Exam 20 Flashcards by William Moran

Engine 99 is taking up from operating at a box where it is suspected that bed bugs were present at the location. Which of the following solutions is CORRECT regarding the discovery of bed bugs at the conclusion of operations?
A: If any bed bugs are discovered by members in the department apparatus, the officer shall place the unit out of service; notify the Battalion, Division, & Dispatcher.

B: If any bed bugs are discovered by members in furniture on the apparatus floor, promptly notify the Department of Sanitation to arrange for the disposal of the infested furniture.

C: If any bed bugs are discovered by members on department equipment, soft and hard surface equipment should be packed into double clear plastic bags and sealed for decontamination.

D: If any bed bugs are discovered on member’s bunker gear or work duty uniforms, follow department procedures for cleaning contaminated uniforms.

B: If any bed bugs are discovered by members in furniture on the apparatus floor, promptly notify the Department of Sanitation to arrange for the disposal of the infested furniture.

C: If any bed bugs are discovered by members on department equipment, soft and hard surface equipment should be packed into double clear plastic bags and sealed for decontamination.

D:✔If any bed bugs are discovered on member’s bunker gear or work duty uniforms, follow department procedures for cleaning contaminated uniforms.

Explanation:
CFRD CHAPTER 3 ADDENDUM 5
D IS CORRECT 1.8.
A – Incorrect – GROSSLY CONTAMINATED with numerous bed bugs – 1.10
B – Furniture that is believed to be infested shall not be disposed of until properly identified as bed bugs by the OSHA Unit. 2.3
C – Soft equipment should be packed, hard surface equipment (monitors/AED’S) can be cleaned by wiping in accordance with Chapter 3. 1.7

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Engine 3 arrives 3rd due for a fire in a store on the first floor of an old law tenement building. The first line is advancing into the store fire. The officer of Engine 3 would be correct to stretch the second hoseline to which location?
A: Immediately to the second floor of the fire building.

B: Into the store as a backup line.

C: To the entrance hallway.

D: To the top floor of the fire building.

B: Into the store as a backup line.

C:✔To the entrance hallway.

D: To the top floor of the fire building.

Explanation:
1st line: Stretched to the involved store (2 ½” for large volume fires) 2nd line: Stretched to the entrance hallway. WHEN ASSURED THAT THE SECOND LINE IS NOT NEEDED ON THE FIRST FLOOR, IT MAY BE ADVANCED TO THE FLOOR ABOVE.

Multiple Dwellings 4.3.1

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Penalties that may be imposed by commanding officers in nonjudicial command discipline proceedings are limited to the type and extent in the choices below. Which action is CORRECT as the last resort in the command discipline procedure?
A: Loss of Pay

B: Suspension of Overtime Privilege

C: Loss of Vacation Leave

D: Detail of member

B: Suspension of Overtime Privilege

C: Loss of Vacation Leave

D: Detail of member

Explanation:
PA/ID 3/75 – COMMAND DISCIPLINE POLICY
A IS CORRECT – Loss of Pay is the last resort in the command discipline procedure and should be used with discretion. 2.3.5
B – 2,3.3
C – 2.3.2
D – 2.3.3

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Supervision of the maintenance of the apparatus and equipment is an important part of a company officers responsibility. Which of the following statements is not in accordance with department regulations?
A: When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason and the cross links of snow chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing the loose or broken-links with bolt cutters.

B: Each day, immediately after 0900 and 1800 hours roll calls, officers on duty shall supervise the inspection of each mask carried by units.

C: Hose on apparatus shall be removed, cleaned and repacked in the spring and fall of each year in accordance with schedules issued by division commanders.

D: Members in charge of Department vehicles shall permit only on-duty members as recorded on unit’s riding list to ride upon such vehicles. Variations are permitted only with the advanced approval of the Chief of Operations.

Supervision of the maintenance of the apparatus and equipment is an important part of a company officers responsibility. Which of the following statements is not in accordance with department regulations?
A:✔When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason and the cross links of snow chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing the loose or broken-links with bolt cutters.

B: Each day, immediately after 0900 and 1800 hours roll calls, officers on duty shall supervise the inspection of each mask carried by units.

C: Hose on apparatus shall be removed, cleaned and repacked in the spring and fall of each year in accordance with schedules issued by division commanders.

Explanation:
A. When the apparatus is out of quarters for any reason, EXCEPT WHILE RESPONDING TO FIRES OR EMERGENCIES and the cross links of snow chains break or become loose, the officer in command of the apparatus shall cause the apparatus to stop immediately and have the condition corrected by removing the loose or broken-links with bolt cutters.

Regulations Ch 13: 13.3.3, 13.3.7, 13.3.13, 13.3.24

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Live fire testing and fireground deployments have shown that the deployment of WCD’s like the KO Curtain and Fire Window Blanket will have the following effects. Which one below is INCORRECT?
A: Deployment will cause an immediate reduction in heat and intensity of the fire.

B: Advancing a hoseline into the fire apartment after a WCD is deployed may increase steam and/or heat production.

C: Possible improvement of visibility in the fire area due to a decrease in smoke production.

D: Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of the deployed WCD with the potential for auto-exposure to the floors above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device.

B: Advancing a hoseline into the fire apartment after a WCD is deployed may increase steam and/or heat production.

C:✔Possible improvement of visibility in the fire area due to a decrease in smoke production.

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
C IS INCORRECT – 4.2.1 – Possible reduction of visibility in the fire area due to an increase in smoke production.
A – 4.2.1
B – 4.2.1
D – 4.2.1

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Listed below are numerous portable ladders with their associated closed lengths. Which ladder is described incorrectly?
A: 35’ extension ladder is 20’ when closed.

B: 24’ extension ladder is 14’ when closed.

C: 10’ folding ladder is 8’ when closed.

D: 14’ “A” Frame ladder is 7’ when closed.

Listed below are numerous portable ladders with their associated closed lengths. Which ladder is described incorrectly?
A: 35’ extension ladder is 20’ when closed.

B: 24’ extension ladder is 14’ when closed.

C:✔10’ folding ladder is 8’ when closed.

D: 14’ “A” Frame ladder is 7’ when closed.

Explanation:
C. 10’ folding ladder is 11’ WHEN CLOSED.

ONLY LADDER THAT IS LONGER WHEN CLOSED
Portable Ladders 1.1

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Which of the following is CORRECT regarding operations in Class 2 Multiple Dwellings?
A: All handlines will be stretched from the standpipe system.

B: Due to open stairs and the possibility of rapid spread of smoke, all officers should be cognizant of members going above the fire floor as well as occupants evacuating via the attack stair.

C: Fires in these structures will be extinguished using 2 ½ hose stretched from the standpipe outlet on a floor below or when compatible with fire conditions, 1 ¾ stretched from the apparatus.

D: If a building contains open and enclosed stairs, consideration should be given to leaving the open stair for evacuation when possible.

Which of the following is CORRECT regarding operations in Class 2 Multiple Dwellings?
A: All handlines will be stretched from the standpipe system.

B:✔Due to open stairs and the possibility of rapid spread of smoke, all officers should be cognizant of members going above the fire floor as well as occupants evacuating via the attack stair.

C: Fires in these structures will be extinguished using 2 ½ hose stretched from the standpipe outlet on a floor below or when compatible with fire conditions, 1 ¾ stretched from the apparatus.

D: If a building contains open and enclosed stairs, consideration should be given to leaving the open stair for evacuation when possible.

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 MD’S
B IS CORRECT 8.7 PG 98
A – Typically, handlines will be stretched from the standpipe system. Due to the age and condition of the system and location of the outlests, 2 ½ may have to be stretched from the apparatus. 8.7.
C – 2 ½ hose stretched from the apparatus. 8.7
D – Consideration should be given to leaving the enclosed stair for evacuation when possible. 8.7

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When civilians are in need of rescue, proper placement of the aerial ladder at fire operations is critical to achieve a successful outcome. Which description below regarding aerial ladder placement is incorrect?
A: OV assists the chauffeur in setting up and placing the ladder and climbs the ladder as soon as it is in proper position.

B: When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable midway between locations.

C: For the experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

D: Place apparatus 25-35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.

B: When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable midway between locations.

C:✔For the experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

D: Place apparatus 25-35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle.

Explanation:
For the LESS EXPERIENCED member, this accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

Aerial Ladders 3.1.1, 3.1.4; 3.1.7, 3.2.3

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Surviving a collapse can greatly depend on where the victims end up afterwards. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding likely victim locations following the collapse of a building?
A: Ladder 1 responded to a Lean-to Collapse of a 6-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.

B: Ladder 2 responded to a V-shaped Collapse of a 4-story Frame. The greatest chance of survival will be among those along the perimeter of the building.

C: Ladder 3 responded to a Pancake Collapse of a 4-story Brownstone. Survival at this type of collapse depends on the presence of strong objects nearby to keep the weight of the entire load from landing on the victim.

D: Ladder 4 responded to an unsupported Lean-to Collapse of a 5-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the floor below if they were near the remaining wall.

Surviving a collapse can greatly depend on where the victims end up afterwards. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding likely victim locations following the collapse of a building?
A:✔Ladder 1 responded to a Lean-to Collapse of a 6-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.

B: Ladder 2 responded to a V-shaped Collapse of a 4-story Frame. The greatest chance of survival will be among those along the perimeter of the building.

D: Ladder 4 responded to an unsupported Lean-to Collapse of a 5-story MD. The greatest chance of survival for anyone would be on the floor below if they were near the remaining wall.

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
A IS INCORRECT – 11.4 Smallest chance of survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the vicinity of the failed wall.
B – 11.4 V-shaped voids
C – 11.4 Pancake Collapse
D – 11.4 Lean-to Collapse

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When cutting a floor with the axe it should be cut at a ___ degree angle and on a bias.
A: 30

B: 45

C: 60

D: 90

When cutting a floor with the axe it should be cut at a ___ degree angle and on a bias.
A: 30

B: 45

C:✔60

D: 90

Explanation:
Ladders 3: 7.4.2 B

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Just prior to Roll Call, the Officer of Engine 99 asked the junior firefighter where the MetroCard was located on the apparatus. A discussion ensued among the students about the accounting and procedures for lost or damaged cards. Which choice below is INCORRECT?
A: After each roll call, the officer shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the card is accounted for and on the apparatus.

B: If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars.

C: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall file a police report

D: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall complete a lost property report

B:✔If a MetroCard is lost or stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify PTSU via telephone advising of the particulars.

C: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall file a police report

D: If a MetroCard is lost, the officer shall complete a lost property report

Explanation:
AUC 207 – ADDENDUM 3
B IS INCORRECT – Notification is made to the FDNY Resource Center advising of the particulars. 3.6.3
A – 3.6.1
C – 3.6.4
D – 3.6.4

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Metal C-Joist construction has become very common in recent years. Understanding the properties and drawbacks of this type of construction is key to safely operating at buildings constructed with this material. Which statement below is incorrect?
A: In order to stabilize the building, these joists must be braced with strapping and/or blocking to prevent them from twisting.

B: A newer type C-Joist, with design characteristics similar to lightweight parallel chord wood truss, has larger openings that allows for the easier running of utilities, and the potential for fire and heat spread is significantly greater.

C: This type of support system may be used to support the roof of a private dwelling.

D: A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor accompanied by a heavy smoke condition on the floor above may be an indication of a concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists.

C: This type of support system may be used to support the roof of a private dwelling.

D:✔A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor accompanied by a heavy smoke condition on the floor above may be an indication of a concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists.

Explanation:
D. A heavy fire and smoke condition on a floor accompanied by LITTLE OR NO SMOKE condition on the floor above may be an indication of a concrete or gypsum floor poured over corrugated steel (Q-decking) supported by C-Joists.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 3.4

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The members of Ladder 99 are assembled for roll call and the newly promoted Lt. discovers that two of her members are not shaven and a third has a long ponytail. Which choice below is INCORRECT about how the officer should proceed given the situation?
A: The officer can take no action, but where officers tolerate violations, disciplinary action including charges shall be given for failure to properly supervise.

B: When the member’s violation of safety standards might impair the full effectiveness of the mask facepiece, command discipline or formal charges shall be preferred against the violator.

C: If the member refuses a direct order to conform, additional charges shall be preferred, and the officer shall relieve such member from duty.

D: In all cases, an unusual occurrence shall be completed, including the exact nature of the violation, and forwarded up the chain of command.

B: When the member’s violation of safety standards might impair the full effectiveness of the mask facepiece, command discipline or formal charges shall be preferred against the violator.

C: If the member refuses a direct order to conform, additional charges shall be preferred, and the officer shall relieve such member from duty.

D:✔In all cases, an unusual occurrence shall be completed, including the exact nature of the violation, and forwarded up the chain of command.

Explanation:
PA/ID 6/74 – FIREFIGHTING GROOMING
D IS INCORRECT – In all cases, entries shall be made in the Company Journal of all the facts, including the exact nature of the violation. 3.1.2
A – 3.2
B – 3.1.1 
C – 3.1.2

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Which of the following tools may be used to remove a windshield during a vehicle extrication: **1. Windshield saw **2. Sawzall **3. Beluga auto glass knife **4. Axe
A: 1,2,3 only

B: 1,2,3,4

C: 1,3 only

D: 1,2,3 only

Which of the following tools may be used to remove a windshield during a vehicle extrication: **1. Windshield saw **2. Sawzall **3. Beluga auto glass knife **4. Axe
A: 1,2,3 only

B:✔1,2,3,4

C: 1,3 only

D: 1,2,3 only

Explanation:
UPDATED 11/12/19
BELUGA AUTO GLASS KNIFE IS A NEW TOOL
(TRAINING BULLETIN TOOLS 39) VERY TESTABLE

Disentanglement and Extrication Section 11

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The success of the Air Train has allowed for an expansion project at LaGuardia Airport which means more units will have interaction with this part of the system. Which is CORRECT about Air Train Cars?
A: Each Air Train is constructed of one to four cars operated by an engineer.

B: Every Air Train car has four sets of passenger doors and a set of front and rear doors on each car.

C: Every Air Train is equipped with smoke detectors, fire extinguishers, and intercoms onboard.

D: Every Air Train has headlights and taillights on the front and rear of the cars. Members will be unable to determine the front of the train just by looking at the lights.

B: Every Air Train car has four sets of passenger doors and a set of front and rear doors on each car.

C:✔Every Air Train is equipped with smoke detectors, fire extinguishers, and intercoms onboard.

D: Every Air Train has headlights and taillights on the front and rear of the cars. Members will be unable to determine the front of the train just by looking at the lights.

Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 10 – AIRTRAIN SYSTEM
C IS CORRECT – SECTION 3
A – There are no engineers or supervision onboard.
B – There are no front or rear doors on Air Train Cars.
D – Members can ascertain which is the front and rear. The headlights will be illuminated on the front and red taillights will be illuminated on the rear. Section 3

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Which of the following points describing the strategy for a major gas emergency at an outside leak is incorrect?
A: Stopping a leak from a high pressure main will generally require the utility company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow.

B: Stopping the leak from a medium pressure main generally involves the utility company finding and operating the correct upstream valves to interrupt the flow of natural gas.

C: If a leak is caused by a backhoe, it’s possible to have a leak where the backhoe was operating, another leak at the building line or in the building, and still another one at a coupling or where the service pipe connects to the distribution main.

D: If the natural gas ignites do not extinguish the fire.

Which of the following points describing the strategy for a major gas emergency at an outside leak is incorrect?
A:✔Stopping a leak from a high pressure main will generally require the utility company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow.

B: Stopping the leak from a medium pressure main generally involves the utility company finding and operating the correct upstream valves to interrupt the flow of natural gas.

D: If the natural gas ignites do not extinguish the fire.

Explanation:
A. Stopping a leak from a LOW PRESSURE main will generally require the utility company construction crew plug or clamp (squeeze) the pipe to interrupt natural gas flow.

(NOTE: THE “B” CHOICE APPLIES TO HIGH PRESSURE MAINS AS WELL)

Natural Gas Section 8

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What code signifies units operated at an outside rubbish fire?
A: 10-75

B: 10-21

C: 10-22

D: 10-31

What code signifies units operated at an outside rubbish fire?
A: 10-75

B: 10-21

C:✔10-22

D: 10-31

Explanation:
10-75 - Notification of a Fire or Emergency
10-21 - Brush Fire
10-31 - Assist Civilian
Comm 8 p8

You’re the ladder company officer working the day tour in a busy tower ladder. The newly assigned proby asks you to describe some of the key aspects of tower ladder positioning. You make the following statements, but you were incorrect in which one?
A: The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is 25 feet.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building.

C: Occasionally, the scrub area of the bucket will be reduced by the cab of the apparatus. This condition can be corrected by parking the apparatus with the front end angled away from the building line.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

You’re the ladder company officer working the day tour in a busy tower ladder. The newly assigned proby asks you to describe some of the key aspects of tower ladder positioning. You make the following statements, but you were incorrect in which one?
A:✔The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is 25 feet.

B: Generally, the apparatus should be parallel to the building.

D: Generally, the boom has enough clearance to reach most 3rd floor windows and above when operating over the crew cab.

Explanation:
A. The ideal horizontal distance from the center line of the turntable to the objective is 32 feet.

Tower Ladders Chapter 2 Page 2 & 3

Upon receipt of a spare HT radio, the officer should ensure the proper ID has been placed in the HT by transmitting from the spare HT to another unit HT. Which choice shows the channels that MUST be checked for proper ID?
A: HT-1, HT-2, and HT-9

B: HT-1, HT-2, and HT-3

C: HT-1, HT-2, HT-9 and HT-10

D: All HT channels

B: HT-1, HT-2, and HT-3

C: HT-1, HT-2, HT-9 and HT-10

D: All HT channels

Explanation:
The following channels MUST be checked for proper ID: HT-1/Tac 1, HT-2/CMD-1, and HT-9/Tac SEC.
Comm 11 Add 4 2.1.5

Proper trimming of doors and windows in tenements during overhaul is important to ensure the fire is completely extinguished prior to leaving the scene. Which comment below is incorrect regarding this tactic?
A: The complete removal of the window is seldom required.

