Exam 31 Flashcards

1
Q

Two members of a Queens Ladder Company discussing Ventilation Procedures corrected a third member that made which incorrect statement?
A: When ventilation tactics are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, there is an increase in the survivability of trapped civilians and an increase in the safety of members as they search for the fire and/or victims by controlling flow paths.

B: Ventilation tactics that are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, will facilitate an effective operation by controlling fire development, and limiting the spread of fire, heat and smoke conditions within the fire area and throughout the entire structure.

C: Conducting ventilation remote from the immediate fire area can have a negative impact on civilians and members caught in the flow path.

D: Uncoordinated ventilation can intensify fire conditions and has the potential to create a ventilation-induced flashover. However, this does not apply to situations where fire is already venting out of window(s) remote from your location.

A

Two members of a Queens Ladder Company discussing Ventilation Procedures corrected a third member that made which incorrect statement?
A: When ventilation tactics are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, there is an increase in the survivability of trapped civilians and an increase in the safety of members as they search for the fire and/or victims by controlling flow paths.

B: Ventilation tactics that are properly controlled, communicated and coordinated, will facilitate an effective operation by controlling fire development, and limiting the spread of fire, heat and smoke conditions within the fire area and throughout the entire structure.

C: Conducting ventilation remote from the immediate fire area can have a negative impact on civilians and members caught in the flow path.

D:✔Uncoordinated ventilation can intensify fire conditions and has the potential to create a ventilation-induced flashover. However, this does not apply to situations where fire is already venting out of window(s) remote from your location.

Explanation:
Uncoordinated ventilation can intensify fire conditions and has the potential to create a ventilation-induced flashover. THIS ALSO APPLIES to situations where fire is already venting out of window(s) remote from your location. Where door control was lost on the fire floor, members have been severely and fatally injured.
Vent 6.1

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2
Q

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding deployment of the Personal Safety System (PSS)?
A: This system should only be used after all other means of self rescue have been exhausted. Locate and clear a window suitable for exit.

B: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted. In addition to all other required information relayed for a trapped member, include that you are in the process of deploying the Personal Safety System.

C: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified.

D: If conditions permit, anchoring the hook into the window sill or interior side wall is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system, preferable to tying off to a substantial object.

A

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding deployment of the Personal Safety System (PSS)?
A: This system should only be used after all other means of self rescue have been exhausted. Locate and clear a window suitable for exit.

B: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted. In addition to all other required information relayed for a trapped member, include that you are in the process of deploying the Personal Safety System.

C: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified.

D:✔If conditions permit, anchoring the hook into the window sill or interior side wall is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system, preferable to tying off to a substantial object.

Explanation:
If conditions permit, TYING OFF TO A SUBSTANTIAL OBJECT is the PREFERRED method of anchoring the personal safety system.
Evol 24 3

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3
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the wearing of department uniforms?
A: Shorts may be worn under bunker gear on responses during the months of May 1 thru October 31.

B: Shorts may not be worn for AFID, to Education Day, to Training at the Bureau of Training, or Complaint investigation.

C: Shorts shall not be worn for CFRD responses, ERS No Contact, or Class E alarms unless worn under bunker gear.

D: Shorts may be worn by Chief and Company officers, and firefighters.

A

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the wearing of department uniforms?
A: Shorts may be worn under bunker gear on responses during the months of May 1 thru October 31.

B: Shorts may not be worn for AFID, to Education Day, to Training at the Bureau of Training, or Complaint investigation.

C:✔Shorts shall not be worn for CFRD responses, ERS No Contact, or Class E alarms unless worn under bunker gear.

D: Shorts may be worn by Chief and Company officers, and firefighters.

Explanation:
REGULATIONS – CHAPTER 29
C IS CORRECT – 29.6.4
A – Shorts are an optional part of the uniform year round. 29.6.4
B – Units called to the Bureau of training and Satellite training locations may wear shorts. 29.6.4
D – Shorts may be worn by Company Officers and Firefighters. 29.6.4

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4
Q

Procedures for removing passengers from an elevator can be broken up into three categories; primary; secondary; and emergency. From the list below, choose the incorrect procedure in relation to the category.
A: Checking electrical contacts is considered a primary removal procedure and can be completed without turning off the elevator power

B: Instructing a stuck passenger to exert physical pressure on the elevator door towards the open position is considered a secondary removal procedure. If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to depress or lift the roller on sliding hoistway type doors

C: Top hatch removal is considered an emergency removal. During this method, a portable straight ladder is lowered to the elevator roof where a maximum of two firefighters are permitted. A small portable ladder is then lowered into the elevator for removal

D: Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during emergency removal procedures

A

Procedures for removing passengers from an elevator can be broken up into three categories; primary; secondary; and emergency. From the list below, choose the incorrect procedure in relation to the category.
A: Checking electrical contacts is considered a primary removal procedure and can be completed without turning off the elevator power

B:✔Instructing a stuck passenger to exert physical pressure on the elevator door towards the open position is considered a secondary removal procedure. If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to depress or lift the roller on sliding hoistway type doors

C: Top hatch removal is considered an emergency removal. During this method, a portable straight ladder is lowered to the elevator roof where a maximum of two firefighters are permitted. A small portable ladder is then lowered into the elevator for removal

D: Forcible entry of hoistway and elevator car doors should only be attempted under the direct advisement of an elevator mechanic or as a last resort during emergency removal procedures

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Emergency 1 p- 3-10
Primary- There are 2. Checking electrical connections and activating Firemen Service (without turning off elevator power)
Secondary- If they succeed in opening the car door, instruct them to lift the locking arm on sliding hoistway type doors, or to depress or lift the roller on hinge type hoistway doors
Emergency - Power to the stuck elevator must be off when you use emergency removal procedures ** Whenever secondary or emergency removal procedures are used, power removal is essential. Dispatch 2 members to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car. The machinery room may be located at the top of the shaft, at the bottom of the shaft or two levels above the highest floor serviced by the elevator

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5
Q

The newest member of your study group made several comments on apparatus positioning when first to arrive at a working fire. Choose the incorrect comment.
A: Generally it is better for the engine apparatus back step to be stopped the proper distance beyond the building entrance, taking into account the type of ladder apparatus responding directly from behind

B: The location of the ladder apparatus front bumper dictates how far from the front of the building the engine back step should initially be on arrival, before back stretching

C: An exception to choice B would be wide streets with room for both engine and ladder apparatus placement.

