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exam 4 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Which of the following syndromes is not paired with its causative chromosomal aberration?
a. Huntington disease - duplication
b. Down syndrome - Robertsonian translocation
c. All of these are paired correctly
d. Cri du chat syndrome - deletion
e. Fragile X syndrome - deletion

A

e. Fragile X syndrome - deletion

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2
Q

What is the first order of chromatin packing?
a. Formation of a solenoid
b. Formation of a 300-nm fiber
C. Looping of 300-nm fibers
d. Coiling around nucleosomes
e. Getting out the packing

A

d. Coiling around nucleosomes

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3
Q

Lateral Gene Transfers can be identified by the presence of DNA-sequences that have which of th following characteristics?
a. A ratio of G-C / A-T that is substantially different than the rest of the genome
b. The presence of heteroduplexes
c. A ratio of G-C / A-T that is highly similar to surrounding sequences
d. Chromosome Territories
e. Differences in G-banding

A

a. A ratio of G-C / A-T that is substantially different than the rest of the genome

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4
Q

Which of the following best describes the inheritance pattern of VNTRs?
a. VNTRs exhibit variable expressivity.
b. VNTRs exhibit pleiotropy.
c. VNTRs exhibit incomplete dominance.
d. VNTRs exhibit complete dominance.
e. VNTRs exhibit codominance

A

e. VNTRs exhibit codominance

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5
Q

Which of the following is a common consequence of allopolyploidy?
a. Decreased flavor of fruits
b. Decreased heterozygosity
c. Increased fruit and flower size
d. Increased recessive homozygosity
e. Increased fertility

A

c. Increased fruit and flower size

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6
Q

Which type bacteriophage is capable of integrating its genetic material into the host chromosome and facilitating a horizontal gene transfer via transduction?
a. heteroduplex phage
b. Specialized transducing phage
c. Generalized transducing phage
d. Lytic phage
e. Crazy scary chipmunk

A

b. Specialized transducing phage

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7
Q

The 150 gametes below were collected from an individual with genotype AB/ab:
64 AB
62 ab
10 Ab
14 aB

How many map units separate these two genes?
a. 38
b. 20
c. 126
d. 16
e. 24

A

d. 16

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8
Q

See number 8- DIFFERENT ON OTHER TESTS

DNase I cuts DNA that is not protected by bound proteins but is unable to cut DNA that is complexed with proteins. Human DNA is isolated, stripped of its nonhistone proteins, and mixed with DNase I. Samples are removed after 30 minutes, 1 hour, and 4 hours and run separately in ge electrophoresis. The resulting gel is stained to make all DNA fragments in it visible, and the results are shown in the figure below. DNA fragment sizes in base pairs (bp) are estimated by the scale to the left of the gel.

Approximately how far apart are nucelosomes in this genome?
a. 450 bp
b. 225 bp
c. 200 bp
d. 800 bp
e. 150 bp

A

b. 225 bp

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9
Q

Which of the following bacterial conjugations would produce a stable partial diploid? For each pair the donor bacteria is listed first, the recipient cell is listed second
a. Hfr x F+
b. F x F+
c. F’ x Hfr
d. F’ x F-
e. Hfr x F-

A

d. F’ x F-

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10
Q

Allele A has the sequence 5’-ATTATTATTATT-3’, while allele B has the sequence
5’-ATTATTATTATTATTATTATTATT-3’. You have designed a PCR-based test to screen patients for the presence of either allele. Which type of common genetic marker is seen in these variants?
a. GWAS
b. SNP
C. RFLP
d. Hotspot
e. VNTR

A

e. VNTR

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11
Q

Which of the following best describes the formation of an HFR cell?
a. It is formed by rolling-circle replication of a bacteriophage genome in the recipient cell cytoplasm.
b. It is formed by recombination of the F-plasmid into the host cell chromosome at IS sequences.
c. It is formed by integration of a lysogenic bacteriophage genome into the host cell chromosome.
d. It is formed by aberrant excision of the F-plasmid from and HFR cell chromosome.
e. It begins when a lytic phage DNA enters the cytoplasm of a bacterial

A

b. It is formed by recombination of the F-plasmid into the host cell chromosome at IS sequences.

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12
Q

Which are present in the highest numbers in the human genome?
a. RFLPs
b. TDTs
c. VNTRs
d. SNPs

A

d. SNPs

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13
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a Euchromatic region of DNA?
a. A chromosome region with few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
b. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, many actively expressed genes, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
b. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, many actively expressed genes, and darkly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
c. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
d. A chromosome region with few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and darkly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.

A

b. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, many actively expressed genes, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.

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14
Q

What is the name of the special type of replication required for F+ cells to donate a copy of F to F-cells?

a. Circular replication
b. Non-linear replication
c. End on replication
d. Rolling circle replication
e. Polymerase V replication

A

d. Rolling circle replication

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15
Q

_______________ are DNA sequences that serve as the site of integration between the F-factor and the bacterial chromosome.
a. att sites
b. F’ sites
c. Episome sites
d. OriT
e. IS elements

A

e. IS elements

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16
Q

Instead of creating a gene map along a chromosome, is a method of analysis that
detects and locates the genes that, as a group, influence form or appearance.
a. restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
b. genome-wide association studies (GWAS)
c. single SNP analysis
d. lod score analysis
e. the linkage equilibrium test

A

b. genome-wide association studies (GWAS)

17
Q

The haploid number of chromosomes in one population of mice is 13 (n=13). If a Robertsonian translocation occurs in the germ cells of a mouse from this population, how many chromosomes would be present in a gamete?
a. 24
b. 11
c. 22
d. 23
e. 12

A

e. 12

the number that n is minus 1

18
Q

After analysis of 100 pedigrees, the Z max from the analysis of linkage between a disease gene D & the DNA marker P was found to be 4.5 at 0 = 0.25. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these results?
a. No conclusion can be made regarding linkage of D and P.
b. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 15 cM.
c. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 25 cM.
d. The evidence indicates that D and P are not linked
e. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 1.5 cM

A

c. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 25 cM.

