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Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

Mutualism

A

A reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners

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2
Q

Mutualism example

A

Buchnera aphidicola and aphids

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3
Q

what are Buchnera aphidicola?

A
  • Gram negative
  • lives in the aphid
  • transmitted vertically from mother to daughter
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4
Q

Buchnera aphidicola are obligate __________

A

Mutualists

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5
Q

What does the aphid do for Buchnera?

A

Aphid provides Buchnera with amino acids that Buchnera cannot make

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6
Q

What does Buchnera do for the aphid?

A

Buchnera must synthesize and provide Trp for the aphid since aphids cannot make Trp

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7
Q

What is attenuation?

A

A proposed mechanism of control in some bacterial operon which results in premature termination of transcription

-based on the fact that, in bacteria, transcription and translation proceed simultaneously

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8
Q

In Attenuation, if Region 2 of the RNA pairs with Region 3 of the RNA..

A
  • nonterminating stem loop
  • Transcription continues
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9
Q

In Attenuation, if region 3 of the RNA pairs with Region 4 of the RNA…

A
  • terminating stem loop forms
  • Transcription terminated
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10
Q

In Attenuation, the translation of which peptide affects which region pairs?

A

The leader peptide

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11
Q

Cooperation

A

A reciprocal benefit accrues to both partners

Aka if we inactivate B, A is going to okay, but A prefers having B

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12
Q

Commensalism

A

One symbiont (the commensal) benefits while the other (host) isn’t harmed or helped

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13
Q

Example of Commensalism

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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14
Q

What is Staphlococcus epidermidis?

A

Commonly found on human skin and consumes human waste while normally having no impact on human health

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15
Q

Predation

A

One organism preys on another

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16
Q

What is an example of a predator in predation?

A

Bdellovibrio

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17
Q

What is Bdellovibrio?

A

Gram negative bacteria that preys on other gram negative bacteria

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18
Q

Parasitism

A

The parasite benefits while the host is usually harmed

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19
Q

What is the perfect example of parasitism?

A

Infectious diseases

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20
Q

Amensalism

A

The adverse effect that one organism as on another

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21
Q

What type of process is Amensalism?

A

a unidirectional process where the presence of A inhibits B

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22
Q

What are two examples of Amensalism?

A
  1. Penicillin
  2. Streptomyces spp.
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23
Q

competition

A

Two organisms try to acquire the same resources (location or nutrient)

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24
Q

What are the two outcomes of Competition?

A
  1. One outcompetes the other for the site’s resources
  2. Both coexist at lower levels because they share the same limiting resource
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25
Q

Human microbiota

A

Microbes that live in or on humans

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26
Q

What type of relationship do human microbiota typically have with humans?

A

Commensal or mutualistic

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27
Q

How many organisms make up the human microbiota?

A

Mouth: 10^10 (0.1% total
Skin: 10^12 (1% total)
Intestines: 10^14 (99% total)

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28
Q

Are gut specific microbiota mainly anaerobic or aerobic?

A

Aerobic

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29
Q

What is biofilm?

A

Slime-encased aggregation of bacteria that is composed of protein, polysaccharide, and extracellular DNA

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30
Q

CAZymes

A

Enzymes that break down carbohydrates

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31
Q

Do humans have CAZymes?

A

No

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32
Q

What does the human microbiota do?

A
  • provides nutrients for the host
  • protects her body from invasion of harmful bacteria
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33
Q

Pathogen

A

Any disease producing microorganism

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34
Q

Clostridium difficile loves what kind of person?

A

Patients that are undergoing microbial treatment

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35
Q

What is C. Difficile?

A

A gram positive, spore-forming anaerobe that colonizes people that have been treated with antibiotics

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36
Q

Where experiences the largest issue with C. Difficile?

A

Hospitals and healthcare settings

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37
Q

What are the two layers of Spore peptidoglycan?

A
  1. A small inner layer of peptidoglycan that can make up the new cell wall under germination
  2. a larger layer of specialized peptidoglycan (cortex) that is composed of NAG & NAM
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38
Q

what are current treatment options for C. Difficile?

A
  • Vanomycin
  • Difficid (fidaxomicin)
  • Zinplava (Bezlotoxumab)
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39
Q

What is the most highly organized lymphoid organ?

