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EXAM 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are mycobacterium

A
  • bacteria found in food and water sources OR obligate parasites
  • form capsules
  • have a SLOW GROWTH RATE
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2
Q

why do mycobacteria have a slow growth rate

A

myolic acid in cell wall, has a long replication process

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3
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (M. tuberculosis) transmission route

A

aerosols

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4
Q

pulmonary tuberculosis

A
  • respiratory disease
  • causes infection of macrophages, causing GRANULOMAS
  • the cells in the center of the granuloma die, causing NECROSIS
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5
Q

ghon focus

A

primary infection site of pulmonary tuberculosis

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6
Q

ghon complex

A

ghon focus + lymph node infection

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7
Q

what are granulomas

A

an infected macrophage surrounded by foamy macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibrous mesh

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8
Q

progression of tuberculosis

A
  • if bacteria is only initially controlled, can lead to latent tuberculosis
  • can have lifelong containment OR reactivation to active TB
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9
Q

latent tuberculosis

A
  • no active disease
  • bacteria are encased in granuloma and don’t cause symptoms
  • will test + for blood and skin tests
  • will have normal x-rays and no symptoms
  • RISK GROUPS: immunocompromised, elderly, young, diabetes
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10
Q

active tuberculosis

A
  • occurs when a latent infection reactivates
  • granulomas rupture and start infection
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11
Q

active tuberculosis symptoms

A

weight loss, loss of appetite, night sweats, fever, pulmonary symptoms

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12
Q

active tuberculosis treatment

A

long course drugs, untreated can be fatal

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13
Q

extrapulmonary tuberculosis

A
  • infection outside the lungs, via bloodstream or lymph
  • infection of pleura, CNS, lymphatic system, genitourinary system, bones and joints
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14
Q

milliary tuberculosis

A
  • form of extrapulmonary tuberculosis
  • characterized by TINY LESIONS, can infect other organs, high mortality
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15
Q

drug resistant tuberculosis

A
  • due to failure to comply to long drug course
  • MULTI-DRUG RESISTANT TB (MDR TB)
  • EXTENSIVELY DRUG-RESISTANT TB (XDR TB)
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16
Q

TB prevention and screening

A
  • tuberculin skin test (inspect for induration)
  • bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine
  • DEPENDS ON GEOGRAPHIC REGION
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17
Q

Mycobacterium leprae (M. leprae)

A
  • infects histiocytes and nerve cells
  • low pathogenicity
  • foot pads of armadillos
  • “GENOME REDUCTION”: small genome size
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18
Q

Leprosy (Hansens Disease)

A
  • neglected tropical disease
  • granulomatous disease of peripheral nerves and mucosa of upper respiratory tract
  • NUMBNESS IN EXTREMITIES, SKIN LEISONS, DISFIGUREMENT
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19
Q

leprosy pathogenesis

A

bacteria invades SCHWANN CELLS of peripheral nerves

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20
Q

leprosy transmission

A

person to person, inhalation of mucosal secretions, direct skin contact

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21
Q

tuberculoid (paucibacillary) leprosy

A
  • TH1 mediated response
  • localized or superficial infection
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22
Q

lepromatous (multibacillary) leprosy

A
  • TH2 mediated response
  • disfigurement, small hypo-pigmented lesions, numbness, weakness, peripheral nerve damage
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23
Q

leprosy risk factors

A

immunocompromised, malnutrition, exposure to leprosy

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24
Q

leprosy treatment

A
  • multi drug therapy
  • CURABLE
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25
Q

what are mycoplasma

A
  • the smallest and simplest self-replicating bacteria
  • “surface parasite”
  • pleomorphic
  • lacks a cell wall: TRILAMINAR MEMBRANE
  • fastidious
  • “fried egg colonies”
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26
Q

what is a trilaminar membrane

A

a plasma membrane containing sterols that are resistant to antibiotics

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27
Q

Mycoplasma pneumoniae (M. pneumoniae)

A

disease causes inflammation of the alveoli (lung), disease of respiratory epithelium

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28
Q

M. pneumoniae transmission

A

aerosols

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29
Q

M. pneumoniae infection route

A

attachment to P1 protein, binds sialic acid receptor causing cilia to not work

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30
Q

M. pneumoniae symptoms

A
  • early: fever, headache sore throat
  • late: primary atypical pneumonia “WALKING PNEUMONIA”, tracheobronchitis, blood-streaked septum, chest pain, ear aches
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31
Q

m. pneumoniae treatment

A
  • broad spectrum antibiotics
  • NOT PENICILLIN
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32
Q

m. penumoniae diagnosis

A
  • serological tests (ELISA)
  • cold agglutinins
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33
Q

mycoplasma hominis (M. hominis)

