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Micro 425 > Exam 4 (Anaerobes) > Flashcards

Exam 4 (Anaerobes) Flashcards

1
Q

Anaerobes usually fail to grow in the presence of _____, thus carry out _____:

A

oxygen

fermentation

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2
Q

Some anaerobes are aerotolerant, such as:

A

Clostridium spp.

Actinomyces spp.

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3
Q

Anaerobic organisms lack these two enzymes required to break down reactive oxygen species during aerobic metabolism:

A

superoxide dismutase

catalase

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4
Q

Obligate aerobes grow well in __% O2:

A

21% O2

ambient room air

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5
Q

____ are the most abundant bacteria in the human GI tract:

A

Anaerobes

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6
Q

What would have more bacteria, the duodenum or the colon?

A

Colon. The number of bacteria increase as you move distally.

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7
Q

What is the most abundant bacteria (normal flora) in the human colon?

A

Bacterioides spp.

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8
Q

Anaerobes are the most abundant bacteria in the human_____, while Bacterioides spp. are the most abundant bacteria in the human ___:

A

GI tract

colon

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9
Q

What is the job of normal flora in the GI tract:

A

Breakdown food products into forms our bodies can absorb.

*Also break down dietary carcinogens

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10
Q

Are Clostridial spp. also part of the normal flora, GI, and skin:

A

Yes.

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11
Q

Microaerophilic Gram+ Catalase- thin rods with spiral forms that are normal flora of the female GU tract:

A

Lactobacillus spp.

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12
Q

Rusty nails and skin punctures can lead to this type of disease transmission of anaerobes:

A

exogenous

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13
Q

Are anaerobes commonly isolated from urine:

A

no. only 1% are anaerobes

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14
Q

List some disadvantages to swab use for specimen collection:

A
  • drying
  • normal flora contamination
  • toxic exposure to air
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15
Q

An example of a potentially acceptable swab specimen would be from where:

A

the uterus

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16
Q

Blood specimens for culture should always be collected in what type of bottle(s):

A

both aerobic and anaerobic

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17
Q

What sample preparation should take place when collecting specimen for blood culture:

A
  • First sanitize skin with iodine or clorhexidine gluconate

* Follow with 70% isopropyl alcohol

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18
Q

T/F
Once an aspirate sample is in the syringe, extra should be expelled, then aspirate should be injected into an O2 free transport tube or vial containing PRAS media:

A

True

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19
Q

What is the preferred transport media for an anaerobic aspirate sample:

A

O2 free transport tube or vial containing PRAS media

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20
Q

Infections with anaerobes tend to be ___:

A

polymicrobic

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21
Q

Staph, Strep, and the Enterobacteriaceae family are _____ anaerobes:

A

Facultative

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22
Q

Anaerobes causing infection often come from what types of areas in the body:

A

warm, moist areas (i.e. GI tract)

*it is important to create artificial transport conditions to mimic this to avoid shocking the bacteria

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23
Q

What are the two ways to achieve an anaerobic environment with a heavy plastic air tight jar:

A

1) Evacuation-Replacement (vacuum removes air, replaced with N/CO2/H)
2) Add a GasPak

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24
Q

How will you know an anaerobe jar has achieved proper conditions with a GasPak:

A

Heat will be produced and condensation will collect on walls of jar ~ takes 30 mins
*also contains methylene blue indicator (turns blue to white) when conditions achieved

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25
Q

What allows for an anaerobic environment for the entire work-up of the specimen from inoculation on:

A

Anaerobe chamber aka Glove Box

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26
Q

PEA agar stands for:

A

Phenylethyl alcohol

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27
Q

KVLB agar stands for:

A

Kanamycin-vancomycin laked blood

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28
Q

KVB stands for:

A

Kanamycin-vancomycin blood

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29
Q

BBE stands for:

A

Bacteroides bile-esculin

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30
Q

Because anaerobic infections are typically polymicrobic, what else should specimen be plated on:

A

Aerobic SBAP
CAP
MAC

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31
Q

All primary isolation media for anaerobes should be supplemented with these 3 things:

A

hemin
blood
Vitamin K

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32
Q

What is the gold standard for definitive ID of anaerobes:

A

Gas chromatography (analyzes metabolic end products)

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33
Q

What does PRAS stand for:

A

Pre-Reduced Anaerobically Sterilized

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34
Q

This media is produced under oxygen free conditions, contains reducing agents, and is shipped in sealed foiled packages to maintain O2 free environment:

A

PRAS

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35
Q

Reduction of PRAS involves the use of ___ to removed any dissolved ___ in the media itself:

A

chemicals

O2

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36
Q

Anaerobic BAP is a non-selective supplemented with these 4 things:

A

yeast
hemin
Vitamin K
Cystine

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37
Q

Anaerobic PEA inhibits these, but allows for this:

A
  • inhibits: Proteus swarming, Enterobacteriaceae

* allows: Gram+ growth

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38
Q

KVLB is selective for _________,

Vancomycin inhibits ______, while Kanamycin inhibits ____:

A
  • Gram- obligate anaerobes (Prevotella, Bacteroides)
  • V inhibits all Gram+
  • K inhibits Gram- facultative anaerobic bacilli
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39
Q

Laked blood medias refers to the:

A

freezing and thawing of blood

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40
Q

This process has been shown to improve pigment production by Prevotella melaninogenica:

A

The process of freezing and thawing - in the making of laked blood medias

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41
Q

BBE agar provides presumptive ID of what:

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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42
Q

____ agar detects organisms that can grow in 20% bile and hydrolyze esculin:

A

BBE agar

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43
Q

BBE also contains what antibiotic, and why:

A

gentamicin

inhibits facultative anaerobes and most Gram- organisms

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44
Q

What do you look for on BBE agar:

A

growth and brown-black colonies/ blackening of medias

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45
Q

KVLB agar is selective for ________, and inhibits growth of______:

A

Gram- obligate anaerobes

All Gram+ organisms

46
Q

KVLB is specifically selective for these two organisms:

A
  • Prevotella

* Bacteroides spp.

47
Q

Laked blood medias refers to the :

A

freezing and thawing blood (this process has been shown to improve pigment production of Prevotella melaninogenica)

48
Q

Growth on this agar provides presumptive ID for Bacteroides fragilis:

A

BBE

look for growth of brown-black colonies/blackening of the media

49
Q

T/F

BBE contains Gentamicin

A

True.

Gentamicin inhibits facultative anaerobes and most Gram- anaerobic organisms

50
Q

This has a small amount of agar added to it which prevents the widespread diffusion of oxygen, allowing anaerobes to grow:

A

Thioglycollate broth

51
Q

This supplements plating media, supports growth of most anaerobes in clinical specimens, and provides back up for slow growing anaerobes or failing anaerobic system:

A

Thioglycollate broth

52
Q

Why would you not treat any non-wound infection with C. botulinum with antibiotics:

A

Antibiotics may hasten the release of toxin

53
Q

List the 3 species of Bacteroides:

A

B. fragilis
B. thetaiotaomicron
B. ovatus

54
Q

This is the most abundant bacteria in the human colon, typically cause infections below the diaphragm, and have virulence factors:

A

Bacteroides spp.

55
Q

Once Botulism neurotoxin enters body, then bloodstream and lymphatics, it makes its way to ____ blocking ____ release, and creating symptoms:

A

Neuromuscular junctions

neurotransmitter release

56
Q

Bacteriodes is _____ to penicillin, kanamycin, vancomycin, and typically colistin:

A

resistant

57
Q

Bacteroides is susceptible to:

A

Rifampin

58
Q

_____ is a Gram- asaccharolytic rod that has bright red fluorescence under UV light:

A

Porphyromonas

59
Q

T/F

Porphyromonas more commonly causes infections of head regions, and is normal flora of oral cavity:

A

True

60
Q

Are all Prevotella melaninogenica strains pigmented:

A

No. Some are non-pigmented.

61
Q

Prevotella melaninogenica provides a presumptive ID via:

A

brick red fluorescence under UV light

62
Q

How do you distinguish Prevotella melaninogenica from Porphyromonas:

A

P. melaninogenica is saccharolytic

63
Q

Gram- slight curved rods that are normal flora of the oral cavity and infections typically occur above the thorax:

A

Fusobacterium

64
Q

Clostridium spp. is Gram___, catalase___, and does/does not form endospores:

A

Gram+
Catalase-
Spore forming

65
Q

T/F

Clostridium spp. are obligate anaerobes, sometimes aerotolerant.

A

True

66
Q

_____ has subterminal spores and resemble a tennis racket:

A

Clostridium botulinum

67
Q

C. botulinum consists of ____ distinct groups. Groups _____ cause human botulism, group___ causes animal botulism, and group ____ typically is not associated with any disease:

A

4 distinct groups
I and II– human botulism
III– animal botulism
IV–no disease

68
Q

Groups I and II of C. botulinum cause ___:

A

human botulism

69
Q

____ has a neurotoxin that causes flaccid paralysis:

A

C. botulinum

70
Q

Of the 7 types of toxins produced by C. botulinum (A-G), which ones cause human disease:

A

A
B
E
F

71
Q

What are the 4 forms of botulism:

A

Foodborne (canned foods)
Infant (honey)
Wound (rare)
Inhalation (terrorism)

72
Q

Does Botulism neurotoxin enter body through GI tract, mucous membranes, eyes, or respiratory tract:

A

All of the above.

73
Q

Once Botulism neurotoxin enters body, then bloodstream and lymphatics, it makes its way to ____ blocking ____ release, and creating symptoms:

A

Neuromuscular junctions

neurottransmitter release

74
Q

Foodborne botulism can begin in __hour, typically within __hours after ingestion of pre-formed neurotoxin:

A

6 hours

18-36 hours

75
Q

Recovery of foodborne botulism can take __to___ until affected nerve endings grow, mortality rate is __%:

A

months to years

3-5%

76
Q

How long must home canned goods be boiled to inactivate botulism toxin:

A

10 mins

77
Q

Specimens for foodborne botulism can include the following:

A

serum
gastric contents
feces
suspected food

78
Q

Describe the mouse bioassay for botulinum toxin:

A
  • Mouse injected with pt serum

* Presence of symptoms in mouse confirm toxins presence

79
Q

With infant botulism, neurotoxin production occurs ____:

A

in vivo

80
Q

What is the tx for infant botulism:

A

high quality supportive care

not antibiotics

81
Q

____ spores are oval with terminal or subterminal location, creating a drumstick or tennis racket appearance on Gram stain

A

Clostridium tetani

82
Q

Actinomyces israelii is fungus-like, anaerobic, normal flora of ____, Gram__ rod:

A

mouth, gums, teeth

Gram+

83
Q

There are ___ cases of C. tetani in the U.S. every year:

A

29

84
Q

What is the toxin in C. tetani called and what does it do:

A

Tetanospasmin toxin

*disrupts nerve impulses to muscles

85
Q

List the 3 cocci anaerobes in this unit:

A

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius
Peptococcus niger
Veillonella parvula

86
Q

Where is C. tetani found:

A

ubiquitous (rusty metal, soil)

87
Q

Is C. tetani included on the Vitek 2 ANC?

A

No

88
Q

Clostridium perfingens produces up to __ toxins and causes the following infections:

A

12 toxins

  • Cellulitis
  • Myonecrosis (gas gangrene)
  • Food poisoning
  • Enteritis necroticans
89
Q

Double zone of hemolysis is associated with this organism:

inner beta hemolysis, outer ring of alpha

A

Clostridium perfringens

90
Q

In the double zone of hemolysis, the alpha hemolysis is due to:

A

alpha toxin

lecithinase activity

91
Q

C. perfringens strains producing ____ are the third most common cause of bacterial food poisoning in U.S.:

A

C. perfringens enterotoxin (CPE)

92
Q

Can humans be carriers of C. perfringens:

A

potentially

93
Q

What has to be done for confirmatory ID of C. perfringens induced food poisoning:

A

feces need to be sent to public health lab at 4 degrees C

*Reverse CAMP test (is +)

94
Q

Describe the reverse CAMP test:

A

C. perfringens and S. agalactiae have syngergistic interaction (*bowtie)

95
Q

Is Clostridium difficile normal flora in some people:

A

Yes, in a small number of people.

96
Q

List the exotoxins produced by C. difficile:

A
  • Toxin A: Enterotoxin

* Toxin B: Cytotoxin

97
Q

Stool cultures for C. diff should be ___, not ____, to distinguish infection from colonization:

A

watery, not formed

98
Q

What does CCFA stand for and which organism is it used for:

A

Cycloserine-cefotoxitin fructose agar

*C. diff

99
Q

_____ is an egg yolk based agar selective for C. diff by creating yellow glass ground colonies:

A

CCFA

100
Q

List the treatment for C. diff infection:

A
  • d/c initial antibiotic tx

* vanco for severe disease, possible surgical intervention

101
Q

T/F

There is an enzyme immunonoassays for C. diff toxins A and B:

A

True

102
Q

This organism appears filamentous (hyphal strands) in pus or tissue, and has a molar tooth appearance on agar:

A

Actinomyces isrealii

103
Q

This is a chronic infection with local abscesses with formation of oozing sinus tracts containing sulfur granules, and is caused by this organism:

A

Actinomycosis (Actinomycotic mycetoma)

*Actinomyces israelii

104
Q

Peptostreptococcus anaerobius is a Gram__, coccobacillus, often in ___, and causes these ailments:

A

Gram+
chains
endocarditis, GU/GI infection,
periodontal disease, gingivitis

105
Q

T/F

The 3 cocci anaerobes in this unit are normal flora?

A

True

106
Q

This Gram+ cocci in pairs/tetrads, produces tiny black, convex, smooth colonies on anaerobic BAP which turn light gray if exposed to air:

A

Peptococcus niger

107
Q

T/F

Peptococcus niger is often associated with human disease:

A

False!

108
Q

This Gram- diplococci in pairs/clusters/short chains produces a red fluorescence under UV light and has been found to create a biofilm along with Strep mutans:

A

Veillonella parvula

109
Q

What do Veillonella parvula and Strep mutans form together:

A

a biofilm, that in combination imparts greater resistance to Strep mutans to various antimicrobials

110
Q

____ is Gram- diplococci that is normal flora of human mouth and GI, and can cause infection in sinuses, lung, heart, bone, and CNS:

A

Veillonella parvula

Micro 425 (12 decks)

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