Exam 28 Flashcards
While working in L100, the dispatcher calls you and states your unit is going to be assigned as a “Rescue Collapse Transport” Unit. What will be your designation on the response ticket?
A: L100R
B: L100C
C: L100T
D: L100B
While working in L100, the dispatcher calls you and states your unit is going to be assigned as a “Rescue Collapse Transport” Unit. What will be your designation on the response ticket?
A:✔L100R
B: L100C
C: L100T
D: L100B
Explanation:
C - CPC Unit
T - Transport Backup Unit
Comm 2 p37
When an engine company is operating at a CFR call, which of the following guidelines is stated incorrectly?
A: Companies are instructed to use the signal 10-99 when they expect to be operating for more than 30 minutes.
B: Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer will transmit a 10-84 via MDT. The company is also required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on scene.
C: When the CFR-D unit arrives, the fire officer will confer with the EMS unit to ensure both units have responded to the same incident.
D: A PCR is not required when a CFR-D company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.
When an engine company is operating at a CFR call, which of the following guidelines is stated incorrectly?
A: Companies are instructed to use the signal 10-99 when they expect to be operating for more than 30 minutes.
B:✔Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer will transmit a 10-84 via MDT. The company is also required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on scene.
C: When the CFR-D unit arrives, the fire officer will confer with the EMS unit to ensure both units have responded to the same incident.
D: A PCR is not required when a CFR-D company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.
Explanation:
B. Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer will transmit a 10-84 via MDT. The company IS NOT REQUIRED to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on scene, SINCE THE LINK WILL DISPLAY THAT INFORMATION ELECTRONICALLY FOR THE FIRE DISPATCHER.
CFR CH 2: 3.3.3, 3.6, 3.8.1, 3.10.1
Companies being relocated to another quarters will normally receive a response ticket indicating so. If the quarters the company is responding to has an entrance door combination lock, the combination will be printed on the response ticket. If a unit does not receive a teleprinter response ticket (on air at the time of response), the lock combination can be obtained through the dispatcher. From the following choices listed below, choose the first method of reaching the dispatcher.
A: Use nearby ERS box
B: Use cell phone
C: Use the Department radio
D: Use outside public telephone
Companies being relocated to another quarters will normally receive a response ticket indicating so. If the quarters the company is responding to has an entrance door combination lock, the combination will be printed on the response ticket. If a unit does not receive a teleprinter response ticket (on air at the time of response), the lock combination can be obtained through the dispatcher. From the following choices listed below, choose the first method of reaching the dispatcher.
A:✔Use nearby ERS box
B: Use cell phone
C: Use the Department radio
D: Use outside public telephone
Explanation:
The methods of obtaining the combination are listed in order of preference:
1- Use nearby ERS box
2- Outside public telephone
*****The officer on duty in a unit having an entrance door combination lock is to notify the Supervising Dispatcher of their respective borough, by telephone, of any change in units combination AUC 300 sec 2.1.4
They went to areas on DC exam that we don’t do anymore. So don’t count this out
If you need the dispatcher to repeat a message over the Department Radio because you could not hear it clearly, which code would you transmit?
A: 10-3
B: 10-5
C: 10-6
D: 10-9
If you need the dispatcher to repeat a message over the Department Radio because you could not hear it clearly, which code would you transmit?
A: 10-3
B:✔10-5
C: 10-6
D: 10-9
Explanation:
Comm 8 p6
Elevator operations at High Rise MD’s can be critical to the success of an operation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these operations?
A: The first officer to enter the lobby shall place the elevators in firefighter service and recall the elevators.
B: When outside operations are indicated, the elevator cars will be operated by a member from the second ladder company and/or other members designated by the IC.
C: A service elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the IC.
D: After the line is advancing into the fire apartment and the main body of fire is extinguished, the elevator machinery room located at the roof level, can be vented by opening doors to the exterior as long as wind will not force smoke back into the building.
Elevator operations at High Rise MD’s can be critical to the success of an operation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these operations?
A: The first officer to enter the lobby shall place the elevators in firefighter service and recall the elevators.
B:✔When outside operations are indicated, the elevator cars will be operated by a member from the second ladder company and/or other members designated by the IC.
C: A service elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the IC.
D: After the line is advancing into the fire apartment and the main body of fire is extinguished, the elevator machinery room located at the roof level, can be vented by opening doors to the exterior as long as wind will not force smoke back into the building.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
B IS CORRECT – 6.4.6 B
A – The first ladder officer shall recall the elevators 6.4.2
C – Evaluated and declared safe for use by the company officer. 6.4.7
D – Until the fire is UNDER CONTROL. 6.4.3.