B: Removal of the trim around windows and doors is not sufficient to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

C: The trim around windows and doors is put on last during the construction stage and should be the first pieces removed if examination is required at these points.

D: Depending on the toll being used, the most efficient and safest way to remove the trim is to start at the top or bottom corner or joint and work along prying the molding out from the wall.

B:✔Removal of the trim around windows and doors is not sufficient to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

C: The trim around windows and doors is put on last during the construction stage and should be the first pieces removed if examination is required at these points.

D: Depending on the toll being used, the most efficient and safest way to remove the trim is to start at the top or bottom corner or joint and work along prying the molding out from the wall.

Explanation:
B. Removal of the trim around windows and doors is GENERALLY SUFFICIENT to allow an adequate examination and application of water.

Ladders 3: 7.4.3

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding company journal entries?
A: Entries by members, other than the member on housewatch, are to begin with rank and surname, thereby eliminating signature. However this shall not apply to roll call entries.

B: When a member, other than the member on housewatch, makes an entry in a unit to which not assigned, the member shall write the unit number after their name. Members making entries in a company journal shared by two (2) or more companies shall write the number of their unit after their respective names.

C: At the beginning of each calendar day, immediately following 2400 hours and before taking over of housewatch duties, the day and date shall be written across the page on the line directly below the last entry of the previous calendar day. Also, on the same line in the “Time Column,” 0001 shall be written.

D: Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to no more than three such members per line.

D:✔Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to no more than three such members per line.

Explanation:
Entries of members reporting for duty shall be limited to ONE such member per line.
CJ 2.3, 2.4, 2.7, 2.9

A composite truss is another type of lightweight construction that units may encounter in the field. Which characteristic of composite trusses is described correctly?
A: This type of truss system is similar in design to laminated wood I-Beams.

B: This type of truss is comprised of steel only.

C: A composite truss is commercially known as a space joist.

D: Under fire conditions, the composite truss reacts differently than other lightweight trusses, and will maintain its strength for longer periods of time.

B: This type of truss is comprised of steel only.

C:✔A composite truss is commercially known as a space joist.

D: Under fire conditions, the composite truss reacts differently than other lightweight trusses, and will maintain its strength for longer periods of time.

Explanation:
A. This type of truss system is similar in design to PARALLEL CHORD WOOD TRUSS.

B. This type of truss is comprised of TWO TYPES OF MATERIALS: WOOD AND STEEL.
D. Under fire conditions, the composite truss WILL REACT THE SAME AS OTHER LIGHTWEIGHT (WOOD OR METAL) TRUSSES, THEY WILL LOSE STRENGTH AND FAIL RAPIDLY.

Private Dwellings Ch 6: 3.5

There are many things to consider when selecting a site to perform decontamination during a radiological emergency. Which consideration is described incorrectly?
A: Proximity to the incident

B: Wind direction

C: Terrain

D: Water run-off (if setting up wet decon, which is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events)

There are many things to consider when selecting a site to perform decontamination during a radiological emergency. Which consideration is described incorrectly?
A: Proximity to the incident

B: Wind direction

C: Terrain

D:✔Water run-off (if setting up wet decon, which is the preferred decontamination method for radiological events)

Explanation:
Water run-off (if setting up wet decon; although, DRY decon is the PREFERRED decontamination method for radiological events)
ERP Add 4 6.2.1

The most correct procedure when reporting suspicious activity can be found in which choice?
A: If a member witnesses an act which is by itself criminal such as, theft indicative of terrorist activity/diversion or sabotage/tampering/vandalism, they should immediately notify Fire Marshal

B: If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life saving measures to the public: they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible

C: If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and request BFI to the scene

D: When the officer discovers any indicators of terrorist activity, immediately upon return to quarters, the officer shall fax all required information to FDOC

B:✔If a member witnesses an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life saving measures to the public: they must then notify NYPD and BFI as soon as possible

C: If a member is unsure of conditions, they should remain on scene and request BFI to the scene

D: When the officer discovers any indicators of terrorist activity, immediately upon return to quarters, the officer shall fax all required information to FDOC

Explanation:
A- Notify NYPD...8.1
B- Correct
C- Request Battalion Chief....8.4
D- Indicators are found in sec 5.2 and shall be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system found on DiamondPlate (sec 8.6) 
AUC 363 sec 8

What is the correct action for the 2nd arriving Roof FF to take when operating at a store fire in a 1-story taxpayer? A: Climb the first portable ladder to the roof. Take the halligan and halligan hook to the roof and assist in ventilation. B: Raise a 2nd portable ladder to the roof. Take the saw to the roof and assist in ventilation. C: Team up with the second arriving OV FF for rear VEIS. D: Report to the roof using an aerial ladder, equipped with a LSR and halligan hook.

What is the correct action for the 2nd arriving Roof FF to take when operating at a store fire in a 1-story taxpayer? A: Climb the first portable ladder to the roof. Take the halligan and halligan hook to the roof and assist in ventilation. B:✔Raise a 2nd portable ladder to the roof. Take the saw to the roof and assist in ventilation. C: Team up with the second arriving OV FF for rear VEIS. D: Report to the roof using an aerial ladder, equipped with a LSR and halligan hook. Explanation: Taxpayer 8.3.3 B2a

Exterior Insulation Finish System (EFIS) is an exterior wall covering system that uses layered insulation and a waterproofing finish. EFIS consists of several layers. Which layer is the primary concern during firefighting operations? A:✔Innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation B: The middle layer; reinforcing fiberglass mesh C: The outermost layer; finish coat (cement-based polyermer) D: All three layers are a primary concern during firefighting operations Explanation: The component of primary concern during FF operations is the innermost sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI). The FPI layer should be considered combustible since it is essentially a thermoplastics, styrofoam material (typically 1/4" to 8" thick). The heat release for thermoplastics can be 3 to 5 times higher than of ordinary combustibles, such as paper or wood. If the system is compromised and FPI ignited, expect high heat conditions, rapid flame spread, and dense black smoke AUC 362 sec 1.2 and 1.3

Ladder 100 is assigned to respond to a Box where the unit reads “T100T” on the response ticket. What does this signify? A: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit B: Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit C: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a component of a Division Task Force D: Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transit Liaison Unit

Ladder 100 is assigned to respond to a Box where the unit reads “T100T” on the response ticket. What does this signify? A: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit B:✔Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transport Backup Unit C: Ladder 100 is an Aerial Ladder assigned as a component of a Division Task Force D: Ladder 100 is a Tower Ladder assigned as a Transit Liaison Unit ``` Explanation: Prefix “L” - Ladder Prefix “T” - Tower Ladder Suffix “K” indicates a a component of a Division Task Force Comm 2 p36-37 ```

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to operating at a building with PV arrays (solar panels). A: Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array B: Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A fog nozzle, utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling up stream towards members operating hoselines C: Firefighters discovering PV arrays at fires and emergencies should immediately notify their Company Officer and the IC for subsequent relay to all operating members D: For burning or smoldering materials under or around PV modules, firefighters may remove modules once power to the modules have been disconnected

Choose the incorrect statement in regards to operating at a building with PV arrays (solar panels). A: Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array B: Hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components. A fog nozzle, utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern is recommended to prevent electric current from traveling up stream towards members operating hoselines C: Firefighters discovering PV arrays at fires and emergencies should immediately notify their Company Officer and the IC for subsequent relay to all operating members D:✔For burning or smoldering materials under or around PV modules, firefighters may remove modules once power to the modules have been disconnected ``` Explanation: The removal of modules by firefighters is NOT an option. Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers......sec 6.6 A- sec 6.1 B- sec 6.6 C- sec 6.3 AUC 351 ```

The Engine and Truck Lt’s were discussing the parameters of standpipe systems in High Rise buildings. Which statement below regarding these systems is CORRECT? A: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 600’ tall will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones. B: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 700’ tall will require low and high zones. C: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 500’ tall will require low and high zones. D: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 800’ tall will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones.

The Engine and Truck Lt’s were discussing the parameters of standpipe systems in High Rise buildings. Which statement below regarding these systems is CORRECT? A: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 600’ tall will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones. B:✔A High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 700’ tall will require low and high zones. C: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 whose standpipe is 500’ tall will require low and high zones. D: A High Rise building constructed in 2008 which is 800’ tall will require a standpipe system which has low and high zones. Explanation: ENGINE OPERATIONS – CHAPTER 9 B is Correct – Buildings constructed under the 2008 building code having a STANDPIPE RISER OVER 600 feet in height shall have separate “Low Zone” and “High Zone” siamese connections. 9.3.13

You would be expected to attend a Formal After Action Review for which fire? A: 1st alarm B: 2nd alarm C: 3rd alarm D: 4th alarm

You would be expected to attend a Formal After Action Review for which fire? A: 1st alarm B: 2nd alarm C: 3rd alarm D:✔4th alarm Explanation: AUC 350 sec 3.1 (4th alarms or greater; other than those for relief purposes)

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident form (MV-104)? A: When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 96 hours, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 10 days. B: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in death or personal injury. C: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damage of over $1,000 to the property of any one person. D: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damages where a dollar amount cannot be estimated.

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the New York State Report of Motor Vehicle Accident form (MV-104)? A:✔When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 96 hours, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 10 days. B: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in death or personal injury. C: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damage of over $1,000 to the property of any one person. D: The MV-104 must be sent for a collision resulting in damages where a dollar amount cannot be estimated. Explanation: When required, the original MV-104 must be completed and sent to NYS Department of Motor Vehicles within 10 days, and a copy must be sent to the Safety Command-Collision Recording Unit within 96 hours. Note: This form is the express responsibility of the vehicle “operator” involved in the collision. SB 56 12.1

The tip of the High-Rise Nozzle should be checked when? A: Tourly B: Daily C: Weekly D: Monthly

The tip of the High-Rise Nozzle should be checked when? A: Tourly B: Daily C:✔Weekly D: Monthly Explanation: Weekly…..during MUD and before use Supplied by a 2 ½” hoseline, the high rise nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing. Units must use the standpipe pressure gauge and consider the number of lengths in the supply line. As a general rule when supplying the high rise nozzle with 3 lengths of 2 ½” hose, the pressure at the outlet gauge should be 70 psi with water flowing and 80 psi when using 4 lengths Training Bulletins Tools 7 Data sheet 17 sec 4.2 and 4.3

Safety is of the utmost importance at any fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: The arrival of the 2nd Engine must be announced over the handie talkie. B: Designated members of the Safety Team are to engage in their primary duties while assuming the duties of the Safety Team. C: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties. D: In unusual situations, the Incident Commander may vary the make-up of the Safety Team.

Safety is of the utmost importance at any fire operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? A: The arrival of the 2nd Engine must be announced over the handie talkie. B: Designated members of the Safety Team are to engage in their primary duties while assuming the duties of the Safety Team. C:✔Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties. D: In unusual situations, the Incident Commander may vary the make-up of the Safety Team. Explanation: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, ONE member of the Safety Team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties. MMID Ch 1 2.2-2.4

From the following choices, which is NOT considered an elevator emergency? A: Children stuck in an elevator B: Passenger of stuck elevator in panic C: Passenger of stuck elevator injured D: Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator

From the following choices, which is NOT considered an elevator emergency? A:✔Children stuck in an elevator B: Passenger of stuck elevator in panic C: Passenger of stuck elevator injured D: Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator Explanation: INCIDENT: A stuck elevator with trapped passengers not in immediate danger and no evidence of injury EMERGENCY: A situation where one or more of the following exists: A-Fire endangering passengers in a stuck elevator; B-Passenger of stuck elevator injured; C-Passenger of stuck elevator in panic Training Bulletins Emergency 1 sec 2.4.1 and 2.4.2

You receive a ticket for a single Engine response for wires down at the intersection of Laconia ave and Waring ave in the Allerton section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you discover live electrical wires down in the street. At this incident, which action did you take incorrectly? A: Immediate notification to the dispatcher/utility for priority utility company response B: Stretched a line with fog nozzle and keeping at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline C: If live electrical wires were draped over any occupied vehicle, you would order their immediate removal D: Did not place any weighted objects on downed wires

You receive a ticket for a single Engine response for wires down at the intersection of Laconia ave and Waring ave in the Allerton section of the Bronx. Upon arrival, you discover live electrical wires down in the street. At this incident, which action did you take incorrectly? A: Immediate notification to the dispatcher/utility for priority utility company response B: Stretched a line with fog nozzle and keeping at least 25 feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline C:✔If live electrical wires were draped over any occupied vehicle, you would order their immediate removal D: Did not place any weighted objects on downed wires Explanation: Cautioned civilians trapped in vehicles with an electrical line over it to remain in their vehicle until the wires are de-energized by the utility company Training Bulletins Emergency 3 p-8

An officer drilling with a probationary firefighter on proper use of the UTAC channels made an incorrect comment in which choice? A: The IC (who may be a company officer)or a designated member will adjust their radio channel to UTAC 42D at all Mutual Aid responses. The designated member will make contact with the cooperating agency to ascertain information about the incident. B: Conversations on UTAC channels should be in plain speak. Refrain from using FDNY “10” codes or other language that is not familiar to outside agencies. C:✔If unable to establish contact with other jurisdictions using UTAC channels, request the NYPD Dispatcher to contact the cooperating agency and have them monitor the proper UTAC channel. D: UTAC channels shall not be used by FDNY units to communicate with each other in daily routine activities. Explanation: If unable to establish contact with other jurisdictions using UTAC channels, request the FIRE DISPATCHER to contact the cooperating agency and have them monitor the proper UTAC channel. Note: The IC should have UTAC channels monitored via EFAS for all incidents where deemed necessary to ensure the safety of members. “A” Note: After initial contact is made and information is exchanged, the IC must designate a member to monitor and relay additional information. Comm 14 Add 4 3.2-3.5

Choose the incorrect procedure for standpipe operations. A: Since the Siamese wasn't color coded to ensure it was a standpipe, the FF supplying the Siamese found the information embossed or stamped on a plate or on the Siamese connection itself B: Standpipe systems should always be supplied with 3 1/2" hose C: Whenever possible, standpipe systems should be supplied by at least two different pumpers D:✔If the first arriving engine is supplying both the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the second and third arriving engine companies will monitor and augment if necessary Explanation: Engine Operations ch 9 A- Red- Standpipe; Green- Automatic Sprinkler System; Aluminum- Non-automatic Sprinkler or Perforated Pipe; Yellow- Combination Sprinkler/Standpipe.....sec 9.3.2 B- sec 9.3.3 C- sec 9.3.4 D- If the first arriving engine is supplying both the standpipe and sprinkler systems, the second and third arriving engine companies MUST stretch additional lines to augment both systems....sec 9.3.8

While operating at a CO Emergency with meter readings of 200 PPM, you take the following actions, one of which is incorrect. Indicate the incorrect action? A: Inform occupants that we have detected a “potentially lethal” level of CO. B:✔Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation. C: If a malfunctioning appliance is found producing CO, it should be shut down. D: Inform occupants of the actions taken, and that the utility company has been requested to respond. Explanation: BEGIN evacuation of the affected area and ventilate. Only “recommend” evacuation if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM. “A” Note: Also, if greater than 9 PPM and less than 100 PPM, inform occupants that they have a “potentially dangerous” level of CO. HM 4 4.5.1-4.5.3, 4.5.6

Choose the only correct sprinkler system listed. A: Deluge sprinkler system is often found in computer rooms or where other sensitive electronic equipment is used B: Dry pipe sprinkler systems are often found in under river tubes involving subways C: Pre-Action sprinkler systems are usually found in aircraft hangers or where large quantities of flammable liquids are used in industrial processes D:✔Non-Automatic sprinkler systems are usually found in cellars and sub-cellars of older commercial buildings Explanation: A- Deluge sprinkler system is often found in aircraft hangers or where large quantities of flammable liquids are used in industrial processes B- Dry pipe sprinkler systems are found in areas where there is a danger of freezing C- Pre-Action sprinkler systems are usually found in computer rooms or where other sensitive electronic equipment is used Engine Operations ch 10 sec 10.2

According to the newly issued, “Firefighting Procedures: Ventilation” bulletin, the “Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve” differs from the Modern Fire Behavior Curve in a number of ways. In which choice below is the information incorrect regarding the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve? A: The fire will behave in the same way up until the Early Decay stage. B: If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will rapidly progress to the Fully Developed stage. C: An Elongated Decay stage where the fire is kept ventilation-limited is the stage where firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire by denying the fire additional oxygen, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production. D: The Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the application of water on the fire. By controlling, communicating and coordinating the fire attack, ventilation will occur, increasing the fire growth momentarily, which will be followed by suppression and extinguishment.

According to the newly issued, “Firefighting Procedures: Ventilation” bulletin, the “Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve” differs from the Modern Fire Behavior Curve in a number of ways. In which choice below is the information incorrect regarding the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve? A: The fire will behave in the same way up until the Early Decay stage. B:✔If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will rapidly progress to the Fully Developed stage. C: An Elongated Decay stage where the fire is kept ventilation-limited is the stage where firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire by denying the fire additional oxygen, thereby limiting fire growth and smoke production. D: The Elongated Decay stage is maintained by firefighters by coordinating ventilation with the application of water on the fire. By controlling, communicating and coordinating the fire attack, ventilation will occur, increasing the fire growth momentarily, which will be followed by suppression and extinguishment. Explanation: If there is no additional oxygen admitted to the heated atmosphere, the fire will STAY in an Elongated Decay stage. Vent 2.4.7