Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHA 415 - Therapeutics III > Exam 4 - Antiarrhythmic Drugs > Flashcards

Exam 4 - Antiarrhythmic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Depolarization = ______, while Repolarization = ______.

A

Depolarization = CONTRACTION, while Repolarization = RELAXATION.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

__ wave = atrial polarization

A

P wave = atrial polarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

QRS = _____ depolarization

A

QRS = Ventricular depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

__ wave = ventricular repolarization

A

T wave = ventricular repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many msec is the PR interval?

A

120 msec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

If the PR interval increases above 200 msec, then its ___ ____ ___ ____.

A

If the PR interval increases above 200 msec, then its FIRST DEGREE AV BLOCK.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long is the QRS duration?

A

80 msec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The QRS duration = rapid ________

A

The QRS duration = rapid DEPOLARIZATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which interval is involved in monitoring antiarrhythmic drug therapy?

A

QT interval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the name of a drug-induced polymorphic VT?

A

TORSADES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the time of normal QT interval?

A

360 msec, <400-500 is acceptable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the name of the classification of antiarrhythmic drugs?

A

Vaughn Williams Classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the classes of drugs in the Vaughn Williams Classification?

A
  • Class I (IA, IB, IC)
  • Class II
  • Class III
  • Class IV
  • Misc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which class of drugs are the Na channel blockers?

A

Class I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which class of drugs are the beta blockers?

A

Class II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which class of drugs are the K channel blockers?

A

Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which class of drugs are the Non-dihydropyridine (non-dhp) calcium channel blockers?

A

Class IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which two classes of drugs are the representative classes of drugs?

A
  • Class I

- Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which classes are in the Class IA (“DPQ”)?

A

D- Disopyramide
P- Procainamide
Q- Quinidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which drugs are in the Class IB (“LM”)?

A

L - Lidocaine

M - Mexiletine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which drugs are in the Class IC (“FP”)?

A

F- Flecainide

P- Propafenone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which drugs are in the Class III (“DAD IS potassium”)?

A

D- Dofetilide
A- Amiodarone
D- Dronedarone

I- Ibutilide
S- Sotalol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which drugs are in Class IV (“VD”)?

A

V-Verapamil

D- Diltiazem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which Class I drug classes have increased effects on the ECG?

A

Class IA and Class IC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do Class IA and Class IC increase on an ECG?

A

PR
QRS
QT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which Class I subset had no effect on an ECG?

A

Class IB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What other class of drugs also increases PR, QRS, and QT on an ECG?

A

Class III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which class of drugs only increases PR on an ECG?

A

Class II
Class IV
Misc. (Adenosine, Digoxin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which class of drugs is about 50/50 hepatic/renal clearance?

A

Class IA drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Which of the 3 Class IA drugs (DPQ) has no oral formulation?

A

Procainamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the 3 Class IA drugs (DPQ) is not used?

A

Disopyramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

T/F: All three Class IA drugs have high bioavailability.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which of the 2 Class IB drugs (LM) has the highest hepatic clearance?

A

Lidocaine (98% hepatic, 2% renal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: Class IB drugs are more hepatically cleared.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which of the 2 Class IB drugs (LM) has the best bioavailability?

A

Mexiletine (87%)

36
Q

Which of the 2 Class IB drugs (LM) has no active metabolite?

A

Mexiletine

37
Q

How are the Class IC drugs (FP) cleared?

A

HEPATICALLY

38
Q

Which of the 2 Class IC drugs (FP) has the better bioavailability?

A

Flecainide (60-80%)

39
Q

Which of the 2 Class IC drugs (FP) has an active metabolite?

A

Propafenone

40
Q

In which class of drugs does a deficiency in CYP2D6 matter?

A

Class IC

-ability to metabolize is diminished

41
Q

Which of the Class III drugs (DAD IS) has the highest volume of distribution and longest half-life?

A

AMIODARONE

  • Vd = 66
  • T 1/2 = 53 days
42
Q

What does the high Volume of Distribution for Amiodarone mean?

A

That is distributes everywhere and has a big 3rd space to fill up which means big/prolonged loading dose

43
Q

T/F: Amiodarone is highly lipid or lipophilic.

A

TRUE

44
Q

How does Amiodarone clear the body?

A

100% HEPATICALLY

45
Q

T/F: Amiodarone’s active metabolite has equal potency.

A

TRUE

46
Q

Which of the Class III (DAD IS) drugs is water soluble, taken BID, and not well absorbed, requiring administration with food?

A

DRONEDARONE

47
Q

How is Dronedarone cleared from the body?

A

HEPATICALLY (90%)

48
Q

Which two drugs in Class III require dose adjustment with CrCl guidelines?