A
  • cause of pelvic inflammatory disease, postpartum fever, vaginitis
  • mycoplasma adheres to urogenital epithelium
  • transmitted through sexual contact and newborns through birth canal
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34
Q

mycoplasma genitalium (m. genitalium) “mgen”

A
  • cause of urethritis in men, cervicitis and pelvic inflammation in women
  • sexually transmitted
  • colonized the ciliated epithelial cells of urinary and genital tracts
  • has a very small genome
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35
Q

what is m. gentialium useful for?

A
  • minimal genome project
  • synthetic genomes
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36
Q

minimal genome project

A

only essential genes that allow bacteria to grow and divide

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37
Q

synthetic genome

A

man-made DNA fragments, reassemble viable bacterial genomes

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38
Q

what are legionella

A
  • gram negative pleomorphic bacilli
  • REQUIRE CYSTINE to grow
  • found in soil and aquatic environments
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39
Q

legionella pneumophila (L. pneumophila)

A

cause of legionnaires disease (primary atypical pneumonia)

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40
Q

transmission of L. pneumophila

A

water aerosols, amoebae, cooling towers/hot tubes/water tanks
NOT person to person

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41
Q

legionnaires disease symptoms

A
  • early: mild bronchopneumonia, headache, weakness, muscle ache, dry cough
  • late: fever, chest pain, stupor
  • critical: multi-system disease
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42
Q

risk groups of legionnaires disease

A

middle aged/elderly, cigarette smokers, chronic lung disease, immunocompromised

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43
Q

diagnosis of legionnaires disease

A

antigen detection (ELISA on urine sample)

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44
Q

treatment of legionnaires disease

A

antibiotics
NOT PENICILLIN

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45
Q

flint michigan

A

legionnaires disease outbreak due to poor water safety plan

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46
Q

what are fungi

A
  • eukaryotic organisms (have nucleus and mitochondria)
  • have a phospholipid bilayer containing ERGOSTEROL
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47
Q

hyphae

A

long filaments that extend out to make up a network of fungi (mycellum)

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48
Q

septum

A

a cell wall that divide hyphae

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49
Q

polyene

A
  • antifungal drug
  • targets ergosterol resulting in pore formation and cell leakage
  • amphotericin B
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50
Q

echinocandins

A
  • antifungal drug
  • disrupts cell wall synthesis that fungi use for intergrity
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51
Q

pyrimidine analogs

A
  • antifungal drug
  • blocks cytosine deaminase activity
  • 5-florouracil VERY TOXIC
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52
Q

azoles

A
  • antifungal drug
  • disrupts unique ergosterol membrane surface and biosynthetic pathway
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53
Q

allylamines

A
  • antifungal drug
  • inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis
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54
Q

fungi reproduction

A
  • can reproduce sexually or asexually
  • sexual reproduction is important for the maintenance of pathogenicity
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55
Q

how are fungi classified

A

by the type of spore they make

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56
Q

chytridiomycota

A

chytrids

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57
Q

zygomycota

A

common molds

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58
Q

ascomycota

A

sac fungi

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59
Q

basidiomycota

A

club fungi

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60
Q

duteromycota

A

imperfect fungi

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61
Q

yeast cells

A
  • type of colony morphology
  • round or ovoid cells that produce daughters by budding
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62
Q

pseudohyphae

A
  • type of colony morphology
  • chains of elongated yeast cells, have indentations in the walls where cells meet
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63
Q

diversity of fungi

A
  • there are more than a million species of fungi
  • large diversity on the human skin
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64
Q

keratonlytic fungi

A

utilize keratin as a nutrient source

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65
Q

dermatophyte fungi

A
  • kerationlytic
  • causes ring worm
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66
Q

Tinea

A
  • ringworm
  • named for location on skin
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67
Q

pityriasis versicolor

A
  • caused by MALASSEZIA SPP.
  • commensal of the skin
  • treated with an antifungal topical
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68
Q

Malassezia in the colon

A
  • chrons disease
  • patients with a risk allele for CARD9 have more malassezia in the colon
  • hyperactive signaling due to serine12–>asparagine
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69
Q

onychomycosis

A
  • fungal infection of the nails
  • predisposing factors: tinea pedis, family history, male
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70
Q

opportunistic fungal infections

A
  • the # of infections are increasing due to a new susceptible population of HIV/AIDs, transplant, and anti-TNF alpha monoclonal antibody therapy patients
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71
Q

Candida

A
  • fungus that forms yeast-like cells
  • part of the normal flora, colonize the GI and GU tract
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72
Q

candida albicans

A

most common cause of disease

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73
Q

candida auris

A
  • emerging fungal pathogen
  • multi-drug resistant
  • causes systemic infections
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74
Q

muco-cutaneous candidiasis

A
  • over growth of normal flora
  • superficial infection (lining surfaces)
  • can result from long term antibiotic use
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75
Q

disseminated candidiasis

A
  • organism invades tissue and enters blood stream
  • entry into blood is cause by leaky gut, catheters, immunocompromised, or physical breach
  • non-specific sepsis
  • antifungal prophylaxis, recent emergence of drug resistance
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76
Q

aspergillus

A
  • mold
  • multi use (pharmaceuticals and fermentation of soybean)
  • have CONIDIA
  • use polarized growth
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77
Q

what are conidia

A
  • a vehicle for environmental dissemination, metabolically inactive, and resistant to multiple environmental stressors
  • allows for deep penetration into human alveolar spaces
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78
Q

process of polarized growth

A
  1. hyphal extension occurs at the tip
  2. specalized organelles control hyphal growth (SPITZENKORPER AND POLARISOME)
  3. sterol-rich lipid rafts accumulate at the hyphal tip
  4. molecular motors bring vesicles containing necessary elements for cell wall synthesis and membrane synthesis
  5. much of the active endocytosis occurs at the hyphal tip
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79
Q

spitzenkorper

A

movement of vesicles

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80
Q

polarisome

A

coordinates endocytosis and exocytosis

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81
Q

what is the fundamental role of filamentous fungi

A

recycle environmental carbon and nirtogen

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82
Q

what fungi is predominant during the high temperate phases of composting

A

A. fumigatus

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83
Q

fungus ball/aspergilloma

A
  • growth of A.fumigatus in airways without invasion
  • can lead to bleeding
  • can occur in healthy patients
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84
Q

allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA)

A

colonization of the lung resulting in chronic inflammation and lung fibrosis

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85
Q

invasive aspergillosis

A
  • can be relegated to the lung
  • often disseminates hematogenously
  • grows irrespective of anatomical boundaries
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86
Q

pathogenesis of invasive aspergillosis

A
  • conidium invade alveolar mucosa
  • if macrophages and neutrophils cannot take care of invasion, the fungi will escape and germinate
  • fungi cross barrier of lungs to circulation
  • fragments of fungi break in circulation and lodge in places rich in microvasculature (nutrients)
  • once lodged, fungi pass endothelial barrier into tissue
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87
Q

cryptococcus neoformans

A
  • basidiomycetous yeast-like fungus
  • have a THICK POLYSACCHARIDE CAPSULE
  • produce LACCASE
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88
Q

thick polysaccharide capsule components

A
  • GXM (glucuronoxylomannan)
  • GalXM (glactoxylomannan)
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89
Q

laccase

A

a multi-copper oxidase that is required for virulence
- produces melanin

90
Q

titan cells

A
  • in the lungs, c. neoformans can undergo a morphological change to a titan cell
  • titan cells are polyploid and produce yeast cell progeny by reductive division
  • progeny cells are more stress resistant
91
Q

cryptococcosis

A
  • portal of entry is lung, can cause begnin colonization to severe pneumonia (rapid dissemination to CNS in immunocompromised)
  • MENINGOENCEPHALITIS
  • dissemination can occur outside CNS, skin lesions, eye disease, organ systems
92
Q

meningoencephalitis

A
  • most common presentation of cryptococcosis
  • headache, fever, ALTERED MENTAL STATE, fatal if untreated
93
Q

thermal dimorphism

A
  • filamentous (mould) @ 25°C (soil)
  • yeast-like @ 37C (after inhalation)
94
Q

blastomyces dermatitidis

A

extracellular yeast
upper midwest US

95
Q

histoplasma capsulatum

A

intracellular yeast
Ohio and missisippi river valley

96
Q

coccidioides immitis

A

extracellular spherioles
San Joquain valley of southwest US

97
Q

commensalism

A

benefits one, neutral to the other

98
Q

biological parasite

A

an organism that grows, feeds, and is sheltered on or in a host organism to the detriment of that host

99
Q

medical parasite

A

organisms that cause disease in humans
- not bacteria, fungi or viruses
- endo (infection) or ecto (infestation)

100
Q

definitive host

A

host in which the obligate sexual stage od a parasite life cycle occurs

101
Q

intermediate host

A

host in which non-sexual reproduction or development occurs

102
Q

incidental host

A

is not an obligate part of the parasite life cycle (zoonosis)

103
Q

reservoir host

A

animal hosts that maintain the natural cycle in the wild

104
Q

ingestive transmission

A

oral infection by a dormant cyst or egg in food or environment

105
Q

protozoa cyst

A

an environmentally stable non-replicating form, typically involved in fecal/oral transmission

106
Q

helminthes cyst

A

a dormant juvenile form typically embedded in host tissue; under-cooked meat

107
Q

egg

A

the product of sexual reproduction by adult worms, contains a single embryonated prelarval form; fecal-oral

108
Q

invasive transmission

A

direct penetration of the skin

109
Q

vector transmission

A

transmission of an active non-replicating form by a blood0sucking arthropod

110
Q

maternal transmission

A

trans-placental to a fetus in utero

111
Q

biological vector

A

an essential host in the life cycle

112
Q

phoretic vector

A

mechanical vector

113
Q

geographic distribution

A

the maximum global extent of a disease regardless of intensity

114
Q

prevalence

A

disease intensity in a given area

115
Q

incidence

A

new infections in a susceptible population per unit of time

116
Q

the chemotherapeutic problem

A
  • we’re all eukaryotes
  • how do you kill pathogenic organisms that utilize the same basic molecular pathways as every cell in the human body
117
Q

trichomoniasis organism

A

Trichomonas vaginalis

118
Q

trichomoniasis location

A

lumenal, urogenital

119
Q

trichomoniasis lifecycle

A

no free living or encysted stages

120
Q

trichomoniasis transmission

A

direct by sexual contact or RARE non-sexual contact

121
Q

trichomoniasis epidemiology

A

cosmopolitan, SEXUALLY ACTIVE WOMEN globally 180 million/year; age 16-35

122
Q

trichomoniasis prevention

A

safe sex, condoms

123
Q

trichomoniasis pathology

A
  • female: persistent vaginitis, itching and burning; inflammation of squamous epithelia; frothy discharge with skanky fishy
  • male: asymptomatic, infection of urethra and prostate
124
Q

trichomoniasis immunity

A

no immunity, reinfection possible

125
Q

trichomoniasis diagnosis

A

microscopic observation

126
Q

giardiasis organism

A

giardia lamblia

127
Q

giardiasis location

A

lumenal, intestine

128
Q

giardiasis transmission

A

ingestive, fecal/oral

129
Q

giardiasis epidemiology

A
  • cosmopolitan
  • epidemic in daycares
  • reservoir in wild animals
  • anal
130
Q

giardiasis prevention

A

good sanitation and personal hygiene

131
Q

giardiasis pathology

A
  • onset at 2 weeks
  • explosive all of the sudden
  • diarrhea, flatus, belching, cramps
  • acute, can self cure
  • malabsorption syndrome
132
Q

giardiasis immunity

A

reinfection possible

133
Q

giardiasis diagnosis

A
  • stool examination, presence of cysts
  • ELISA on stool
  • immunofluorescence
    -string test
134
Q

amebiasis organism

A

entamoeba hystolytica

135
Q

amebiasis location

A

lumenal
intestines —> tissues

136
Q

amebiasis transmission

A

ingestive; fecal/oral
direct; anal

137
Q

amebiasis epidemiology

A
  • due to poor public sanitation
  • poor hygiene, anal
138
Q

amebiasis prevention

A

good sanitation, personal hygiene, condoms

139
Q

amebiasis pathology

A

asymptomatic/mild –> dysentery –> invasive (hepatic)

140
Q

amebiasis immunity

A
  • humoral responses in invasive disease
  • maybe acquired immunity in endemic cases
141
Q

amebiasis diagnosis

A
  • trophozoites and cysts in bloody stool
  • aspirate of liver abscesses
  • TRAVEL HISTORY
142
Q

what are kinetoplastid protozoa

A

a group of flagellated protists that are characterized by the presence of an organelle with a large massed DNA called kinetoplast

143
Q

leishmaniasis organism

A

leishmania (species) new world and old world

144
Q

leishmaniasis location

A

blood and tissues

145
Q

leishmaniasis transmission

A

vector-borne; sandfly

146
Q

leishmaniasis reservoir

A

domestic and wild animals

147
Q

leishmaniasis epidemiology

A
  • tropical and subtropical
  • contact with sandfly/reservoir habitat
148
Q

leishmaniasis pathology cutaneous

A
  • ulcerative sore at primary site
  • abundant amastigotes in lesions
  • spontaneous healing
149
Q

leishmaniasis pathology mucocutaneous

A
  • starts out like cutaneous
  • metastasis months to years after primary lesion heals
  • ulceration nasopharngeal tissues
  • chemotherapeutic cure leads to immunity
150
Q

leishmaniasis pathology visceral

A
  • hematogenous spread to organs; primary lesions rare
  • onset at 2-12 months, fever, wasting
  • chemotherapeutic cure leads to immunity
151
Q

leishmaniasis diagnosis

A

amastigotes in biopsies or aspirates

152
Q

African Trypanosomiasis organism

A

trypanosoma brucei brucei
T. brucei rhodesiense
T. brucei gambiense

153
Q

African Trypanosomiasis location

A

blood, lymphatics and tissues

154
Q

African Trypanosomiasis transmission

A

vector-borne; tsetse fly

155
Q

African Trypanosomiasis epidemiology

A
  • sub saharan; endemic in tsetse habitat
  • epidemic in areas of social turmoil
156
Q

African Trypanosomiasis prevention

A
  • vector avoidance, vector control
  • monitor susceptible population, aggressive treatment
157
Q

African Trypanosomiasis pathology

A
  • early, middle, and late onsets
  • self-healing chancre
  • hematogenous dissemination
  • waves of parasitemia with fever
  • CNS infection
  • death through coma or secondary infection
158
Q

African Trypanosomiasis immunity

A
  • initial humoral response leads to immunosupression
  • immune evasion by antigenic variation
159
Q

African Trypanosomiasis diagnosis

A

direct examination of blood, lymph, and CSF

160
Q

winterbottoms sign

A

swollen cervical lymph nodes

161
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis disease

A

chagas disease

162
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis organsim

A

trypanosoma cruzi

163
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis reservoir

A

rats, cats, dogs, opossums

164
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis location

A

blood, lymphatics, tissues

165
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis transmission

A
  • vector borne; reduvid bugs
  • the southern route
  • transfusion, transplantation, IVDU
166
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis epidemiology

A
  • proximity to human waste
  • intravenous drug use
167
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis prevention

A

vector control; good housing; screen blood supply

168
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis pathology

A
  • acute: chagoma (Romana’s sign); hematogenous spread, circulating trypomastigotes; severe in children
  • chronic: onset after 10-20 years; damage to never/muscle cells of heart, esophagus, colon; inflammation leads to tissue damage; death from sudden heart attack
169
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis acute diagnosis

A

trypomastigotes in blood

170
Q

south american Trypanosomiasis chronic diagnosis

A

xenodiagnosis

171
Q

anticomplexan parasites

A
  • obligate intracellular parasites
  • sexual and asexual reproduction
  • sexual cycle in the intestinal epithelial of definitive hosts
172
Q

toxoplasmosis organism

A

tosoplasma gondii

173
Q

toxoplasmosis location

A

tissue/blood

174
Q

toxoplasmosis reservoir

A

cats, sheep, mice

175
Q

toxoplasmosis transmission

A

ingestive: fecal/oral and undercooked meat
TRANSPLANCENTAL: congenital infection

176
Q

toxoplasmosis epidemiology

A
  • cosmopolitan and world-wide
  • developed world: undercooked meat and litter box
  • developing world: public hygiene, cats, climate
  • congenital infection: only with primary maternal infection
  • reactivation of latent infection in immunocompromised
177
Q

toxoplasmosis prevention

A

avoidance behavior by at risk population

178
Q

what are the 2 phases of toxoplasma infection

A
  • tachyozoite
  • bradyzoite
179
Q

tachyzoite

A
  • rapid replicative form during initial acute infection
  • generated by reactivation of dormant cysts
  • can cross placenta, causes encephalitis in AIDS
  • control by primary immune response
180
Q

bradyzoite

A
  • encysted slow growing form during dormant phase
  • source of reactivation throughout life-long infection
  • control by memory immune response
181
Q

toxoplasmosis pathology

A
  • initial infection asymptomatic
  • rapid control by humoral and cellular immunity
  • life long latent infection
  • immunodeficient cannot control initial infection
  • in utero infection causes severe consequences
182
Q

toxoplasmosis diagnosis

A
  • serology
  • IFA
  • seizure in AIDs
183
Q

malaria organism

A
  • multiple of plasmodium species
  • P. falciparum is most deadly
184
Q

malaria location

A

hepatocytes/erythrocytes

185
Q

malaria reservoir

A

humans

186
Q

malaria transmission

A
  • vector borne: female misquitoes
  • also congenital and needle transfer
187
Q

malaria epidemiology

A
  • cosmopolitan: 2 billion at risk
  • most fatalities in children
  • increased drug and insecticide resistance
  • most morbidity and mortality due to P. falciparum
188
Q

malaria pathology

A
  • fever cycle with synchronous bursts of merozoites
  • anemia from erythrocyte destruction
  • chills, fever, splenomegaly, myalgia, headache
  • cerebral malaria (P. FALCIPARUM ONLY)
  • latent hepatic forms in P. vivax and P. ovale
189
Q

malaria diagnosis

A
  • gemisa stain of blood smears
  • P. FALCIPARUM: multiple rings per RBC, no circulating trophozoites or schizonts, banana shaped gametocytes
190
Q

malaria immunity

A
  • slow to develop, requires multiple infections
  • short lived
  • easily reinfected
191
Q

malaria prevention

A
  • drugs to resist infection
  • avoid mosquitoes when feeding
192
Q

class cestoda

A
  • tape worms
  • no internal digestive system
  • attach to gut wall of definitive host (humans)
  • segments mature from anterior to posterior
  • transmission by ingestion of larval cysticerci or eggs
193
Q

class trematoda

A
  • flukes of the lungs, liver, and blood
  • broad flattened bodies with a simple digestive system: single opening
  • one or more intermediate host (snail)
  • transmission can be invasive or ingestive
194
Q

class nematoda

A
  • roundworms of tissues and gut
  • cylindrical bodies: well developed digestive and nervous system
  • transmission: ingestive, invasive, or vector-borne
195
Q

beef tapeworm organism

A

taenia saginata

196
Q

beef tapeworm location

A

lumenal, jejunum

197
Q

beef tapeworm transmission

A

eating undercooked beef containing cysticerci

198
Q

beef tapeworm definitive host and intermediate host

A
  • humans
  • cattle
199
Q

beef tapeworm life cycle

A

the “basic” cestode cycle

200
Q

beef tapeworm epidemiology

A

world-wide and cosmopolitan in beef eating countries

201
Q

beef tapeworm pathology

A

abdominal discomfort; rarely serious, occasional weight loss

202
Q

beef tapeworm immunity

A
  • humoral response
  • reinfection possible
203
Q

beef tapeworm diagnosis

A

active worms in stool

204
Q

beef tapeworm prevention

A

good public hygiene, well cooked beef, freezing

205
Q

pork tapeworm organism

A

taenia solium

206
Q

pork tapeworm location

A

lumena, jejunum, any tissue (cysticerci)

207
Q

pork tapeworm definitive and intermediate host

A
  • humans
  • pigs or human
208
Q

pork tapeworm transmission

A
  • if ingest cysticerci: definitive host (bad)
  • if ingest eggs: intermediate host (very bad)
209
Q

pork tapeworm life cycle

A

cysticerci cycle, EGGS ARE INFECTIOUS TO HUMANS

210
Q

pork tapeworm pathology

A
  • same as beef tapeworm
  • NEUROCYSTICERCOSIS: brain lesions, neurological disorders, mortality
211
Q

pork tapeworm diagnosis

A
  • active worms in stool
  • x-ray
  • CAT/MRI
212
Q

pork tapeworm prevention

A
  • well-cooked pork
  • freezing
  • good public hygiene
213
Q

pinworm organsim

A

enterobius vermicularis

214
Q

pinworm location

A

adults in colon

215
Q

pinworm transmission

A

ingestion of eggs

216
Q

pinworm host

A

humans

217
Q

pinworm epidemiology

A
  • cosmopolitan
  • equal opportunity parasite
  • daycare centers
218
Q

pinworm pathology

A
  • intense perianal pruritis
  • secondary infection due to scratching
  • rare urogenital invasion in females
219
Q

pinworm immunity

A

none, reinfection possible

220
Q

pinworm diagnosis

A
  • persistant perianal itch
  • insomina
  • observation of eggs

Microbiology (10 decks)

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