 22

Chemical Burns (Acid or Alkaline) Foreign Bodies (Ceramic glass, metal etc.) Thermal Burn (UV light; direct burn from hot surface) Trauma (Blunt; penetrating)

Answer 23

Determine mechanism of injury. Ensure airway, breathing, and circulation. Assess for other injuries. Assess for chemical exposures. Begin eye irrigation immediately in case of chemical exposure. Do not stop until emergency personnel arrive to continue irrigation. Use sterile saline or water if saline is unavailable. Assess visual acuity. Do not put pressure on the eye. Tell patient not to blow nose. Do not try to treat the injury (except as noted above for chemical exposure). Stabilize foreign objects. Cover the eye(s) with dry, sterile patches and a protective shield. Do not give the patient food or fluids. Elevate head of bed 45 degrees. Give proper analgesia.

Answer 24

Description: Sterile Plastic Device: Resembles a contact lens. Floats Over the Eye: Does not physically touch the cornea, minimizing further injury. Tubing Connection: Connected to tubing that delivers the irrigating solution. Purpose: Provides continuous irrigation of an injured eye. This is crucial for flushing out harmful substances or debris. Uses: Chemical or Thermal Burns: Helps dilute and remove caustic substances from the eye after chemical splashes or burns. Nonembedded Foreign Materials: Flushes out loose particles or debris that are not embedded in the eye.

Answer 25

Staphylococcus aureus

Answer 26

Apply warm, moist compresses at least 4 times a day until it improves. May be the only treatment needed. If it tends to recur, teach the patient to do lid scrubs daily using eye scrub. On occasion, antibiotic ointments or drops may be needed.

Answer 27

Bacterial (pinkeye) Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause. Symptoms include: * Discomfort * Pruritus * Redness * Mucopurulent drainage | Typically occurs initially in 1 eye, then spreads to the unaffected eye.

Answer 28

Prevention: Emphasize the importance of handwashing. Advise patients to avoid contact with infected individuals. | Treatment: Antibiotic drops can shorten the duration of the infection.

Answer 29

This is spread by direct contact. Symptoms include: * Tearing * Redness * Photophobia * Foreign body sensation Treatment is primarily palliative and includes ice packs, artificial tears, and dark glasses. Treatment for severe cases can include mild topical corticosteroids and topical antibiotic ointment. ## Footnote Teach the patient the importance of good hygiene practices to avoid spreading the disease.

Answer 30

Trachoma is a chronic conjunctivitis caused by Chlamydia trachomatis (serotypes A through C). It is a major cause of blindness worldwide. | Most often seen in underdeveloped countries.

Answer 31

It is transmitted mainly by the hands and flies. Adult inclusion conjunctivitis (AIC) is caused by C. trachomatis (serotypes D through K). Symptoms include: * Mucopurulent eye discharge * Irritation, redness * Lid swelling Antibiotic therapy is usually effective for trachoma and AIC.

Answer 32

Caused by exposure to an allergen can be mild and transitory, or it can be severe enough to cause significant swelling.

Answer 33

Itching. - Pt may experience burning, redness, and tearing.

Answer 34

Response to pollens, animal dander, ocular solutions, and medications. Teach the patient to avoid known allergens if possible.

Answer 35

Artificial tears can be effective in diluting the allergen and washing it from the eye. Topical medications include antihistamines and corticosteroids.

Answer 36

Inflammation or infection of the cornea. It is caused by a variety of microorganisms or by other factors. If the condition involves the conjunctiva and/or the cornea, it is termed keratoconjunctivitis. Bacterial Viral

Answer 37

Antibiotics (bacterial); Antiviral agents, Analgesics for pain, topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation, and mydriatic agents to dilate the pupil and relieve pain.

Answer 38

Tissue loss caused by a corneal infection, due to bacteria, viruses, or fungi, produces a corneal ulcer. Symptoms: Tearing, Purulent or watery discharge, Redness Photophobia, Feeling of a foreign body in the eye.