19
Q

Which of the following is commonly caused by Non-disjunction?
a. DCSR
b. Angelman Syndrome
c. Pallister-Killian Syndrome
d. WAGR Syndrome - interstitial
e. Trisomy 21

A

e. Trisomy 21

20
Q

A pair of homologous chromosomes in C. elegans has the following content (single letters represent genes, @ denotes centromere):
Chromosome A – POILUY@TREWQGFDSA
Chromosome B – POILUY@TGQWERFDSA
What has happened in this individual?
a. terminal deletion
b. paracentric inversion
c. partial duplication
d. pericentric inversion
e. partial deletion

A

b. paracentric inversion

21
Q

A pair of homologous chromosomes in C. elegans has the following content (single letters represent genes, @ denotes centromere):
Chromosome A – @QWERT@YUIOP
Chromosome B - @QWERT@Y
What has happened in this individual?
a. terminal deletion
b. paricentric inversion
c. paracentric inversion
d. partial deletion
e. partial duplication

A

a. terminal deletion

22
Q

see number 21 and other tests

The pedigree below is for an autosomal dominant disease. Versions of the SNPs B and A were identified by genetic screening of living members of the family.

A

III-5 & III-6 on my test

23
Q

The pedigree below is for an autosomal dominant disease. Six alleles of the disease causing gene were identified by genetic screening of living members of the family. Which allele is most likely associated with the disease state?
a. P₆
b. P₁
c. Р₃
d. P₄
e. P₂

A

b. P₁

24
Q

SEE OTHER TESTS

In a 20-year old college student, where is it more likely to find the DNA sequence encoding the genes driving early embryonic development?
a. euchromatic region
b. Paracentric region
C. telomeric region
d. heterochromatic region
e. centromeric region

A

d. heterochromatic region

25
Q

see number 23!

A
26
Q

Dr. Ara B. Dopsis has an idea he thinks will be a boon to agriculture. He wants to create the “pomato,” a hybrid between a tomato (Lycopersicon esculentum) that has 10 chromosomes and a potato (Solanum tuberosum) that has 34 chromosomes. Dr. Dopsis is hoping that his new pomato will have tuber growth like a potato and the fruit production of a tomato. He joins a haploid gamete from each species to form a hybrid and then chemically induces doubling of chromosome number by treating with cholchicine.

How many chromosomes will the polyploids have after chromosomal doubling? (2 points)

A

44

10/2
34/2

5 + 17 =22

22 x 2 = 44

27
Q

The haploid number of chromosomes in one population of mice is 12 (n=12). If a Robertsonian translocation occurs in the germ cells of a mouse from this population, how many chromosomes would be present in a gamete?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 23
d. 22
e. 24

A

11

28
Q

After analysis of 150 pedigrees, the Z max from the analysis of linkage between a disease gene D & the DNA marker P was found to be 5.5 at 0 = 0.015. Which of the following is the best interpretation of these results?

a. The evidence indicates that D and P are not linked.
b. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 15 CM.
c. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 1.5 cM.
d. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 25 cM.
e. No conclusion can be made regarding linkage of D and P.

A

c. The evidence supports linkage of D and P at 1.5 cM.

29
Q

Allele A has the sequence 5’-ATCCGA-3’, while allele B has the sequence 5’-ATCGGA-3’. You have designed a PCR-based test to screen patients for the presence of either allele. Which type of common genetic marker is seen in these variants?
a. Hotspot
b. GWAS
C. SNP
d. RFLP
e. VNTR

A

SNP

30
Q

Where is it more likely to find the DNA sequence encoding the digestive enzyme amylase?
a. Paracentric region
b. centromeric region
c. euchromatic region
d. heterochromatic region
e. telomeric region

A

c. euchromatic region

31
Q

The 100 gametes below were collected from an individual with genotype AB/ab:
How many map units separate these two genes?
a.16
b. 34
c. 72
d. 14
e. 28

A

e. 28

32
Q

Which of the following statements best describes a heterochromatic region of DNA?
a. A chromosome region with few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
b. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
C. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, many actively expressed x genes, and darkly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
d. A chromosome region with less chromatin compaction, many actively expressed x genes, and lightly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.
e. A chromosome region with few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and darkly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.

A

e. A chromosome region with few expressed genes, repetitive DNA sequences, and darkly stained regions of G-banded chromosomes.

33
Q

Which of the following is associated with an Isochromosome?
a. WAGR Syndrome
b. Angelman Syndrome
C. Pallister-Killian Syndrome
d. DCSR
e. Trisomy 21

A

C. Pallister-Killian Syndrome

genetics (37 decks)

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