D: Another exception to choices A and B would be when large buildings are encountered such as an H-Type where long complicated stretches are anticipated. This is where the backstep of the engine apparatus should be aligned with the entrance to the building (and in between parked cars)

A

The newest member of your study group made several comments on apparatus positioning when first to arrive at a working fire. Choose the incorrect comment.
A: Generally it is better for the engine apparatus back step to be stopped the proper distance beyond the building entrance, taking into account the type of ladder apparatus responding directly from behind

B:✔The location of the ladder apparatus front bumper dictates how far from the front of the building the engine back step should initially be on arrival, before back stretching

C: An exception to choice B would be wide streets with room for both engine and ladder apparatus placement.

D: Another exception to choices A and B would be when large buildings are encountered such as an H-Type where long complicated stretches are anticipated. This is where the backstep of the engine apparatus should be aligned with the entrance to the building (and in between parked cars)

Explanation:
The location of the ladder apparatus TURNTABLE dictates how far from the front of the building the engine back step should initially be on arrival, before back stretching
Engine Operations ch 8 sec 8.12

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6
Q

Captain Smith, currently covering in a Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU), made an incorrect comment in which choice below regarding these specially trained units?
A: At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents, the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.

B: At incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on victim removal.

C: A HMTU is capable, within the limitation of their training and equipment, to operate as an independent Haz-Mat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident.

D: Entries by HMTU members into contaminated areas shall be made only when appropriate positions (e.g. Entry, Backup, etc.) are filled and a decontamination station is established. This may necessitate awaiting the arrival of a second HMTU to staff the decontamination station.

A

Captain Smith, currently covering in a Haz Mat Technician Unit (HMTU), made an incorrect comment in which choice below regarding these specially trained units?
A: At Haz-Mat mass casualty incidents, the HMTUs may be assigned to victim removal, first aid, and/or decontamination.

B:✔At incidents involving an unusually large number of victims, the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on victim removal.

C: A HMTU is capable, within the limitation of their training and equipment, to operate as an independent Haz-Mat Team in the control and mitigation of an incident.

D: Entries by HMTU members into contaminated areas shall be made only when appropriate positions (e.g. Entry, Backup, etc.) are filled and a decontamination station is established. This may necessitate awaiting the arrival of a second HMTU to staff the decontamination station.

Explanation:
At incidents involving an “unusually large number of victims,” the HMTU’s primary emphasis will be on DECONTAMINATION.
HM 8 5.2, 5.3, 5.6, 6.3

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7
Q

Of the following choices, which tools shall be taken by the second ladder company inside team at a 10-77 in a Class 2 high rise fireproof multiple dwelling:**1) Axe or Maul, **2) Axe and no option of taking the Maul, **3) Search Rope, **4) Carbon Monoxide Meter, **5) KO Curtain.
A: 1,3,4 & 5, only

B: 1,3,& 4, only

C: 2,3,4 & 5, only

D: 2,3 & 4, only

A

Of the following choices, which tools shall be taken by the second ladder company inside team at a 10-77 in a Class 2 high rise fireproof multiple dwelling:**1) Axe or Maul, **2) Axe and no option of taking the Maul, **3) Search Rope, **4) Carbon Monoxide Meter, **5) KO Curtain.
A:✔1,3,4 & 5, only

B: 1,3,& 4, only

C: 2,3,4 & 5, only

D: 2,3 & 4, only

Explanation:
Firefighting Procedures, Multiple Dwelling Fires.
A,B,C,D-sec 8.8.7. There are minor differences in tool assignments for HRFPMDs, LRFPMDs & Class 2 HRMDs.

For 2nd ladder inside team:

Sec. 6.15.2 HRFPMDs-axe only (no option for maul), search rope and no KO curtain.

Sec. 7.8.2 LRFPMDs-axe or maul, no search rope, & KO curtain

Sec. 8.8.7 Class 2 HRMDs-axe or maul, search rope, & KO curtain.

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8
Q

REHAB-MD 5-STY 20X60 CLASS-3 – 2 APT’S PER FLR – FRONT & REAR FIRE ESCAPES – NO EXT ENT TO CELLAR – GUARD DOGS IN CELLAR – RAZOR WIRE FENCE ON ROOF. There is a medium fire condition in the cellar of this multiple dwelling and the assigned companies will arrive on the scene. Which tactical choice is CORRECT regarding a fire in this building?
A: The first line shall be stretched to the interior cellar entrance stairs and advanced down into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

B: Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Incident Commander.

C: The second line shall be stretched to the rear entrance and advanced into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

D: All horizontal ventilation of the cellar and first floor shall be controlled by the first arriving ladder company officer.

A

REHAB-MD 5-STY 20X60 CLASS-3 – 2 APT’S PER FLR – FRONT & REAR FIRE ESCAPES – NO EXT ENT TO CELLAR – GUARD DOGS IN CELLAR – RAZOR WIRE FENCE ON ROOF. There is a medium fire condition in the cellar of this multiple dwelling and the assigned companies will arrive on the scene. Which tactical choice is CORRECT regarding a fire in this building?
A:✔The first line shall be stretched to the interior cellar entrance stairs and advanced down into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

B: Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Incident Commander.

C: The second line shall be stretched to the rear entrance and advanced into the cellar to extinguish the fire.

D: All horizontal ventilation of the cellar and first floor shall be controlled by the first arriving ladder company officer.

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A IS CORRECT - The first line should not be advanced down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless the fire is minor. 4.2.1 CIDS STATES NO EXTERIOR ENTRANCE
B – Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer working in the fire area (fire floor). 4.2.2
C – There is no cellar entrance to the building.
D – All horizontal ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the ladder officer in the area to be vented (Fire Floor, Floor above, etc). IT’S NOT BOTH. 4.2.2

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9
Q

While on a CFRD run to a lounge in Engine 98’s administrative district, Engine 99 receives a complaint from patrons about a dangerous overcrowding condition in a similar occupancy around the corner. Which action taken in response by Engine 99’s officer is CORRECT according to dept. regulations?
A: After completion of the CFR run, the Officer had the members conduct an inspection of the premises.

B: The officer made an immediate notification to the administrative Battalion Chief for further investigation.

C: The officer made an immediate notification to the administrative Division for further investigation.

D: The officer returned to quarters, documented receipt of the complaint in the company journal and telephoned the particulars to the administrative company.

A

While on a CFRD run to a lounge in Engine 98’s administrative district, Engine 99 receives a complaint from patrons about a dangerous overcrowding condition in a similar occupancy around the corner. Which action taken in response by Engine 99’s officer is CORRECT according to dept. regulations?
A: After completion of the CFR run, the Officer had the members conduct an inspection of the premises.

B:✔The officer made an immediate notification to the administrative Battalion Chief for further investigation.

C: The officer made an immediate notification to the administrative Division for further investigation.

D: The officer returned to quarters, documented receipt of the complaint in the company journal and telephoned the particulars to the administrative company.

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 12
B IS CORRECT – 12.1.6
A – Correct for occupancy within their administrative district. 12.1.6
C – Battalion will investigate with the appropriate fire company and inform Deputy of actions taken. 12.1.6.
D - Upon receipt of a complaint for premises or locations not within their administrative districts, company officers shall accept the particulars, record same in company journal, and promptly convey all necessary information to the proper unit by telephone. These procedures do not apply to complaints related to places of public amusement and entertainment such as theaters, sports arenas, convention halls, dance halls, cabarets or similar occupancies. Such complaints will be immediately telephoned to the administrative Battalion Chief. 12.1.6

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10
Q

Engine 399 and Ladder 199 are leaving quarters, 10-8 to head to multi-unit drill. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding MUD & their drill at a vacant building in their response area?
A: Prior to leaving quarters, the member on housewatch will make an entry for the company leaving quarters proceeding to MUD.

B: Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and conducted between the hours of 0730 hours and 2000 hours.

C: Prior to conducting any training exercise on private property, a request for training form TR-1 and a letterhead report shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the Bureau of Operations, Planning.

D: Prior to the conclusion of drill, the officers on duty with participating units shall be responsible for proper supervision of an operating test and inspection of each mask carried.

A

Engine 399 and Ladder 199 are leaving quarters, 10-8 to head to multi-unit drill. Which of the following choices is CORRECT regarding MUD & their drill at a vacant building in their response area?
A: Prior to leaving quarters, the member on housewatch will make an entry for the company leaving quarters proceeding to MUD.

B: Multi-unit drills shall be of at least one and one-half hours duration and conducted between the hours of 0730 hours and 2000 hours.

C:✔Prior to conducting any training exercise on private property, a request for training form TR-1 and a letterhead report shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the Bureau of Operations, Planning.

D: Prior to the conclusion of drill, the officers on duty with participating units shall be responsible for proper supervision of an operating test and inspection of each mask carried.

Explanation:
REGULATIONS CROSS REFERENCE – CHAPTERS 22 & 13
C IS CORRECT – 22.5.7
A – Members record responses, all other movement is recorded by the officer.
B – MUD shall be at least one and a half hours between 0630 and 2000 hrs. 22.5.3
D – Mask tests shall be conducted immediately prior to the start of MUD 22.5.3

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11
Q

During the winter months operations must be altered due to the weather. Of the choices listed below, choose the incorrect operation at the scene of a fire or emergency during the winter.
A: Place additional water extinguishers in rear compartments of the apparatus in case of frozen hydrants

B: During intermittent line operations, nozzles shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing, discharging water so as to avoid unnecessary damage

C: Do not raise aerial ladder unless absolutely necessary, and retract ladders at the earliest opportunity

D: Ladder companies shall have shovels available as needed for roof operations

E: Engine companies shall have shovels available for the clearing of hydrants

A

During the winter months operations must be altered due to the weather. Of the choices listed below, choose the incorrect operation at the scene of a fire or emergency during the winter.
A:✔Place additional water extinguishers in rear compartments of the apparatus in case of frozen hydrants

B: During intermittent line operations, nozzles shall be cracked slightly to prevent freezing, discharging water so as to avoid unnecessary damage

C: Do not raise aerial ladder unless absolutely necessary, and retract ladders at the earliest opportunity

D: Ladder companies shall have shovels available as needed for roof operations

E: Engine companies shall have shovels available for the clearing of hydrants

Explanation:
Place water extinguishers in cab of apparatus or heated area
AUC 200 sec 4.4

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12
Q

Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to monitor and record the psi of the hydrant nearest quarters. The most correct time of year this shall be done can be found in which choice?
A: First full week in May

B: Last full week in May

C: First full week in June

D: Last full week in June

A

Units shall use the Hydrant Pressure Chart to monitor and record the psi of the hydrant nearest quarters. The most correct time of year this shall be done can be found in which choice?
A:✔First full week in May

B: Last full week in May

C: First full week in June

D: Last full week in June

Explanation:
This chart shall be posted at the HouseWatch area throughout the summer season
AUC 205 add 2

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13
Q

When using an elevator during fire operations, precautionary stops shall be conducted to ensure the elevator is working properly. Choose the incorrect tactic for precautionary stops.
A: Elevator should be stopped every 5 floors to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made

B: Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the in the elevator shaft

C: The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button

D: Inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign should be done at the last precautionary stop only

A

When using an elevator during fire operations, precautionary stops shall be conducted to ensure the elevator is working properly. Choose the incorrect tactic for precautionary stops.
A: Elevator should be stopped every 5 floors to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor. At each stop a new selection must be made

B: Before leaving the lobby and at each precautionary stop direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any accumulation of smoke in the in the elevator shaft

C: The relationship of the elevator to the stairway should be noted. This can be accomplished by inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign which is required to be posted at each floor near the call button

D:✔Inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign should be done at the last precautionary stop only

Explanation:
Inspecting the “YOU ARE HERE” sign should be done at the FIRST and LAST precautionary stop
Training Bulletins Emergencies 1 sec 6.1.10

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14
Q

The Inflatable Soft Landing Mat is a training safety device to protect members sliding down ropes when training at firehouses. The mat shall be used in a responsible manner and under the supervision of company officers. Select the incorrect use for the Inflatable Soft Landing Mat.
A: The mat shall not be used at a remote site

B: The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of two stories

C: The landing mat may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, including the sidewalk apron

D: If the mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside

A

The Inflatable Soft Landing Mat is a training safety device to protect members sliding down ropes when training at firehouses. The mat shall be used in a responsible manner and under the supervision of company officers. Select the incorrect use for the Inflatable Soft Landing Mat.
A: The mat shall not be used at a remote site

B:✔The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of two stories

C: The landing mat may be positioned at any suitable location around the perimeter of the firehouse, including the sidewalk apron

D: If the mat is to be used in front of quarters, the apparatus must be removed and parked in a safe position outside

Explanation:
The landing mat is to be used in rope training operations to a maximum height of THREE stories
Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data Sheet 4 sec 3 and sec 4

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15
Q

The most correct procedure when cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA regulator can be found in in which choice?
A: Remove the breathing regulator from the facepiece by rotating the regulator 1/4 turn counter clockwise

B: Once the regulator is removed, depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully counter clockwise.

C: After purge knob is closed, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70 percent Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening

D: Alcohol and water should be applied to the regulator surface, exhalation port, and directly into the spray bar ports

A

The most correct procedure when cleaning and disinfecting the SCBA regulator can be found in in which choice?
A: Remove the breathing regulator from the facepiece by rotating the regulator 1/4 turn counter clockwise

B: Once the regulator is removed, depress the manual shut-off, close the purge knob by turning fully counter clockwise.

C:✔After purge knob is closed, spray a minimum of 6 full pumps of 70 percent Isopropyl Alcohol into the regulator opening

D: Alcohol and water should be applied to the regulator surface, exhalation port, and directly into the spray bar ports

Explanation:
A- Clockwise 
B- Clockwise 
D- Alcohol and water should only be applied to the regulator surface and exhalation port. Alcohol and water should NOT be directed into the spray bar ports 
Training Bulletins SCBA add 5
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16
Q

At a fire on the top floor and cockloft of a 4-story Brownstone type row frame without a rear fire escape, and the first arriving ladder company is a tower ladder, the second arriving ladder responsibilities are many. Which member of this 2nd arriving ladder company operated INCORRECTLY?
A: The inside team operated on the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure.

B: When no longer needed at the aerial, the LCC operated in the opposite exposure for VEIS of the top floor and examination of the cockloft.

C: After checking the rear, the OV teamed up with the LCC for exposure examination or proceeded to the roof.

D: The Roof firefighter operated on the roof of the most severe exposure for examination and ventilation.

A

At a fire on the top floor and cockloft of a 4-story Brownstone type row frame without a rear fire escape, and the first arriving ladder company is a tower ladder, the second arriving ladder responsibilities are many. Which member of this 2nd arriving ladder company operated INCORRECTLY?
A: The inside team operated on the top floor of the most severely threatened exposure.

B: When no longer needed at the aerial, the LCC operated in the opposite exposure for VEIS of the top floor and examination of the cockloft.

C: After checking the rear, the OV teamed up with the LCC for exposure examination or proceeded to the roof.

D:✔The Roof firefighter operated on the roof of the most severe exposure for examination and ventilation.

Explanation:
BROWNSTONES AND ROWFRAMES
D IS INCORRECT – The 2nd roof position is on the roof of the fire building for Assist in ventilation of fire building and necessary exposures. When the fire is on the top floor and in the cockloft, both roof firefighters work together to vent roof with the saw. 5.8.1 pg 43
A – 5.8.1 pg 42
B – 5.8.1 pg 42
C – 5.8.1 pg 43 & 2.7 #1 pg 20
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17
Q

Ladder companies in Battalion 99 are 1084 at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. Several laddering decisions were made during the early stages of this fire. Which one was CORRECT?
A: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial to the roof at an extreme angle so that it barely touched the building. It was extended 4 feet above the roof.

B: The 2nd arriving OV placed the first portable ladder to the first fire escape balcony alongside the drop ladder to assist with the number of people coming down the fire escape.

C: The 2nd arriving LCC positioned the Tower Ladder top basket railing level with the fire escape so members could load an unconscious 1045 victim in the bucket.

D: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial on the 3rd floor fire escape balcony, less than 6” above the railing.

A

Ladder companies in Battalion 99 are 1084 at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 6-story multiple dwelling. Several laddering decisions were made during the early stages of this fire. Which one was CORRECT?
A: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial to the roof at an extreme angle so that it barely touched the building. It was extended 4 feet above the roof.

B: The 2nd arriving OV placed the first portable ladder to the first fire escape balcony alongside the drop ladder to assist with the number of people coming down the fire escape.

C:✔The 2nd arriving LCC positioned the Tower Ladder top basket railing level with the fire escape so members could load an unconscious 1045 victim in the bucket.

D: The 1st arriving LCC placed the aerial on the 3rd floor fire escape balcony, less than 6” above the railing.

Explanation:
LADDERS BULLETINS – PORTABLES – AERIALS – TOWER LADDERS
C IS CORRECT – Tower Ladders 3.3
A - When placing the ladder to the roof, extend the ladder so that the tip is at least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building. Lad 2 - 7.13
B - A portable ladder should be raised to the first balcony at a point opposite the drop ladder. Portable Ladders 10.1
D – Aerial Ladders are not placed on Fire escapes. 3.3.1 Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.

18
Q

You are the officer on duty on Memorial Day Weekend and firefighter Walker calls to advise you that he has been selected for Jury Duty Service following his call-in period. You run down a bunch of things he should be aware of. Which one is INCORRECT according to the PA/ID?
A: You are responsible for working 6x9 Friday and Saturday tours and before holidays, and 9x6 tours on Saturday, Sunday, and Holidays.

B: If jury duty service starts prior to the beginning of your vacation, the vacation leave will be postponed.

C: You are not permitted to work any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 on the date immediately prior to the first day of service until released from Jury Duty Service.

D: Members scheduled to work on Memorial or Veteran’s day that are excused for Jury Duty are not entitled to Comp Time reimbursement.

A

You are the officer on duty on Memorial Day Weekend and firefighter Walker calls to advise you that he has been selected for Jury Duty Service following his call-in period. You run down a bunch of things he should be aware of. Which one is INCORRECT according to the PA/ID?
A:✔You are responsible for working 6x9 Friday and Saturday tours and before holidays, and 9x6 tours on Saturday, Sunday, and Holidays.

B: If jury duty service starts prior to the beginning of your vacation, the vacation leave will be postponed.

C: You are not permitted to work any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 on the date immediately prior to the first day of service until released from Jury Duty Service.

D: Members scheduled to work on Memorial or Veteran’s day that are excused for Jury Duty are not entitled to Comp Time reimbursement.

Explanation:
PA/ID 1/96 – JURY DUTY LEAVE
A IS INCORRECT – Saturday 6x9 tours and night tours before holidays. (Not Fridays) 7.1
B – 8.3
C – 6.2.1
D – 7.2
19
Q

Firefighter Jones was discussing sexual harassment and the EEO Complaint Process with several of her fellow firefighters and the filing process came up. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the filing process for sexual harassment complaints?
A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly through BITS at HQ.

B: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated to the officer who will forward the complaint to the EEO Office.

C: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.

D: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated my mailing a letter to the EEO Office.

A

Firefighter Jones was discussing sexual harassment and the EEO Complaint Process with several of her fellow firefighters and the filing process came up. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the filing process for sexual harassment complaints?
A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly through BITS at HQ.

B: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated to the officer who will forward the complaint to the EEO Office.

C:✔Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.

D: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated my mailing a letter to the EEO Office.

Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO
C IS INCORRECT – The chain of command from the member to the EEO officer is bypassed when the member utilizes the complaint process 10.1
A – 5.4
B – 5.2.5
D – 5.2.2
20
Q

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to the FDNY policy for NYC Transit Subway Stations.
A: A red globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day

B: A green globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day. There may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate

C: Information pertaining to the station can be found in a see-through folder, which will be readily available at the full time token booth of every station

D: When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative Battalion Chief

A

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to the FDNY policy for NYC Transit Subway Stations.
A: A red globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day

B: A green globe on a light post encountered by units upon arrival at a subway entrance indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day. There may or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate

C: Information pertaining to the station can be found in a see-through folder, which will be readily available at the full time token booth of every station

D:✔When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the administrative Battalion Chief

Explanation:
When a unit loses their assigned Metrocard, the officer on duty shall immediately notify the FDNY Resource Center. In addition, officer shall file a police report and complete a Lost Property Report. Forward to FDNY Resource Center
AUC 207 add 3

21
Q

The incorrect SCBA policy can be found in which choice?
A: Members are not to utilize any FAST Pak for civilians

B: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited

C: When a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or is malfunctioning the company officer shall inform the IC or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established. Member shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member who is using a SCBA

D: The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC

A

The incorrect SCBA policy can be found in which choice?
A:✔Members are not to utilize any FAST Pak for civilians

B: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited

C: When a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or is malfunctioning the company officer shall inform the IC or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established. Member shall be accompanied to a safe area by another member who is using a SCBA

D: The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the IC

Explanation:
For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak other than the one assigned to the FAST Unit or utilize a spare SCBA
AUC 220

22
Q

You respond to a call for fumes on the 3rd floor of a Brownstone. On arrival, your CO meter alerts you to the presence of 160ppm of CO in the building. The occupants had a CO detector but the batteries were removed so they were unaware of the hazard. Which code should you transmit?
A: 10-38 Code 1

B: 10-38 Code 2

C: 10-38 Code 3

D: 10-38 Code 4

A

You respond to a call for fumes on the 3rd floor of a Brownstone. On arrival, your CO meter alerts you to the presence of 160ppm of CO in the building. The occupants had a CO detector but the batteries were removed so they were unaware of the hazard. Which code should you transmit?
A: 10-38 Code 1

B: 10-38 Code 2

C: 10-38 Code 3

D:✔10-38 Code 4

Explanation:
Code 4 because, regardless of the ppm, there was NO DETECTOR ACTIVATION
10-38 - Any type of Carbon Monoxide Response
Code 1: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Investigation (low battery, defective detector, unwarranted alarm, etc.)
Code 2: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident (CO Meter Reading of 1-9ppm)
Code 3: Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Emergency (CO Meter Reading of greater than 9ppm)
Code 4: No Detector Activation: Carbon Monoxide Incident or Emergency (Specify) e.g.: no detector present in affected area, detector present in affected area, but did not activate.
Comm 8 p11

23
Q

At a taxpayer fire, what duty of the second arriving Engine is listed incorrectly?
A: Ensure the sprinkler system is supplied.

B: Stretch a line to control the first floor if the first Engine company has advanced into the cellar via the interior cellar entrance.

C: Stretch a line to serve as a backup or protection line for the first Engine company.

D: Stretch a line into the cellar via the interior stairs or the outside entrance if the first Engine‘s line has to control the first floor.

A

At a taxpayer fire, what duty of the second arriving Engine is listed incorrectly?
A:✔Ensure the sprinkler system is supplied.

B: Stretch a line to control the first floor if the first Engine company has advanced into the cellar via the interior cellar entrance.

C: Stretch a line to serve as a backup or protection line for the first Engine company.

D: Stretch a line into the cellar via the interior stairs or the outside entrance if the first Engine‘s line has to control the first floor.

Explanation:
In a building protected by a sprinkler system, when the first Engine has not supplied it AND STAFFING AND CONDITIONS PERMIT, a second line shall be stretched to feed this system.
Note: Be advised that the third Engine will ENSURE the sprinkler system is supplied.
The 2nd arriving Engine May also employ the use of cellar pipes or distributors over the fire.
Txpyr 7.2.3 B

24
Q

If a local community leader stops by the firehouse for an inquiry, you would be most correct to ensure which entry is made in the flagging column?
A: VST

B: VIS

C: VISIT

D: V

A

If a local community leader stops by the firehouse for an inquiry, you would be most correct to ensure which entry is made in the flagging column?
A: VST

B:✔VIS

C: VISIT

D: V

Explanation:
VIS - Visit by Non-Member
CJ p8

25
Q

Auxiliary Radio Communication Systems (ARCS) can be an asset to Department operations; however, members should know what to do when such systems fail. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: FDNY personnel should be alert to the signs of ARCS failure. Indications may include unusual periods of radio silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the ARCS Channel(s).

B: If an ARCS system is not operational, the Incident Commander (IC) will attempt to contact members through utilization of the HT on Channel 1 (Primary Tactical).

C: Operating units may encounter dead spots in Duplex radio repeater coverage. In this case, Chief and Company Officers shall instruct units to immediately abandon use of the ARCS channel and operate on HT Channel 1.

D: When an ARCS channel is abandoned, the Incident Commander will continue to monitor the ARCS channel in case system service is restored and/or a member, who was unable to hear the emergency transmission to switch from the ARCS channel, tries to make contact.

A

Auxiliary Radio Communication Systems (ARCS) can be an asset to Department operations; however, members should know what to do when such systems fail. Which of the following choices is incorrect?
A: FDNY personnel should be alert to the signs of ARCS failure. Indications may include unusual periods of radio silence or continued inability to make radio contact on the ARCS Channel(s).

B: If an ARCS system is not operational, the Incident Commander (IC) will attempt to contact members through utilization of the HT on Channel 1 (Primary Tactical).

C:✔Operating units may encounter dead spots in Duplex radio repeater coverage. In this case, Chief and Company Officers shall instruct units to immediately abandon use of the ARCS channel and operate on HT Channel 1.

D: When an ARCS channel is abandoned, the Incident Commander will continue to monitor the ARCS channel in case system service is restored and/or a member, who was unable to hear the emergency transmission to switch from the ARCS channel, tries to make contact.

Explanation:
Operating units may encounter dead spots in Duplex radio repeater coverage. PRIOR TO ABANDONING THE USE of an ARCS channel, Chief and Company Officers shall instruct units to return to a location where previous communications were successful.
C Note: If communications at this location are now successful on the ARCS Channel, report the dead spot to the IC and continue to operate on the ARCS Channel. If unsuccessful, use the HT on Channel 1 to report the repeater failure to the Incident Commander.
Comm 13 5.1, 5.3

26
Q

When filling out a PCR at a CFR run, if a patient is unable to verbalize his or her “Chief Complaint” because the patient is unresponsive, the “documenter” Firefighter shall write which of the following?
A: Nothing - Leave it blank

B: Not applicable

C: Patient unresponsive

D: Patient unable

A

When filling out a PCR at a CFR run, if a patient is unable to verbalize his or her “Chief Complaint” because the patient is unresponsive, the “documenter” Firefighter shall write which of the following?
A: Nothing - Leave it blank

B: Not applicable

C:✔Patient unresponsive

D: Patient unable

Explanation:
CFR-D Chapter 5 sec 4.9
Enter the patient’s statement of the problem in his or her own words, (e.g., “My chest hurts”). If the patient is unresponsive write Patient “unresponsive”

27
Q

Members must be familiar with the proper procedures for hooking up to a standpipe. Which choice below is not in compliance with Department policy?
A: If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it should be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, than it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.

B: Always connect the in-line pressure gauge to the standpipe outlet to ensure correct nozzle pressure. Pressure gauges shall not be pre-connected to a folded length of hose.

C: When carrying folded lengths, they are placed with the butts toward the body, minimizing the chance of the butts flopping around.

D: The controlling nozzle shall not be carried attached to the folded lead length.

A

Members must be familiar with the proper procedures for hooking up to a standpipe. Which choice below is not in compliance with Department policy?
A: If a pressure reducing/restricting device (PRD) is found on the standpipe outlet, it should be removed. If the PRD cannot be removed, and there is no other outlet available without a PRD, than it is permissible to use an outlet with a PRD.

B: Always connect the in-line pressure gauge to the standpipe outlet to ensure correct nozzle pressure. Pressure gauges shall not be pre-connected to a folded length of hose.

C: When carrying folded lengths, they are placed with the butts toward the body, minimizing the chance of the butts flopping around.

D:✔The controlling nozzle shall not be carried attached to the folded lead length.

Explanation:
The controlling nozzle MUST ALWAYS be carried attached to the folded lead length.
Evol 9 3.9 B, C, D, K

28
Q

What is the MAXIMUM Transportation Index (TI) you can expect on a “Yellow II” label?
A: 50 mR/hr

B: 1 mR/hr

C: 10 mR/hr

D: 0 mR/hr

A

What is the MAXIMUM Transportation Index (TI) you can expect on a “Yellow II” label?
A: 50 mR/hr

B:✔1 mR/hr

C: 10 mR/hr

D: 0 mR/hr

Explanation:
White I - 0.5 mR/hr on surface; N/A TI
Yellow II - 50 mR/hr on surface; 1 mR/hr TI
Yellow III - 200 mR/hr on surface; 10 mR/hr TI
ERP Add 4 p33

29
Q

The Personal Harness and Personal Safety System (PSS) is provided to every FF below the rank of DC to enable a FF to remove themselves from an untenable position above grade. All of the following concerning the PSS system are correct except?
A: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted

B: If conditions permit, tying off to a substantial object is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system

C: Select a suitable substantial object such as at least one wall stud

D: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified

A

The Personal Harness and Personal Safety System (PSS) is provided to every FF below the rank of DC to enable a FF to remove themselves from an untenable position above grade. All of the following concerning the PSS system are correct except?
A: When a member has decided to deploy the Personal Safety System, a Mayday transmission for a trapped member must be transmitted

B: If conditions permit, tying off to a substantial object is the preferred method of anchoring the personal safety system

C:✔Select a suitable substantial object such as at least one wall stud

D: When a point of safety is reached after using your Personal Safety System, the Incident Commander must be notified

Explanation:
Evolution 23 page 1
Select a suitable substantial object, e.g., steam riser, radiator, TWO wall studs, door frame, etc

30
Q

Your unit responds to a call for a Li-ion-ESS container with smoke showing on arrival. Which action is in accordance with Department procedures for this incident?
A: Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building.

B: The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, but not charge the water extinguishing system.

C: Do not exhaust the container. Most containers do not have an exhaust system place.

D: Transmit a 10-80 no code radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.

A

Your unit responds to a call for a Li-ion-ESS container with smoke showing on arrival. Which action is in accordance with Department procedures for this incident?
A:✔Shut down the ESS (ESTOP) at the FDC or inside the electrical room if the ESS is supplying a building.

B: The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, but not charge the water extinguishing system.

C: Do not exhaust the container. Most containers do not have an exhaust system place.

D: Transmit a 10-80 no code radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.

Explanation:
The Engine Company shall connect to the FDC, if available, AND CHARGE the water extinguishing system.
EXHAUST the container using the exhaust override switch at the FDC. CABINETS may not have exhaust systems.
Transmit a 10-80 CODE 1 radio signal for a Haz-Mat Response.
Note: Also…. Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use narrow fog or straight stream application and maximum reach of streams if possible.
HM 19 5

31
Q

The information that’s written in the left quadrant of the Search Assessment Marking System can be found in which choice?
A: Company

B: Time and Date

C: Personal Hazards

D: Number of live and/or expired victims

A

The information that’s written in the left quadrant of the Search Assessment Marking System can be found in which choice?
A:✔Company

B: Time and Date

C: Personal Hazards

D: Number of live and/or expired victims

Explanation:
Collapse Operations add 2 sec 4 
A- Left
B- Top
C- Right
D- Bottom
32
Q

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding “Ventilation for Extinguishment?”
A: Ventilation for Extinguishment is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic which facilitates the Engine Company’s extinguishment of the fire. This tactic must coincide with the application of water on the seat of the fire.

B: This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the Engine Company is extinguishing the fire. The member on the exterior may be in position prior to hoseline placement and must coordinate their actions to prevent premature ventilation.

C: Once in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the Engine Company Officer.

D: To properly coordinate Ventilation for Extinguishment between the interior and exterior operating forces, all members must monitor handie-talkie transmissions to ensure proper communications prior to performing ventilation.

A

Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding “Ventilation for Extinguishment?”
A: Ventilation for Extinguishment is the controlled and coordinated ventilation tactic which facilitates the Engine Company’s extinguishment of the fire. This tactic must coincide with the application of water on the seat of the fire.

B: This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the Engine Company is extinguishing the fire. The member on the exterior may be in position prior to hoseline placement and must coordinate their actions to prevent premature ventilation.

C:✔Once in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the Engine Company Officer.

D: To properly coordinate Ventilation for Extinguishment between the interior and exterior operating forces, all members must monitor handie-talkie transmissions to ensure proper communications prior to performing ventilation.

Explanation:
Once in position on the exterior, perform a size-up, communicate the ventilation profile and await permission to vent from the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER.
Vent 11.1-11.3

33
Q

A “Taxpayer” is improperly defined in which choice below?
A: The term “Taxpayer” is not defined or recognized in the building code; the term originally referred to the practice of real estate investors who, while holding land for speculation, resorted to minimal investment in construction to produce income to offset the cost of taxes. These structures were usually of cheap and flimsy construction with little or no fire retarding features.

B: A taxpayer building is commonly taken to mean a business structure one or two stories in height of Class 3 construction (exterior firewalls with wooden interior structural members).

C: Taxpayer areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides.

D: Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with reliant, fire resistive partitions and multiple fire stops in the cocklofts.

A

A “Taxpayer” is improperly defined in which choice below?
A: The term “Taxpayer” is not defined or recognized in the building code; the term originally referred to the practice of real estate investors who, while holding land for speculation, resorted to minimal investment in construction to produce income to offset the cost of taxes. These structures were usually of cheap and flimsy construction with little or no fire retarding features.

B: A taxpayer building is commonly taken to mean a business structure one or two stories in height of Class 3 construction (exterior firewalls with wooden interior structural members).

C: Taxpayer areas vary from 20’ x 50’ to areas of whole city blocks, the most common size being approximately 100’ x 100’. They can be built on one or more lots with adjoining structures of greater heights on three sides.

D:✔Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with reliant, fire resistive partitions and multiple fire stops in the cocklofts.

Explanation:
Taxpayers are usually single structures commonly sheltering from one to as many as 15 different businesses with WEAK, NON-FIRE RESISTIVE PARTITIONS and NO FIRE STOPS in the cocklofts.
Taxpayer 2.1, 2.2

34
Q

Which tactic for a cockloft fire in a taxpayer is listed incorrectly?
A: Ceilings shall be pulled in occupancies to expose fire and define the extent of the same. The Incident Commander shall order a handline with a cockloft nozzle into the interior to knock down the fire in the cockloft.

B: Operate from the roof with cellar pipes, distributors or New York bent tips. Protective lines should be stretched to protect members operating these appliances.

C: Operate hoselines directly into roof openings. This is good practice and the primary purpose of roof lines.

D: As a last resort, personnel shall be withdrawn and the use of tower ladder, multiversal and deckpipe streams resorted to.

A

Which tactic for a cockloft fire in a taxpayer is listed incorrectly?
A: Ceilings shall be pulled in occupancies to expose fire and define the extent of the same. The Incident Commander shall order a handline with a cockloft nozzle into the interior to knock down the fire in the cockloft.

B: Operate from the roof with cellar pipes, distributors or New York bent tips. Protective lines should be stretched to protect members operating these appliances.

C:✔Operate hoselines directly into roof openings. This is good practice and the primary purpose of roof lines.

D: As a last resort, personnel shall be withdrawn and the use of tower ladder, multiversal and deckpipe streams resorted to.

Explanation:
Operate hoselines directly into roof openings. This GENERALLY is NOT A GOOD PRACTICE but in SOME CASES may be the ONLY way of hitting the fire and controlling it. Before lines are operated into the roof all interior operations must cease or personnel withdrawn to a safe area. The PRIMARY PURPOSE of roof lines is to protect members operating on the roof and prevent fire extension to exposures.
Also…..On older type taxpayers there may be vents or store signs attached to the front of the building covering openings into the cockloft. Streams can be operated into these openings to effect extinguishment.
Txpyr 7.3.3

35
Q

On the MV-104 form, if more than ____ drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other
pedestrians are involved in an accident, you must use additional report forms.
A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 6

A

On the MV-104 form, if more than ____ drivers, vehicles, bicyclists, pedestrians or other
pedestrians are involved in an accident, you must use additional report forms.
A:✔2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 6

Explanation:
SB 56 Add 7 2.10

36
Q

During a seemingly routine operation, things can become quite complex when it’s been determined a hazardous material is involved. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: If during the operation it is determined that a hazardous material is present, a hazard assessment must be made to determine if a release of the hazardous material has occurred. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority.

B: If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not have the proper PPE, units must withdraw from the area. A defensive posture should begin with the transmission of a 10-80 signal with the appropriate code and hazard and risk assessments should continue until Haz-Mat resources arrive to begin offensive operations in the appropriate level of PPE.

C: Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should never be attempted.

D: When the probability is high that a victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or a potential explosion may also make the risk unacceptable.

A

During a seemingly routine operation, things can become quite complex when it’s been determined a hazardous material is involved. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: If during the operation it is determined that a hazardous material is present, a hazard assessment must be made to determine if a release of the hazardous material has occurred. An attempt to identify the material and its hazards should become a top priority.

B: If it is determined that the material has been released and members do not have the proper PPE, units must withdraw from the area. A defensive posture should begin with the transmission of a 10-80 signal with the appropriate code and hazard and risk assessments should continue until Haz-Mat resources arrive to begin offensive operations in the appropriate level of PPE.

C:✔Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should never be attempted.

D: When the probability is high that a victim is not viable, rescue or recovery should not be attempted if it will place the rescuer at unnecessary risk. The danger of exposure to unknown chemicals or a potential explosion may also make the risk unacceptable.

Explanation:
Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) persons from immediate danger. Involvement in complicated rescue situations should be CAREFULLY EVALUATED before being attempted.
ERP 10.4, 10.5, 10.7.2, 10.7.3

37
Q

While operating at a train derailment, the IC orders your unit to perform a hazard assessment for hazardous materials. You would be correct to look for which type of shipping papers?

A: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the conductor.

B: The “waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

C: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the master.

D: The “waybill” carried by the operator.

A

While operating at a train derailment, the IC orders your unit to perform a hazard assessment for hazardous materials. You would be correct to look for which type of shipping papers?

A: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the conductor.

B:✔The “waybill” carried by the conductor in the caboose or engine.

C: The “bill of lading” kept within reach of the master.

D: The “waybill” carried by the operator.

Explanation:
HM 2 4.4

38
Q

At a fire in a high rise office building, the first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably?
A: Chauffeur of the first arriving Ladder Company.

B: Chauffeur of the first arriving Engine Company.

C: OV FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

D: Roof FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

A

At a fire in a high rise office building, the first arriving officer shall establish the ICP. In the event that he or she leaves the ICP before the arrival of a Chief Officer, he or she shall designate a member to staff the ICP, preferably?
A:✔Chauffeur of the first arriving Ladder Company.

B: Chauffeur of the first arriving Engine Company.

C: OV FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

D: Roof FF of the first arriving Ladder Company.

Explanation:
This member shall note the units entering and leaving the lobby and their destination.
HROB 6.3.4 A

39
Q

Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding communications between Fire and EMS?
A: When a CFR unit arrives at a CFR response and an EMS unit is on-scene, the Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 200 to EMS”).

B: If the CFR unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with the CFR unit (e.g. “EMS 15 Adam to Engine 200”).

C: When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, information may be relayed through the FD dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.

D: At a fire response, if EMS cannot be contacted on HT Channel 1, members should attempt to contact EMS utilizing HT Channel 10.

A

Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding communications between Fire and EMS?
A: When a CFR unit arrives at a CFR response and an EMS unit is on-scene, the Fire unit will initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1 with the unit designation (e.g. “Engine 200 to EMS”).

B: If the CFR unit is on-scene first, EMS will initiate contact with the CFR unit (e.g. “EMS 15 Adam to Engine 200”).

C: When Fire units are unable to contact EMS via HT Channel 1, information may be relayed through the FD dispatcher to the EMS unit assigned.

D:✔At a fire response, if EMS cannot be contacted on HT Channel 1, members should attempt to contact EMS utilizing HT Channel 10.

Explanation:
When the use of HT Channel 1 is impractical, EMS/Fire frequency (Channel 10) may be used at NON-FIRE EMERGENCIES to facilitate communications. An example would be a Mass Casualty Incident (MCI) where a Medical Branch communication plan is implemented.
Comm 14 Add 1 2.1-2.4

40
Q

The newly issued Motorola HTs have the ability to recall and view the last ______ transmissions.
A: 10

B: 15

C: 20

D: 25

A

The newly issued Motorola HTs have the ability to recall and view the last ______ transmissions.
A: 10

B:✔15

C: 20

D: 25

Explanation:
Comm 11 3.5.3