Answer 39

Treatment is aggressive to avoid permanent vision loss. Antibiotic, antiviral, or antifungal eye drops may be given as often as every hour for the first 24 hours. Corneal transplant may be needed. (keratoplasty)

Answer 40

A cataract is an opacity within the lens. Patient may have a cataract in one or both eyes. If cataracts are present in both eyes, one may affect the patient’s vision more than the other. Cataract removal is the most common surgery in the United States. | Most are age-related.

Answer 41

decrease in vision, abnormal color perception, and glare. Glare is due to light scatter caused by the lens opacities. May be significantly worse at night when the pupil dilates. Vision decline is gradual.

Answer 42

Diagnosis is based on decreased visual acuity or another vision problem. The opacity is directly observable by ophthalmoscopic or slit lamp microscopic examination. * A totally opaque lens creates the appearance of a white pupil.

Answer 43

Surgical removal Presence of a cataract does not necessarily indicate a need for surgery. Changing the patient’s eyewear prescription can improve visual acuity.

Answer 44

1. Mydriatic produces pupillary dilation (mydriasis) by contracting the iris dilator muscle 2. Cycloplegics, such as tropicamide (Mydriacyl) to block the effects of acetylcholine on the ciliary body and iris sphincter muscles, to produce mydriasis and paralysis of accommodation (cycloplegia) 3. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory eye drops to reduce inflammation and edema

Answer 45

Purpose: Replaces the eye's natural lens, which has become clouded by the cataract. Effect: Restores clear vision after cataract removal.

Answer 46

Teaching about eye care, activity restrictions, medications, follow-up visit schedule, and signs/symptoms of possible complications.

Answer 47

A separation of the sensory retina and the epithelium, with fluid accumulation between the 2 layers | Emergency situation

Answer 48

If not treated quickly, more of the retina can detach, increasing the risk of permanent vision loss or blindness.

Answer 49

Flashes of light Floaters (small flecks) “Cobweb,” “hairnet,” or ring in the field of vision Gradual loss of peripheral or central vision, “like a curtain” coming across the field of vision ## Footnote Area of vision loss corresponds inversely to the area of detachment. If the detachment is small or develops slowly, the patient may not be aware of a problem.

Answer 50

Visual acuity: Should be first diagnostic procedure with any report of vision loss Direct and indirect ophthalmoscopy or slit lamp microscopy in conjunction with a special lens to view the periphery of the retina Ultrasound to find a retinal detachment, if the retina is unable to be seen by the provider (e.g., when the cornea, lens, or vitreous is hazy or opaque)

Answer 51

Laser photocoagulation Cryopexy Scleral buckling Vitrectomy Intravitreal bubble

Answer 52

**Purpose**: Uses a laser to create small burns around a retinal tear or hole, sealing it and preventing further detachment. **Mechanism**: The laser creates scar tissue that adheres the retina to the underlying tissue. **Use**: Effective for treating retinal tears or small detachments.

Answer 53

**Purpose**: Uses freezing to create a scar that seals a retinal tear or hole. **Mechanism**: A freezing probe is applied to the outside of the eye over the retinal tear, creating a scar that adheres the retina to the underlying tissue. **Use**: Effective for treating retinal tears or small detachments.

Answer 54

**Purpose**: Places a silicone band or sponge on the sclera (white part of the eye) to indent the eye wall, relieving traction on the retina. **Mechanism**: The buckle pushes the sclera inward, bringing the RPE closer to the detached retina and allowing it to reattach. **Use**: Effective for treating larger retinal detachments.

Answer 55

**Purpose**: Removes the vitreous gel (the clear gel that fills the eye) to eliminate traction on the retina and allow it to reattach. **Mechanism**: Small incisions are made in the eye, and instruments are used to remove the vitreous and any scar tissue. **Use**: Effective for treating complex retinal detachments, especially those with significant scar tissue or bleeding.

Answer 56

**Purpose**: Injects a gas bubble into the vitreous cavity to push the detached retina back into place. **Mechanism**: The gas bubble acts as a temporary tamponade, holding the retina against the RPE while it heals. **Use**: Often used in conjunction with laser photocoagulation or cryopexy.

Answer 57

After surgery, the patient may be on bed rest and need special positioning to maintain proper position of an intravitreal bubble. May need multiple topical medications, including antibiotics, anti-inflammatory agents, or dilating agents. Give prescribed pain medications. Teach the patient to take the medication as prescribed after discharge. Discharge planning and teaching should begin ear

Answer 58

Age-Related Macular Degeneration (AMD) Other risk factors include family history, smoking, obesity, hypertension, and ethnicity.

Answer 59

Blurred and darkened vision, Scotomas (blind spots in the visual field), Metamorphopsia (vision distortion) Diagnostic studies: Amsler Grid

Answer 60

Ranibizumab (Lucentis) Bevacizumab (Avastin) Aflibercept (Eylea) Pegaptanib (Macugen) inhibits vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) ## Footnote Medications help to slow vision loss by stopping new vessels from forming. Side effects can include blurred vision, eye irritation, eye pain, and photosensitivity. Injections are given at 4- to 6-week intervals, depending on treatment response.

Answer 61

By optical coherence tomography (OCT).

Answer 62

A group of disorders characterized by increased IOP and its consequences, optic nerve atrophy, and peripheral visual field loss. It is the second leading cause of permanent blindness in the United States. It is the leading cause of blindness among African Americans. ## Footnote Many are unaware of their condition. Incidence of glaucoma increases with age. Genetic factors play a role in some types of glaucoma.

Answer 63

Primary open-angle glaucoma (POAG)

Answer 64

A reduction in the outflow of aqueous humor that results from angle closure.

Answer 65

Situations in which the pupil stays partially dilated long enough to cause an acute and significant rise in the IOP.

Answer 66

IOP Slit Lamp Microscopy Measure of Peripheral and Central Vision

Answer 67

**Purpose**: Measures the pressure inside the eye. **Method**: Uses a tonometer to gently flatten the cornea. **Significance**: Elevated IOP is a major risk factor for glaucoma.

Answer 68

**Purpose**: Examines the structures of the eye, including the optic nerve, iris, and drainage angle. **Method**: Uses a slit lamp, a microscope with a bright light, to visualize the eye's interior. **Significance**: Helps assess the health of the optic nerve and identify any abnormalities in the drainage angle.

Answer 69

Purpose: Assesses the extent of peripheral and central vision. Method: Uses a visual field test (perimetry) to map the patient's field of vision. Significance: Detects any loss of peripheral or central vision, which is a hallmark of glaucoma.

Answer 70

Argon laser trabeculoplasty (ALT) Trabeculectomy Laser peripheral iridotomy Surgical iridectomy

Answer 71

Enucleation is the removal of the eye. Primary reason is a blind, painful eye, resulting from glaucoma, infection, or trauma.

Answer 72

After surgery, observe patient for signs of complications including: * Excess bleeding or swelling * Increased pain * Displacement of the implant * Fever

Answer 73

Teaching should include: * How to instill topical ointments or drops * Wound cleansing * How to insert the conformer into the socket in case it falls out ## Footnote Recognize the patient’s emotional response and provide support to patient and caregivers.

Answer 74

Six weeks after surgery, wound is sufficiently healed for the permanent prosthesis.

Answer 75

A complex process that allows us to interact with the environment. It is the basis for social interaction and communication.

Answer 76

Associated with difficulties in functional ability and cognition Problems with equilibrium can impair coordination, balance, and orientation.

Answer 77

Presbycusis: Age-related hearing loss, typically a gradual, progressive, bilateral loss of high-frequency hearing. Calcification: Calcification (hardening) of the ossicles (tiny bones in the middle ear) or other structures within the ear. Tinnitus: Perception of ringing, buzzing, or other noises in the ears or head when no external sound is present. Cerumen gland atrophy: Atrophy (shrinkage) of the cerumen glands, which produce earwax. Hair becomes thicker and courser: Increased growth of thicker and courser hair in the external auditory canal.

Answer 78

Does not respond to or understand oral communication Has excessively loud or soft speech Answers questions inappropriately Tilts head, leans forward when listening Constantly needs to clarify conversation States other people mumble all the time Increases the volume of radio or TV Difficulty hearing over the phone

Answer 79

**Purpose**: Measures hearing sensitivity across different frequencies and intensities. **Method**: Uses an audiometer to present tones and speech at various levels, and the patient indicates when they hear the sounds. **Significance**: Provides a comprehensive assessment of hearing ability and helps identify the type and degree of hearing loss.

Answer 80

**Purpose**: Measures the movement of the eardrum in response to changes in air pressure. **Method**: A probe is placed in the ear canal, and air pressure is varied while measuring eardrum movement. **Significance**: Helps identify middle ear problems, such as fluid buildup, eardrum perforation, or ossicular chain dysfunction.

Answer 81

**Purpose**: Compares air conduction (AC) to bone conduction (BC) to determine the type of hearing loss. **Method**: A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (behind the ear) and then held near the ear canal. **Significance**: Helps differentiate between conductive and sensorineural hearing loss.

Answer 82

**Purpose**: Assesses lateralization (where the sound is heard) to determine the type of hearing loss. **Method**: A vibrating tuning fork is placed on the center of the forehead or top of the head. **Significance**: Helps identify unilateral conductive or sensorineural hearing loss.

Answer 83

**Purpose**: Evaluates the function of the vestibular system, which is responsible for balance. **Method**: The patient is seated in a rotating chair, and eye movements are measured as the chair rotates. **Significance**: Helps diagnose vestibular disorders, such as benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) or vestibular neuritis.

Answer 84

Speech Reading Sign Language Assistive Listening Devices (ALDs) Hearing Aids Cochlear Implant

Answer 85

Start at home or quiet environment Adjust volume ot vocies & environmental sounds Then progress to more noise and adjust as needed When not being worn, the hearing aid should be placed in a dry, cool area Battery life avergae-1wk. Disconnect or remove when not in use Ear molds should be cleaned weekly/prn

Answer 86

External otitis is an inflammation or infection of the epithelium (skin) of the auricle (external ear) and canal. ## Footnote Auricle piercings or other skin trauma causes initial break in the skin, increases risk of infection

Answer 87

Contaminated swimming water changes the flora of the ear canal

Answer 88

Warm, dark, moist ear canal Bacterial (Staphylococcus aureus) Fungal (Candida albicans, Aspergillus)

Answer 89

Control systemic involvement with 7- to 10-day course of systemic antibiotics ## Footnote Control pain with moist heat, mild analgesics, and topical anesthetic drops (antibiotics, corticosteroids)

Answer 90

Wash hands before & after Store at room temperature Do not touch dropper to ear Position ear so that drops can run into the canal, stay for 2 min. to allow drops to spread Carefull handling & disposal of materila saturated with drainage is important Teach the patient ways to reduce the risk for external otitis

Answer 91

An infection of the TM, ossicles, and space of the middle ear. Infection can be due to viruses or bacteria. Caused by swelling of the auditory tube from colds or allergies that can trap bacteria.

Answer 92

Pain, fever, malaise, drainage, and reduced hearing ## Footnote Prompt treatment of acute otitis media can help prevent spontaneous perforation of the TM.

Answer 93

Antihistamines and a nasal corticosteroid spray can be used if allergies are a causative factor. Oral antibiotics and eardrops are used if an infection is present. Surgery can be performed, if no response to medical treatment. - Myringotomy - A tympanostomy tube may be placed short or long term for ventilation of the ear.

Answer 94

recurrent otitis media, especially in adults with a history of recurrent childhood otitis media. Symptoms: Purulent exudate and inflammation can involve the ossicles, auditory tube, and mastoid bone, hearing loss, nausea, and dizziness; often painless. ## Footnote The mucous membrane of the middle ear and the air cells of the mastoid bone (which are continuous) can both be involved.

Answer 95

Otic and systemic antibiotics based on culture and sensitivity results; antibiotic resistance is present in many cases. - May need frequent evacuation of drainage/debris as an outpatient. - If TM perforations do not heal with conservative treatment, surgery is necessary. Tympanoplasty (myringoplasty) involves reconstruction of the TM and/or the ossicles. - Mastoidectomy is often done with a tympanoplasty to remove infected portions of the mastoid bone.

Answer 96

1. Sleep on your back or the unoperated ear for 1 week. 2. Avoid air travel and sun exposure for 6 weeks. 3. If you need to cough or sneeze, keep your mouth open. 4. Blow your nose gently, without blocking either nostril. 5. Do not shampoo your hair for 5 days. Wear a shower cap when bathing. 6. No swimming. Keep your ear dry for 6 weeks. 7. You may resume strenuous activity and contact sports in 1 month. 8. Change your ear dressing daily as prescribed. 9. Report excess drainage or severe dizziness to the HCP.

Answer 97

A hereditary autosomal dominant disease that is the most common cause of hearing loss in young adults. **Mechanism**: Spongy bone develops from the bony labyrinth (the bony outer wall of the inner ear), preventing movement of the footplate of the stapes in the oval window. This reduces the transmission of vibrations to the inner ear fluids, resulting in conductive hearing loss.

Answer 98

Microdrill or laser surgical Opening the footplate (stapedotomy) or replacing the stapes with a metal or Teflon substitute (prosthesis). ## Footnote Usually done under conscious sedation. Ear with poorer hearing is repaired first, then the other ear within a year. Significant improvement Decreased hearing level postoperatively because blood and fluid accumulate in the middle ear

Answer 99

A progressive disorder leading to an accumulation of endolymph in the membranous labyrinth. Usually affects only one ear, it can affect both. Cause is unknown. Genetic, immune, and environmental factors may play a role.

Answer 100

Significant disability with sudden, severe attacks of vertigo accompanied by nausea, vomiting, nystagmus (involuntary eye movements). Feelings of being pulled to the ground (drop attacks) or whirling in space. Attacks can last minutes to hours and can occur several times a year. A sense of fullness in the ear, increasing tinnitus, and muffled hearing may precede an attack.

Answer 101

Administer medications and IV hydration as ordered. Keep pt in a quiet, darkened room in comfortable position. Have pt avoid sudden head movements & position changes. Teach pt to close the eyes until vertigo stops. Avoid fluorescent or flickering lights and television. Implement fall precautions. Implement measures to address N/V Monitor I/O & daily weights. Help the pt with ambulation as needed. Drug Therapy: Anticholinergics, antihistamines, antiemetics, benzodiazepines

Answer 102

Cause: Free-floating debris ("ear rocks" or otoconia) in the semicircular canals causes vertigo with specific head movements. Symptoms: * Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) * Vertigo (sensation of spinning) * Light-headedness * Loss of balance * Nausea * No hearing loss Symptoms are intermittent Treatment: Epley Maneuver/Canalith Repositioning Procedure: Symptom relief is achieved by changing the location of the ear debris to less sensitive areas through specific head movements. Patient Education: A trained Healthcare Provider (HCP) can teach the patient how to perform the maneuver at home.

Answer 103

C, D, E Rationale: C. Corticosteroids: Can increase intraocular pressure and contribute to cataract formation. D. Thyroid medications: Can affect eye health. E. Oral hypoglycemics: Some studies suggest a link between these medications and cataract development.

Answer 104

B. The patient can see at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 40 feet. Rationale: The Snellen chart result is a fraction where the numerator represents the distance the patient stands from the chart, and the denominator represents the distance a person with normal vision can see the same line.

Answer 105

B. Warm, moist compresses. Rationale: The document states that "The patient should apply warm, moist compresses at least 4 times a day until it improves. May be the only treatment needed."

Answer 106

B. "One dilates your pupil, one paralyzes your focusing ability, and one reduces inflammation." Rationale: This answer accurately reflects the purposes of mydriatic, cycloplegic, and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory eye drops.

Answer 107

C. They may need multiple topical medications, including antibiotics, anti-inflammatory agents, or dilating agents. Rationale: The document states that patients "May need multiple topical medications, including antibiotics, anti-inflammatory agents, or dilating agents" after surgery.

Answer 108

B. Preparing the patient for laser peripheral iridotomy. Rationale: AACG is an emergency that requires immediate intervention to reduce IOP and prevent vision loss. Laser peripheral iridotomy is a common treatment for this condition.

Answer 109

C. Using clear, concise speech and facing the patient. Rationale: This approach helps the patient understand speech better by providing visual cues and clear auditory input.