A

The spleen

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40
Q

What does the spleen do?

A
  • filters blood
  • antigen production
  • present antigens to B and T cells
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41
Q

What is the most highly organized lymphoid tissue?

A

Lymph nodes

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42
Q

What do lymph nodes do?

A
  • filter lymph
  • B cells differentiate into memory and plasma cells within lymph nodes
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43
Q

What are other names for a nonspecific immune response?

A
  • nonspecific resistance
  • innate immunity
  • natural immunity
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44
Q

What are other names for specific immune response?

A
  • acquired immunity
  • adaptive immunity
  • specific immunity
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45
Q

What are cationic peptides?

A

Highly conserves peptides that have 3 classes related to their ability to damage bacterial plasma membranes

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46
Q

Cationic Peptide

First class: Linear

A

Alpha-helical peptides that lack cysteine amino acid residues

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47
Q

What is an example of a first class cationic peptide and where is it produced?

A

Cathelicidin and it is produced by a variety of cells

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48
Q

Cationic peptides

Second Class: Defensins

A
  • peptides that are open-ended, rich in arginine and cysteine, and disulfide linked
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49
Q

Where are Defensins found?

A

in neutrophils, intestinal Paneth cells, and intestinal and respiratory epithelial cells

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50
Q

Cationic Peptides

Third class: Larger peptides that are enriched for specific amino acids and exhibit regular structural repeats

examples

A

histatin, present in human saliva and has anti-fungal activity

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51
Q

What are Bacteriocins?

A

peptides produced by normal microbiota that are lethal to related species and are produced by both gram-positive and gram-negative cells

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52
Q

What does opsonin do for the efficiency of phagocytosis

A

it increases the efficiency

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53
Q

At what point do the classical pathway, MB-Lectin pathway, and Alternative converge?

A

C3 convertase

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54
Q

What are the four families of cytokines?

A

chemokines, hematopoietins, interleukins, and tumor necrosis factor (TNF) family

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54
Q
A
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55
Q
A
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56
Q
A
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56
Q
A
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57
Q

What do Chemokines do?

A

Stimulate cell migration and attract phagocytic cells and lymphocytes

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58
Q

What do Hematopoietins do?

A

Stimulate and regulate the growth and differentiation in the blood cell formation

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59
Q

What do Interleukins do?

A

Regulate the growth and differentiation of other cells, primarily lymphocytes and hematopoietic stem cells

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60
Q

What can Tumor necrosis factor induce?

A

apoptosis

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61
Q

What are irregularly-shaped nuclei with two to five lobes?

A

Granulocytes

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62
Q

What are three types of granulocytes?

A

Basophils, eosinophils, and neutrophils

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63
Q

What are derived from monocytes, but are larger?

A

Macrophages

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64
Q

What is the function of dendritic cells?

A

Phagocytosis and antigens processing -> foreign antigens on their surfaces (antigen presentation to T and B cells)

  • Create an adaptive immune response
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65
Q

What type of granulocytes have the ability to explode?

A

Neutrophiles

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66
Q

What are the two mechanisms for recognition of microbe by phagocyte?

A

1) Opsonin-independent (nonosponic) recognition
2) Opsonin-dependent (opsonic) recognition

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67
Q

does opsonin-independent or opsonin-dependent work via pattern recognition receptors?

A

Opsonin-independent

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68
Q

Which one is stronger and very aggressive? opsonin-independent or opsonin-depended recognition?

A

Opsonin-dependent (opsonic)

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69
Q

What type of pathogen recognition is characterized by components that are non-specifically recognized to activate phagocytes?

A

Opsonic-independent

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70
Q

Which pathogens mechanism is characterized by the binding of opsonins to the phagocyte?

A

opsonin-dependent

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71
Q

What are the 4 main forms of opsonin-independent recognition?

A

Recognition by:

  • lectin-carbohydrate interactions
  • protein-protein interactions
  • hydrophobic interactions
  • pattern recognition receptors
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72
Q

In what organism are toll-like receptors identified?

A

The Drosphila melongaster (fruit fly)

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73
Q

___-like receptors are intracellular proteins tat act as PCR

A

NOD

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74
Q

Where does the pattern of the C-reactive protein (soluble) target?

A

Gram-positive cell walls

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75
Q

What are characteristics of adaptive immunity?

A
  • discrimination between self and non-self
  • diversity
  • specificity
  • memory
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76
Q

Antigens definition

A

Self and non-self substances that elicit an immune response and react with the products of that response

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77
Q

Epitope definition

A

Regions/sites of the antigens that bind to a specific antibody or T-cell receptor

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78
Q

Where do epitopes reside?

A

Within the antigen

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79
Q

It is acquired through the normal life experiences of a human and is not induced through medical means

A

Natural immunity

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80
Q

It is the consequence of a person developing his or her own immune response to a microbe

A

Active immunity

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81
Q

It is the consequence of one person receiving preformed immunity made by another person

A

Passive immunity

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82
Q

Is that produced purposefully through medical procedures (also called immunization)

A

Artificial immunity

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83
Q

What is an example of natural active immunity?

A

Infection

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84
Q

What is an example of natural passive immunity?

A

Maternal antibody

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85
Q

What is an example of artificial active immunity?

A

Vaccination

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86
Q

What is an example of artificial passive immunity?

A

Immune globulin therapy

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87
Q

What are antigens?

A

antibody generators that induce immune responses

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88
Q

What do antibodies bind to?

A

Antibodies bind to specific antigens, inactivating or eliminating them

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89
Q

Where do T-cell originate? Where do they mature?

A

CD34+ stem cells in the bone marrow; in the thymus

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90
Q

How many classes are there in the Major Histocompatibility complex (MHC)?

A

Three

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91
Q

MHC Class 1 can be found on ____ nucleated cells

A

All

92
Q

MHC class 2 cal be found on what?

A

Cells that process non self materials such as macrophages and dendritic cells

93
Q

MHC class 3 secretes products that have what kind of function?

A

Immune functions

94
Q

What presents endogenously-derived antigens to cytotoxic T-cells?

A

MHC class 1

95
Q

What are MHC Class 2 produced by?

A
  • macrophages
  • dendritic cels
  • B cells
  • T cells
96
Q

What MHC class is required for T cell communication?

A

MHC Class 2

97
Q

What are three types of T-cells?

A

Helper T, cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL), and regulatory T cells

98
Q

What are the 5 types of T-Helper cells activated by MHC Class 2?

A

TH0, TH1, TH2, TH17, and Treg

99
Q

What is TH0?

A

An undifferentiated precursor of 1, 2, and 17

100
Q

What is TH1?

A

Promotes CTL activity, mediate inflammation

101
Q

What is TH17?

A

Found mainly in the skin/epithelium and responds to bacterial invaders

102
Q

What is Treg?

A

Recognizes self antigens, It secretes IL-10 to inhibit TH1 and TH2 mediated inflammation

103
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells do after they mature into CTL upon antigen recognition (MHC Class 1)?

A
  • Kill the infected cell
  • Perforin pathway
  • Fas-FasL pathway
104
Q

What stimulate stronger immune response than normal antigens by “tricking” T cells into activation although they have not been triggered by a specific antigen?

A

Superantigens

105
Q

Do superantigens stimulate T cells to proliferate specifically or nonspecifically?

A

Nonspecifically

106
Q

Superantigens stimulate the release of massive quantities of cytokines from T cells. What may this result in?

A

Circulatory shock and multiogan failure

107
Q

Examples of superantigens

A
  • staphlococca enterotoxin B
  • Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin
108
Q

What kind of cells are antibody producing cells?

A

B-cells

109
Q

Transmembrane antibodies are specific for how many antigens?

A

One

110
Q

Where are antibodies found?

A

In blood serum, tissue fluids, and mucosal surfaces of vertebrate animals

111
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies?

A

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE

112
Q

Which class of antibodies are the main ones that make up 70-80% of the total circulating antibodies?

A

IgG

113
Q

What is the first antibody type to appear in primary immune response?

A

IgM

114
Q

What type of antibody is found in the GI tract and is the major secretory antibody?

A

IgA

115
Q

What is the minor circulating antibody, mostly associated with mature B cells?

A

IgD

116
Q

Which antibody type facilitates parasite immunity?

A

IgE

117
Q

What is an example of class switching?

A

Switching from IgM to IgG

118
Q

What happens during splice-site variability?

A

Genes splice and resemble differently

119
Q

What is somatic hypermutation?

A

The genes that code for antibodies are very prone to mutation

120
Q

During splicing, the junction between the V, D, and J segments can be changed. This leads to changes in the ________ resulting in _____ ____ change.

A

Codons; amino acids

121
Q

Are mutations of the DNA that underwent somatic hypermutation hereditary?

A

No, because the mutations occur only in the cell undergoing the mutation and does NOT happen in the germ line

122
Q

how many antibodies do each B-cells make?

A

Just one

123
Q

Staphylococcus aureus Protein A

A
  • Virulence determinant
  • specifically binds antibodies
  • binds the Fc region
124
Q

Fc domain on antibodies =

A

The heavy chin part that is constant on S. aureus

125
Q

science that evaluated occurrence, determinants, distribution, and control of heath and disease in a defined human population

A

Epidemiology

126
Q

Epidemiologist

A

One who practices epidemiology

127
Q

Who is the father of epidemiology?

A

John snow

128
Q

John Snow started the fecal fora route of infection after what investigation of his?

A

After his investigation of cholera deaths in London

129
Q

What did Snow discover from his cholera investigation?

A

That the people who died from cholera all drank from the same water pump that had a sewage leak

130
Q

Endemic disease

A

A disease that maintains a steady, low-level at a moderately regular interval

131
Q

Endemic diseases are specific to what and experience what level of occurrence?

A

They are specific to that area and happen at a high rate of occurrence

132
Q

Incidence

A

Number of new cases

133
Q

Outbreak

A

The sudden, unexpected occurrence of a disease

134
Q

Attack Rate

A

Proportional number of cases that develop in a population exposed to the agent

135
Q

Epidemic

A

An outbreak affecting many people at once

136
Q

Index case

A

The first case in an epidemic

137
Q

Pandemic

A

An increase in disease occurrence over a large area (worldwide)

138
Q

Who was Typhoid Mary (Mary Mallon)?

A

An asymptomatic carrier of Typhoid that infected 24 people (2 died). She was a home cook that discovered she was shedding fecal salmonella.

139
Q

Why did Typhoid Mary, and others with typhoid, still infect people after being deemed negative for the disease?

A

Because the disease lasts in the feces and the urine longer than it does in the blood (where it is tested from)

140
Q

What two things significantly reduced the incidence of typhoid fever in 1906 and 1913, respectively?

A

filtration and chlorination

141
Q

What are measures of an infectious disease reported as?

A
  • Morbidity
  • Mortality
  • Prevalence
142
Q

Morbidity Equation

A

Morbidity = (number of new cases during a specified time)/ (number of individuals in the population)

143
Q

Prevalence equation

A

Prevalence = (total number of cases in the population)/ (total population)

144
Q

Mortality equation

A

Mortality = (number of deaths due to the disease)/ (size of the total population with the same disease)

145
Q

What are the two common types of epidemics?

A

1) Common source epidemic
2) propagated epidemic

146
Q

Common source epidemic

A

Results from a single common contaminated source such as food

147
Q

Propagated epidemic

A

Results from the introduction of a single infected individual into a susceptible population which is propagated to others

148
Q

what is an example of a common-source epidemic?

A

Cholera

149
Q

What is an example of host-to-host epidemic?

A

Influenza

150
Q

When looking at a graph of Number of Cases Reported Each Day vs. Days, why does the trend go down?

A

Because immunity occurs over time and immunity blocks transmission

151
Q

What is Herd Immunity?

A

Resistance of a population to infection and to spread of an infection organism

152
Q

What can the Herd Immunity level be altered by?

A
  • Introduction of new susceptible individuals into population
  • By changes in pathogen antigenic shift and antigenic drift
153
Q

Antigenic shift

A

A major change in antigenic character of pathogen

154
Q

Antigenic drift

A

Smaller antigenic changes

155
Q

Human Reservoirs

A
  • infected humans are most significant reservoirs
    • primarily of communicable diseases
156
Q

(Reservoirs) Human Symptomatic Infections

A

Obvious source of infectious agents

157
Q

(Reservoirs) Human asymptomatic carriers

A

Individual harbors pathogen with no ill effects

158
Q

(Reservoirs) Non-Human animal : disease transmitted by non-human animal reservoir are termed zoonotic

A

Disease often more severe in humans than in normal animals

159
Q

Example of a non-human Zoonotic disease?

A

Salmonella typhoid from chickens

160
Q

Direct Contact

A
  • requires physical contact to spread
  • Hands are the primary source of contact
161
Q

Indirect contact

A
  • organism can live on a surface and then transfer to an individual
162
Q

Droplet spread

A
  • respiratory particles
  • not only transmit the organism freely but some lie within the small droplets of liquid that come out such as a sneeze
163
Q

What are the types of vaccines?

A
  • whole-cell vaccines
  • subunit vaccines
  • DNA vaccines
164
Q

What are the two types of whole-cell vaccines?

A

Inactivated and Attenuated

165
Q

Salk’s vaccine, Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV), is inactivated by what?

A

Formalin

166
Q

Who are the two people that founded the Polio vaccine?

A

Stalk and Sabin

167
Q

What was Sabin’s vaccine like?

A
  • A live attenuated vaccine
  • an Oral vaccine
168
Q

What is another name for subunit vaccines?

A

Acellular vaccines

169
Q

What is the use of specific, purified macromolecules derived from pathogenic microbes that helps avoid some of the risks associated with whole-cell vaccines?

A

Acellular/Subunit vaccines

170
Q

What are the three forms of subunit vaccines?

A
  • Capsular polysaccharides
  • recombinant surface antigens
  • inactivated exotoxins (toxoids)
171
Q

What are Recombinant-Vector Vaccines?

A

Pathogen genes that encode major antigens inserted into non-virulent viruses or bacteria which serve as vectors and express a certain gene

172
Q

Released gene products (antigens) can elicit what?(Recombinant-Vector vaccines)

A

Cellular and humoral immunity

173
Q

What is a DNA vaccine?

A

DNA directly introduced into host cell via air pressure or gene gun

174
Q

when injected into muscle cells, DNA is taken into the nucleus and the pathogen’s DNA fragments is _____?

A

Expressed

175
Q

What happens to RNA in RNA vaccines?

A

The RNA is translated in the cytoplasm to generate the required protein

176
Q

What is an example of an RNA vaccine?

A

The Moderna Vaccine

177
Q

What is the Moderna Vaccine?

A

A lipid-coated mRNA that fuses with host cells

178
Q

What is Pfizer-BioNTech?

A

An mRNA vaccine similar to the Moderna vaccine

179
Q

What is Johnson & Johnson?

A

Genetically-modified Adenoviral vector to deliver the antigen

180
Q

What is AstraZeneca?

A

A dsDNA vaccine that encodes the spike protein antigen

181
Q

What is Sputnik V?

A

Genetically modified Adenoviral vector to deliver the antigen?

182
Q

What are Adjuvants?

A

An agent that stimulates the immune system and the immune response to aid in immunization

183
Q

What are Adjuvants commonly combined with?

A

The vaccine antibody

184
Q

What are examples of Intentional uses of biological agents in bioterrorism?

A
  • 1984: salmonella typhrimurium
  • 1996: Shigella dysentariae
  • 2001 Bascillus anthracis
185
Q

What is the most common Adjuvant used today? It was been researched for nearly 80 years and is deemed super safe.

A

Alum

186
Q

What did Sir Alexander Fleming discover?

A

The Lysozyme and a halo of inhibition of Staphlococcus

187
Q

What is considered the spearhead of antibiotics?

A

Penicillin

188
Q

While Fleming observed Penicillin activity on a plate after Duchesne’s discovery, who was it that discovered the Effectiveness of Penicillin and won the Nobel prize for it?

A

Florey, Chain, and Heatley

189
Q

Selective toxicity

A

The ability of a drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging the host as little as possible

190
Q

Therapeutic dose

A

Drug level required for clinical treatment

191
Q

Toxic dose

A

Drug level at which drug becomes too toxic for patient

192
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Ratio of toxic dose to therapeutic dose (the higher this value the more toxic it is)

193
Q

side effects

A

Undesirable effects of drugs on host cells

194
Q

Narrow-spectrum drugs

A

Attack only a few different pathogens (specific)

195
Q

What is an example of something a narrrow-spectrum drug would target?

A

Only gram positive or only gram negative cells

196
Q

Broad-spectrum drugs

A

Attack many different pathogens

197
Q

What is the difference between cidal agents and static agents?

A

Cidal agents kill while static agents inhibit

198
Q

What is defined as the lowest concentration of a drug that prevents growth of a particular organism?

A

Minimal Inhibitory Concentration (MIC)

199
Q

What is defined as the lowest concentration of a drug that kills the pathogen?

A

Minimal Lethal concentration

200
Q

What does the dilution susceptibility test observe?

A

If there is growth or no growth in a mueller-Hinton broth

201
Q

What test used to determine the level of anti microbial activity is considered a qualitative test and involves discs?

A

Kirby-Bauer method

202
Q

Is an E-test convenient for aerobic or anaerobic pathogens?

A

Anaerobic

203
Q

What happens in an E-test?

A

Multiple E-test strips are placed to test many bacteria types at the same time. These strips contain a gradient of antibiotic, and the intersection of elliptical zone of inhibition with the strip indicates MIC

204
Q

The antibiotics for each part of the cell is very _______

A

Specific

205
Q

What is the problem with antibiotics?

A

Resistance

206
Q

Can a species have resistance to multiple drugs?

A

Yes, it is a problem in hospitals

207
Q

What happens when you stop taking an antibiotic too early?

A

You risk the bacteria becoming resistant to the drug

208
Q

should you use the oldest version or newest version of an antimicrobial drug first?

A

You should use the oldest effective antimicrobial drug because treating a disease for the first time with the newest drug will cause it to possibly become resistant

209
Q

Why should you monitor antimicrobial use?

A

Because unnecessary treatment enhances potential for antimicrobial resistance

210
Q

Antibiotics are inhibitors of the synthesis of what?

A

Cell walls

211
Q

What are three types of inhibitors of cell wall synthesis?

A
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalosporins
  • Vanomycin
212
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that can inactivate abeta-lactam ring?

A

beta-lactamase

213
Q

Does beta-lactam bind to penicillin in a reversible or irreversible way?

A

Irreversible

214
Q

What is an example of a beta-lactamase inhibitor?

A

Clavulanic Acid

215
Q

Does Clavulanic acid inactivate reversibly or irreversibly?

A

Irreversibly

216
Q

What originated from a fungus in the class Cephalosporium, contains a beta-lactam ring, and has 4 broad generations?

A

Cephalosporins

217
Q

What are two characteristics of Vanomycin?

A
  • Glycopeptide antibiotic
  • Binds D-ala — D-ala
  • is a “last resort drug”
218
Q

What three antibiotics are protein synthesis inhibitors?

A
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Tetracyclines
  • Macrolides
219
Q

What do AL Aminoglocosides contain?

A

Cyclohexane ring and amino sugars

220
Q

What type of antibiotics are Aminoglycosides?

A

Bactericidal

221
Q

What are the three common resistance mechanisms of Aminoglycoside Resistance?

A
  • Acetylation of an amino group of the 30S subunit
  • ATP- dependent adenylation of a hydroxyl group
  • ATP- dependent phosphorylation of a hydroxyl group
222
Q

Other than Aminoglycosides, what else binds to the 30S subunit?

A

Tetracyclines

223
Q

What type of antibiotic are Macrolides?

A

Bactericidal

224
Q

What is an identifying characteristic of Macrolides?

A

12-22 Carbon lactose rings linked by one or more sugars

225
Q

What are the two metabolic inhibitors that target the Folic acid bio synthetic pathway?

A

Sulonamides and Trimethoprim

226
Q

for Sulfanilamide, what kind of mutation inhibits the binding of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase to the drug?

A

A Point Mutation

227
Q

For Trimethoprim, what causes dihydrofolate reductase to not be able to bind?

A

Resistance

228
Q

Resistance is always a ___________ mutation

A

Spontaneous

Microbiology (11 decks)

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