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exam 1 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

which of the following examines all of proteins produced by a cell/organism?
a. transcriptomics
b. translationalomics
c. proteomics
d. genomics
e. metabolomics

A

proteomics

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2
Q

what components make up TFIID
a. TAF & DNA Pol II
b. TBP (2x) & TFIIB
c. TBP (2x) & TAF
d. GTF & TAF
e. TAF & DnaB

A

TBP (2x) & TAF

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3
Q

the genotypes of humans are more than 99% similar. What is the term that describes the alternative forms of genes that contributes to human genetic variation?
a. gametes
b. alleles
c. genomics
d. phenotypes
e. isoforms

A

alleles

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4
Q

what name is given to the region of a mature, processed mRNA between start & stop codons?
a. 3’ UTR
b. Coding region
c. 5’ UTR
d. terminator region
e. promoter

A

coding region

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5
Q

which of the following is NOT required for proper splicing of introns in most mRNA molecules?
a. adenosine brand point about 30 bp upstream of the 3’ end of the intron
b. GU dinucleotide at the 5’ end of the intron
c. AG dinocleotide at the 3’ end of the intron
d. GT dinucleotide at the 5’ end of the preceding exon

A

GT dinucleotide at the 5’ end of the preceding exon

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6
Q

Below is the sequence of the coding strand of DNA that flanks the coding region of the GFP gene. Select the sequence for the reverse primer that you would use to amplify the GFP gene.
a. 5’ ATCGGG 3’
b. i dont know
c.5’ TTAGAC 3’
d. 5’ GTCTAA 3’
e. 5’ TAGCCC 3’

A

d. 5’ GTCTAA 3’

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7
Q

A cell is able to replicate DNA, but it is unable to completely seal the backbones one one of the two strands. Which enzyme is likely defective?

A

ligase

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8
Q

Polyadenylation begins with the binding of ____________ near a six-nucleotide mRNA sequence, AAUAAA, downstream of the stop codon.
a. the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF)
b. the cleavage-stimulating factor (CStF)
c. cleavage associated factor I
d. guanylyl transferase
e. polyadenylate polymerase

A

the cleavage and polyadenylation specificity factor (CPSF)

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9
Q

In which cellular structure do mRNA codons pair with tRNA anticodons?
a. the mitochondrian
b. the replisome
c. the ribosome
d. the nucleolous
e. the chloroplast

A

the ribosome

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10
Q

Transcription of inverted repeats produces an mRNA with complementary segments. What type of secondary structure do they form through folding?
a. alpha helices
b. stem-loops
c. GC-rich boxes
d. beta-pleated sheets
e. R-loops

A

stem-loops

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11
Q

Which of the following uses transcription factors that bind to ICRs within the transcribed region of the gene?
a. RNA pol
b. RNA pol III
c. RNA pol
d. Telomerase
e. RNA Pol II

A

RNA pol III

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12
Q

Intrinsic termination of transcription in bacteria requires which of the following?
a. Formation of a hairpin in the nascent RNA followed by a string of uracil nucleotides
b.Formation of a hairpin in the nascent RNA and the activity of rho protein
C.Formation of a hairpin in the nascent RNA followed by a stop codon
d.Formation of a hairpin in the nascent RNA followed by a rut site

A

Formation of a hairpin in the nascent RNA followed by a string of uracil nucleotides

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of telemerase?
a. It is a ribonucleoprotein since it possesses both a protein and an RNA component.
b.It adds DNA nucleotides to the? 3’ end of the? 5’ parental strand.
c. It reads DNA as a template and synthesizes RNA as a product.
d. It is typically active in cancer cells.
e. Its activity and telomere length have been linked to the aging process.

A

c. It reads DNA as a template and synthesizes RNA as a product.

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14
Q

Which enzyme is responsible for transcription of most RNA genes?
a. RNA polymerase II
b. RNA polymerase III
c. RNA polymerase holoenzyme
d. RNA polymerase I
e. RNA Synthase

A

b. RNA polymerase III

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15
Q

What would most likely occur if a DNA mutation completely deleted an enhancer sequence?
a. Transcriptional rate would increase
b. Transcriptional rate would not be affected
c. Transcription would be impossible for the associated gene
d. Transcriptional rate would decrease
e. This gene could not be translated

A

d. Transcriptional rate would decrease

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16
Q

Which enzyme initiates the 5’ capping of the mRNA?
a. Aminoacyl tRNA synthase
b. Guanylyl cyclase
c. Adenylyl cyclase
d. Guanylyl transferase
e.Polyadenylate polymerase

A

d. Guanylyl transferase

17
Q

Determine the -10 consensus sequence for the following sequences.

A

TATGAT

18
Q

Which of the following enzymes/proteins does NOT break or form any covalent bonds?
a. helicase
b. SSB
c. DNA Ligase
d. DNA Pol I
e. DNA Pol III

A

SSB

19
Q

Which region(s) of a gene are NOT found within the mRNA transcript?
a. stop codon
d. promoter region
c. promoter and stop codon
d. termination region
e. promoter and termination regions

A

e. promoter and termination regions

20
Q

Certain classes of drugs target the es enzyme pom seducing the sin, UN colling ahead to repication buble. By prevent thia ten me from el. Which enram, the DA often experiences renion on ub and fragments, ultimately killing the ell. Which enzyme is being targeted by ens type of drug?
a. DNA Polymerase III
b. DNA Polymerase I
C. Ligase
d. Helicase
e. Topoisomerase

A

e. Topoisomerase

21
Q

In the Meselson / Stahl experimental technique. Which of the following would be expected following one round of replication? Assuming semiconservitive replication.
a. 14N/15N
b. 14N/14N and 14N/115N
c. 14N/14N
d. 14N/14N and 15N/15N
e. 15N/15N

A

a. 14N/15N

22
Q

Which of the following happens first
a. A 5’ Cap is added
b. RNA Pol Il binds
c. Synthesis of the pre-mRNA begins at the +1
d. TFIE and TFIIH Bind
e, TFIID binds to the TATA box

A

e, TFIID binds to the TATA box

23
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the enzymatic activity of Torpedo in transcription termination in Eukaryotes?
a. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease
b. 5’ to 3’ polyadenylase
c. 5’ to 3’ endonuclease
d. 3’ to 5’ exonuclease
e. 5’ to 5’ transferase

A

a. 5’ to 3’ exonuclease

24
Q

Which form of DNA is commonly seen in eukaryotic cells?
a. A-form
b. E-form
c. B-form
d. C-form
e. Z-form

A

c. B-form

25
Q

Sickle cell disease (SCD) is found in populations whose ancestral homes are in the malaria belt of Africa and Asia. SCD is an autosomal recessive disorder that presents in individuals homozygous recessive for a mutant beta-globin gene allele. Data on one affected population indicates that approximately 10 in 250 newborn infants have SCD. In this population, what is the expected trequency of heterozygote (Aa) carriers of SCD?
a. 0.32
b. 0.64
c. 0.04
d. 0.343
e. 0.80

A

a. 0.32

26
Q

Bacterial transcripts often contain more than one coding sequence. What term is used to describe RNA molecules such as these that contain multiple units in one RNA molecule? (2 points)

A

polycistronic

27
Q

Which type of RNA base-pairs with pre-edited mRNA to allow the transcript (and potentially the protein product) to be edited? (2 points).

A

guide RNA (gRNA)

28
Q

What is the full name given to origins of replication in Saccharomyces cerevisiae? (2 points)

A

ARS
autonomously replicating sequences

29
Q

look at figure for number 29

A

!

30
Q

write the full name of this nucleotide as completely as possible

A

adenosine 5’ triphosphate

31
Q

is this an RNA or DNA nucleotide? How can you tell?

A

It is an RNA nucleotide
it has an OH on the 2’ Carbon

32
Q

is this a purine or prymidine?

A

purine

33
Q

You and your spouse (who you found while attending SAU!) decide that you’d like to have 7 children. You’d prefer to have 3 boys and 4 girls but you don’t really care what order the children come in. What is the probability that if you in fact have 7 children you will get the mix you are hoping for? Show your work for full credit, express your answer as a frequency (decimal to two places). 4 points.

A

7!/(3!4!) x (1/2)^3 x (1/2)^4

= 0.27

34
Q

The diagram below shows an autoradiograph of a DNA sequencing Gel.
Provide the 5’ to 3’ sequence of the Template strand.
Format your answer as a sequence of nucleotides (Use all CAPITAL letters), label 5’ and 3’ ends, from left to right. (6 points) For example…. 5’-T-T-G-G-C-C-A-A….-3’

SEE QUESTION 32

A

5’-C-A-A-C-T-G-G-T-C-C-A-T-3’

35
Q

A 400-bp segment of cloned DNA is thought to contain a promoter. The cloned DNA is analyzed by DNA footprinting to determine if it has the capacity to act as a promoter sequence.
The gel shown below has two lanes, each containing the cloned 400-bp DNA fragment treated with DNasel to randomly cleave unprotected DNA. Lane 1 is cloned DNA that was mixed with RNA polymerase Il and several TFIl transcription factors before exposure to DNasel. Lane 2 contains cloned DNA that was exposed only to DNasel. RNApolll and TFlls were not mixed with DNA before adding DNasel.

approximately what length is the DNA region protected by RNApolII & TFIIs

A

140 bp

genetics (37 decks)

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