A

Dofetilide and Sotalol

49
Q

Which 3 Class III drugs do not have an active metabolite?

A

Dofetilide
Ibutilide
Sotalol

50
Q

Which of the Class III (DAD IS) drugs is used for pharmacologic conversion of AFib and is IV only?

A

Ibutilide

51
Q

How long is the half-life of Adenosine?

A

10 seconds

52
Q

How long is the half-life of Digoxin?

A

36 hours

53
Q

How is Digoxin cleared from the body?

A

RENALLY (70%)

54
Q

Which of the antiarrhythmic drugs is the only one monitored?

A

DIGOXIN

55
Q

T/F: Digoxin requires renal adjustment with poor CrCl.

A

TRUE

56
Q

Which drug is used to terminate super ventricular tachy-arrhythmias?

A

Adenosine

57
Q

Which two antiarrhythmic drugs has a PO loading dose?

A

Amiodarone

Digoxin

58
Q

Which drugs are not given IV?

A
  • Disopyramide (Class IA)
  • Mexiletine (Class IB)
  • Flecainide (Class IC)
  • Propafenone (Class IC)
  • Sotalol (Class III)
  • Dofetilide (Class III)
59
Q

What is the dose of Disopyramide (PO maintenance only available)?

A

IR 100-200 mg Q6H

SR 300-400 mg Q12H

60
Q

What is the dose of Mexiletine (PO maintenance only available)?

A

100-300 mg Q6-8H

61
Q

What is the dose of Flecainide (PO maintenance only available)?

A

50-200 mg Q12H

62
Q

What is the dose of Propafenone (PO maintenance only available)?

A

IR 150-300 mg Q8H

SR 225-425 mg Q12H

63
Q

What is the dose of Sotalol (PO maintenance only available)?

A

80 mg qd to 160 mg bid

64
Q

What is the dose of Dofetilide (PO maintenance only available)?

A

125 mcg to 500 mcg bid

65
Q

What proarrhythmia do Class IA drugs (DPQ) cause?

A

TORSADES

66
Q

What proarrhythmia do Class IC drugs (FP) cause?

A

MONOMORPHIC VT

67
Q

What proarrhytmia do three of the Class III drugs (D IS) cause?

A

TORSADES

68
Q

Which drugs cause Torsades?

A

D- Disopyramide
P- Procainamide
Q- Quinidine

D- Dofetilide
I- Ibutilide
S- Sotalol

69
Q

Which drugs cause monomorphic VT?

A

Flecainide

Propefenone

70
Q

Which class of drugs has no cardiac toxicity?

A

Class IB (LM

  • Lidocaine
  • Mexiletine
71
Q

Which drugs cause HF (decreased contractility)?

A

P- Procainimide
Q- Quinidine

F- Flecainide
P- Propafenone

Dr- Dronedarone
S- Sotalol

72
Q

Which drugs cause decreased SVR (with IV)?

A

P- Procainimide
Q - Quinidine

A from Class III - Amiodarone

73
Q

Which drugs cause AV block?

A

D- Disopyramide
P- Procainamide
Q- Quinidine

F- Flecainide
P- Propafenone

D- Dofetilide
A- Amiodarone
D- Dronedarone

I- Ibutilide
S- Sotalol

74
Q

Which drugs cause decreased heart rate (SA node)?

A

P (from FP) - Propafenone

A (from DAD IS) - Amiodarone
Dr (from DAD IS) - Dronedarone

S (from DAD IS) - Sotalol

75
Q

What does any affect at the AV node cause?

A

1st or 2nd degree heart block

76
Q

What is the name of the Class III drug that is a beta blocker with antiarrhythmic activities?

A

SOTALOL

77
Q

Which are the two Class III drugs that are the safest in HF patients with Left Ventricular dysfunction (Do and A from DAD IS)?

A

Do- Dofetilide

A- Amiodarone

78
Q

What is the main non-cardiac toxicity associated with Class IB (LM)?

A

CNS

79
Q

What is the main non-cardiac toxicity associated with Class IB Mexiletine?

A

CNS, GI

80
Q

What is the main non-cardiac toxicity associated with Class IC (FP)?

A

CNS (dizziness, visual disturbances, HA), GI

81
Q

What are the main non-cardiac toxicities associated with Class III (DAD IS - Do and I)?

A

CNS, GI

82
Q

What are the main non-cardiac toxicities associated with Sotalol?

A

Beta-blocking effects

83
Q

What are the non-cardiac toxicities associated with Dronedarone?

A

increased mortality

84
Q

What are the CNS side effects associated with Amiodarone?

A

Tremor
Ataxia
Peripheral neuropathy

85
Q

Which is more common in Amiodarone, hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism?

A

HYPOTHYROIDISM

PHA 415 - Therapeutics III (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions