Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Micro 425 > Exam 4 (Bacterial Spirochetes) > Flashcards

Exam 4 (Bacterial Spirochetes) Flashcards

1
Q

____ are defined as long, slender, coiled Gram- rods with fibrils and an outer sheath:

A

Spirochetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

____ are flagella like organelles imparting mobility:

A

fibrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

_____ generally cannot be grown outside culture as they are fastidious:

A

Treponema spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____lacks the ability to carry out Kreb’s cycle and components of oxidative phosphorylation, thus difficult to grow on artificial media, it allows the host to do many things for it:

A

Treponema spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

List the 3 subspecies of Treponema pallidum:

A
  • pallidum (STD syphilis)
  • pertenue (Yaws in children)
  • endemicum (non STD syphilis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

This is the cause of Yaws in children:

A

Treponema pallidum pertenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe each stage of syphilis:

A

Primary: chanre 10-90 days after infection
Secondary: diffuse skin lesions, flu like sx
Tertiary: all tissues can be involved, including brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ of untreated syphilis patients progress to the tertiary stage:

A

1/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of microscopy is used to examine skin lesions in Treponema pallidum:

A

dark-field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

___ is an antigen (antibody like agent) made in and by the human body when the organism T pallidum reacts with human tissue:

A

Reagin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What do serology test kits detect in T pallidum:

A

Reagin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The Tuskegee Experiment started in ___ and ended in ___:

A

1932

1972

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In this study, 400 black men with syphilis were enrolled, not informed of their syphilis dx, given free medical exams/meals/etc for their participation:

A

Tuskegee Experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

At the beginning of the Tuskegee Experiment there was no treatment for syphilis, but in ___ was found to be a cure in ____, yet the subjects were not informed of this cure:

A

Penicillin

1947

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Belmont Report:

A

Tuskegee Experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Humans are the only reservoir in this disease that initially causes skin lesions and can progress to disfigurement of nose/bones/cartilage, thickening and cracking of palms, soles:

A

Treponema pallidum pertenue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F
Yaws is transmitted person to person via cracks in the skin, is most common in tropical climates, and is treated with azithromycin:

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sensu lato:

A

broad sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

sensu stricto:

A

narrow sense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

There are ___ species within Borrellia burgdorferi sensu:

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The most important species in the Borrelia complex is ____ sensu stricto in the U.S. causing lyme disease via tick vector ____:

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

Ixodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

____ is a new species discovered at Mayo clinic in 2013 and also causes Lyme disease in the US:

A

Borrelia mayonii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What medium is used to culture Borrellia:

A

Modified Kelly’s medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Serology is the preferred method of detection for Lyme disease, including ____ and confirmation with ____:

A

ELISA

Western Blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the adult and child tx for Lyme disease:

A

Adult: doxy
Child: amoxicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Gram- spirochete that has 3 stages, and is treated with doxy:

A

Borellia burgdorferi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the stages of Lyme Disease:

A

1) bull’s eye, headache,fatigue, 3-30 days post bite
2) joint/muscle pain, arrhythmias, weeks post bite
3) chronic arthritis, neuro sx, 2-3 years post bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Even with doxy tx, some people still experience joint pain (lyme arthritis) possibly due to ____:

A

autoimmune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

_____ is a bacterial spirochete, has 2 groups, and has free living and parasitic forms:

A

Leptospira spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

List the 2 groups of Leptospira spp:

A

L. interrogans (human leptospirosis)

L. biflexa (environmental)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

____ is a zoonotic disease, colonizes renal tubules of carrier animals:

A

Leptospirosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How do humans contract Leptospirosis:

A

via contact with urine or blood of infected animals through breaks in skin/mucous membranes/conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The septicemic stage of Leptospirosis can progress to the immune stage, which is marked by presence of ___, and can cause ______(due to toxin):

A

IgM

aseptic meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List the two cell wall deficient bacteria:

A

Mycoplasma

Ureaplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

T/F
Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma are the smallest known free-living bacteria, can be normal flora of mouth, upper resp, and GI tract, and are fastidious:

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma are fastidious and require these 3 things added to media:

A

nucleic acid precursors
fatty acids
cholesterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

This organism lacks cell walls and causes walking/atypical pneumonia:

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

38
Q

This organism lacks cell walls and can cause systemic infection in neonates, urogenital infections in adults, and has a fried egg appearance:

A

Mycoplasma hominis

39
Q

______ has been isolated from tissues of stillborn infants, there is controversy as to if it causes chorioamnionitis:

A

Ureaplasma urealyticum

40
Q

Why are Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma resistant to beta-lactams, but ___ is effective:

A
  • because they lack cell walls

* tetracycline

41
Q

Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma is grown on ___ media, incubated at __ degrees, with ___CO2 for up to ___ days:

A

SP4 media
35 degrees
5-10% CO2
~30 days

42
Q

T/F
Increasing resistance of Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma to tetracycline is being observed due to improper use of antibiotics by patients:

A

True

43
Q

List the 3 aerobic Actinomycetes:

A

Nocardia
Streptomyces
Rhodococcus

44
Q

Nocardia, Streptomyces, and Rhodococcus are considered _____ due to elongated branching filamentous forms resembling hyphae of fungie:

A

Actinomycetes

45
Q

Nocardia, Streptomyces,and Rhodococcus are _____, while Actinomyces israelii is ____:

A

aerobic

anaerobic

46
Q

Why are Nocardia and Rhodococcus partially acid fast (using sulfuric acid instead of HCL):

A

Both species cells walls have high mycolic acid content

47
Q

T/F

Streptomyces is acid fast.

A

False, they lack mycolic acid in their cell walls.

48
Q

T/F

Nocardia, Streptomyces, and Rhodococcus need to be sent to reference labs for speciation:

A

True.

49
Q

Gram+ branching filaments with no mycolic acids, non acid fast, branching is extensive with chains and spores, and causes mycetomas:

A

Streptomyces

50
Q

What is the difference between a mycetoma and a eumycotic mycetoma:

A

Mycetoma: caused by an Actinomycete (fungus like bacteria)

Eumycotic mycetoma: caused by a fungi

51
Q

Gram+/variable, Catalase+, branching filamentous bacteria capable of fragmenting in rods and cocci microscopically:

A

Nocardia

52
Q

___ inhabits soil and water, decomposes plant material, and has a musty odor on Middlebrook’s agar:

A

Nocardia

53
Q

______ is responsible for most human infection greater than 80% of any species of the genera:

A

Nocardia asteroides

54
Q

This species of Nocardia is a facultative intracellular pathogen of human cells and can cause skin infections (actinomycetoma) and pulmonary infections:

A

Nocardia asteroides

55
Q

Nocardia produces orange, glaborous colonies on _____ agar and has ____ odor:

A

Middlebrook’s agar

musty basement odor

56
Q

Why is speciation important with Nocardia and how is it treated:

A
  • important as some species have been showing tx resistance

* treat w/ sulfonamides

57
Q

Gram+ catalase+ branching, filamentous bacteria capable of fragmenting in rods and cocci, found in soil, farm animals, and fresh and salt water:

A

Rhodococcus

58
Q

Some _____ are facultative intracellular bacteria that reside within macrophages, and infections stem from pulmonary, skin, to osteomyelitis:

A

Rhodococcus

59
Q

____can grow on SBAP and CAP, but require 48-72 hours for growth:

A

Nocardia

60
Q

Selective media may be indicated for Rhodococcus, such as brain heart infusion w/ chloramphenicol and cyclohexamide, growth at ___ degrees, but recovery is increased at __ degrees:

A

35

30

61
Q

Rhodococcus is treated with a combination of ___ and ____:

A

Erythromycin + Rifampin

62
Q

____ is an obligate intracellular bacteria transmitted by the Lone Star Tick:

A

Ehrlichia

63
Q

Ehrlichia chaffeensis is transmitted by ____:

A

Lone Star Tick

64
Q

What is the vector of Anaplasmosis and what are signs/symptoms of infection:

A

Ixodes tick

fever, body aches, chills, headache

65
Q

Small pleiomorphic Gram- bacilli, obligate intracellular bacteria, humans are accidental hosts, animal reservoir:

A

Rickettsia

66
Q

What are the vectors for Rickettsia:

A

ticks, lice, fleas

67
Q

Culture for Rickettsia requires _____:

A

embryonated eggs

68
Q

List the two Rickettsia species in the Spotted fever group:

A
  • R. conorii (Israeli)

* R. rickettsii (Rocky Mtn)

69
Q

List the two Rickettsia species in the Typhus group:

A
  • R. prowazekii (epidemic)

* R. typhi (endemic)

70
Q

Rickettsia prowazekii causes ____ typhus, while Rickettsia typhi causes ____ typhus:

A

epidemic

endemic

71
Q

R. typhi is linked to ____, in the US it closer linked to:

A
  • rats/mice (murine)

* Fleas/cats/opposums

72
Q

North Carolina, Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee, and Missouri account for 60% of cases of ____ in the US:

A

Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever (R. rickettsii)

73
Q

Rocky Mtn Spotted fever can be fatal if untreated in the first ___ days, survivors can have problems with ___ later in life if the bacteria invade endothelial cells:

A

8 days

vasculitis

74
Q

___ is the gold standard in detection of R. rickettsii antigen:

A

Serology

75
Q

These are obligate intracellular bacteria, previously considered viruses that cannot be grown on cell free media:

A

Chlamydia spp

76
Q

The life cycle of ___ is similar to parasites by having an intracellular form termed a reticulate body and extracellular, inert, form the elementary body:

A

Chlamydia spp

77
Q

List the 3 important species of Chlamydia:

A

C. trachomatis
C. psittaci (rare in humans, common in birds)
C. pneumoniae

78
Q

Chlamydia psittaci is rare in ___, common in ____:

A

humans

birds

79
Q

This species of Chlamydia causes pneumonia, bronchitis, and pharyngitis in humans:

A

C. pneumoniae

80
Q

____ is the cause of the most common STD in the US:

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

81
Q

C. trachomatis is the cause of the most common STD in the US, and is a major cause of _____ and _____:

A

PID

ectopic pregancy

82
Q

C. trachomatis is often ID’d via molecular techniques on this analyzer:

A

GenProbe Panther

83
Q

____ can cause trachoma-ocular eye infection causing blindness:

A

C. trachomatis (Chlamydia)

84
Q

What is LGV and which organism causes it:

A
  • Lymphogranuloma venereum: strains move beyond the mucosa of genital tract and invade regional lymph nodes causing chronic infection
  • C. trachomatis
85
Q

How many strains of LGV are there:

A

3

*L1, L2, L3

86
Q

Genital infections such as urethritis, cervicits, proctitis, and epididymitis are caused ___ and are treated with ____:

A
  • C. trachomatis

* Azithromycin or doxycyline

87
Q

____ is spread mouth to mouth via utensils and causes non-venereal syphilis:

A

T. pallidum endemicum

88
Q

Can Treponema spp. be grown in culture:

A

unlikely, as they are quite fastidious

89
Q

The tertiary stage of syphilis occurs ___ years after initial infection:

A

10–25 years

90
Q

___ is the most common STD in the US, while ___ is the 3rd most common:

A

1st: Chlamydia
3rd: Syphilis

91
Q

Syphilis can be treated with ____ if caught early:

A

penicillin

Micro 425 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions