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Microbiology > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

what do helper T cells activate?

A

B and other T cells

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2
Q

what do plasma cells secrete

A

antibodies

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3
Q

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the

A

variable region

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4
Q

antigen presenting cells

A

all of the answer choices are correct

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5
Q

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity?

A

neutralization

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6
Q

The immunoglobulin class that has a dimer form found in mucus, saliva, colostrum, and other body secretions is

A

IgA

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7
Q

The immunoglobulin class that is the only one capable of crossing the placenta is

A

IgG

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8
Q

The immunoglobulin class that has an Fc region that binds to receptors on basophils and mast cells is

A

IgE

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9
Q

All of the following are characteristics of IgM, except

A

its a dimer

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10
Q

Which immunoglobulin class/es can fix complement?

A

IgM and IgG

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11
Q

An example of artificial passive immunity would be

A

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

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12
Q

An example of natural passive immunity would be

A

a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta.

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13
Q

In the primary response to an antigen, the first class of antibody to be secreted is

A

IgM

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14
Q

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is

A

IgG

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15
Q

Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells?

A

TC

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16
Q

In __________ immunity, an individual makes their own antibodies in response to antigen exposure, whereas in __________ immunity, an individual receives antibodies made by another individual(s).

A

active; passive

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17
Q

Antibodies against chicken-pox virus will protect against subsequent chicken-pox infections but not against measles. This is because antibodies are

A

specific

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18
Q

Components of the first line of defense include all the following, except

A

phagocytic white blood cells.

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19
Q

Nonspecific chemical defenses include

A

all of these choices are correct

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20
Q

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the

A

repiratory tract

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21
Q

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are

A

eosinophils

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22
Q

The clearance of pus, cellular debris, dead neutrophils, and damaged tissue after inflammation is performed by

A

macrophages

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23
Q

All of the following pertain to platelets, except

A

They contain hemoglobin to transport oxygen and carbon dioxide.

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24
Q

Which of the following lymphoid organs has the immunological function of filtering pathogens from the blood?

A

spleen

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25
Q

Which structures are found along lymphatic vessels but are heavily clustered in the armpit, groin, and neck?

A

lymph nodes

26
Q

Which is incorrect about complement?

A

Complement proteins only appear in the blood during a response to a pathogen.

27
Q

Specificity and memory are associated with which body defense mechanism?

A

T-cell and B-cell responses

28
Q

All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except

A

basophils

29
Q

Which of the following nonspecific mediators inhibits virus replication and cellular division while increasing some lymphocyte action?

A

IFN

30
Q

All of the following are the results of complement activation, except

A

lysis

31
Q

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy other microorganisms are called

A

Antibiotics

32
Q

Important characteristics of antimicrobic drugs include

A

All answer choices are correct

33
Q

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body’s normal microbiota often cause

A

Superinfections

34
Q

Penicillins and cephalosporins

A

block the peptidases that cross-link glycan molecules.

35
Q

Sulfonamides

A

are metabolic analogs of PABA and block folic acid synthesis.

36
Q

Aminoglycosides

A

attach to the 30S ribosomal subunit and disrupt protein synthesis.

37
Q

Gram-negative bacilli are often treated with

A

aminoglycosides.

38
Q

Which of these drugs is used to treat cases of tuberculosis?

A

isoniazid.

39
Q

Which antimicrobic does not interfere with protein synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim

40
Q

The drug used for several protozoan infections is

A

metronidazole

41
Q

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.

A

Fungal

42
Q

Antivirals that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat

A

HIV

43
Q

The cellular basis for bacterial resistance to antimicrobics include

A

All of the answer choices are correct

44
Q

The multidrug-resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes cause

A

removal of drugs from the cell

45
Q

Antimicrobics effective against only gram-positive bacteria would be termed

A

Narrow spectrum drugs

46
Q

One of the greatest challenges in development of antivirals is finding drugs that are

A

selectively toxic for viruses

47
Q

Which is the best guide for selecting an effective antibiotic?

A

Results of antimicrobial susceptibility testing

48
Q

Which of the following inhibits folic acid synthesis?

A

Trimethoprim

49
Q

Which of the following types of control agents would be most likely to achieve sterility?

A

Sporicide

50
Q

The process that destroys or removes all microorganisms and microbial forms including bacterial endospores is called

A

Sterilization

51
Q

Which of the following microbial forms have the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

A

Bacterial endoscopes

52
Q

The process of physically cleansing inanimate surfaces to reduce microorganisms and debris to safe levels is called

A

Sanitization

53
Q

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is

A

Antiseptic

54
Q

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is called

A

Degermination

55
Q

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are

A

Mycobacterium and staphylococcus

56
Q

What type of molecule can be denatured by heat or changes in pH?

A

Protein

57
Q

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except

A

Hydrogen peroxide

58
Q

Disinfection of beverages, such as apple juice, milk, and wine, is optimally achieved by

A

Pasteurization

59
Q

All of the following are true of food irradiation except

A

it makes the food less nutritious.

60
Q

You are a scientist isolating a particular microbe from a water sample. As a first step, you need to inoculate a broth culture with your microbe using a sterile loop. Which of the following is the most appropriate way to sterilize your loop before inoculation? Consider effectiveness, time, and safety.

A

Sterilize the loop by using a bunsen burner at your bench.

Microbiology (6 decks)

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