Members of a water rescue unit are discussing line rescue operations for a surf rescue during drill. They make the following comments. Which one is incorrect?
A: The primary rescuer will enter the water upstream and swim out to the victim letting the torpedo drag behind.
B: The secondary rescuer shall remain on shore unless needed.
C: When necessary, the primary rescuer shall swim perpendicular to the shoreline removing themselves and the victim from the rip current.
D: When ready, the primary rescuer shall give the signal to be pulled in (one hand on top of rescuers head).
Members of a water rescue unit are discussing line rescue operations for a surf rescue during drill. They make the following comments. Which one is incorrect?
A: The primary rescuer will enter the water upstream and swim out to the victim letting the torpedo drag behind.
B: The secondary rescuer shall remain on shore unless needed.
C:✔When necessary, the primary rescuer shall swim perpendicular to the shoreline removing themselves and the victim from the rip current.
D: When ready, the primary rescuer shall give the signal to be pulled in (one hand on top of rescuers head).
Explanation:
C. When necessary, the primary rescuers shall swim PARALLEL to the shoreline removing themselves and the victim from the rip current.
NOTE B: THIS WAS CHANGED TO SAY THIS WHEN THE BULLETIN WAS REWRITTEN IN 2018
WATER RESCUE 4 3.1
When responding to and operating at a “Tree Down,” units carry out policies set fourth by the FDNY. Choose the incorrect policy.
A: Units are not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property
B: Unit operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area
C: Units can remove obstructions blocking a entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation
D: Units can attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle at the owners request
When responding to and operating at a “Tree Down,” units carry out policies set fourth by the FDNY. Choose the incorrect policy.
A: Units are not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property
B: Unit operations on private property are limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into the danger area
C: Units can remove obstructions blocking a entrance to a building. This decision is to be based upon the existence of other adequate means of exit and the complexity of the operation
D:✔Units can attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle at the owners request
Explanation:
Members are not to attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane
AUC 301 sec 3
Two members discussing Taxpayer operations identified an incorrect statement made by the covering Lieutenant. Indicate the incorrect statement.
A: Most taxpayer fires originate in the cellar; most often where the utilities are located.
B: All areas must be searched for removal of the occupants with particular attention given to the rear and main selling areas. The cellar, rear or mezzanine areas may contain accommodations for the employees of the store to rest.
C: Units equipped with smoke ejectors shall consider their use where conditions warrant. Ejectors can be of particular value in venting below grade areas where heavier than air gases can accumulate.
D: Portable lights shall be used where operations will be facilitated. They should not be thought of as just an overhauling tool.
Two members discussing Taxpayer operations identified an incorrect statement made by the covering Lieutenant. Indicate the incorrect statement.
A:✔Most taxpayer fires originate in the cellar; most often where the utilities are located.
B: All areas must be searched for removal of the occupants with particular attention given to the rear and main selling areas. The cellar, rear or mezzanine areas may contain accommodations for the employees of the store to rest.
C: Units equipped with smoke ejectors shall consider their use where conditions warrant. Ejectors can be of particular value in venting below grade areas where heavier than air gases can accumulate.
D: Portable lights shall be used where operations will be facilitated. They should not be thought of as just an overhauling tool.
Explanation:
Most taxpayer fires originate in the STORE OCCUPANCY at STREET LEVEL. The occupancy usually consists of a sales area, a storage area and a utility area. Fires in these premises generally originate in the STORAGE or UTILITY AREA, which in most occupancies are in the REARMOST portion of the building.
Txpyr 8.3.1 A, B, 8.4.5, 8.4.6
Tower Ladder 99 arrives first due to heavy fire showing from the parlor floor windows of a four-story attached brownstone. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the company operations at this fire?
A: The Roof firefighter chose the least exposed adjoining building as the primary means to gain access to the roof.
B: The OV & LCC teamed up to provide VEIS of the fire floor as coordinated with the Ladder Officer.
C: After waiting for a report on the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the top floor for VEIS.
D: Following the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the fire floor for ventilation.
Tower Ladder 99 arrives first due to heavy fire showing from the parlor floor windows of a four-story attached brownstone. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the company operations at this fire?
A: The Roof firefighter chose the least exposed adjoining building as the primary means to gain access to the roof.
B: The OV & LCC teamed up to provide VEIS of the fire floor as coordinated with the Ladder Officer.
C: After waiting for a report on the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the top floor for VEIS.
D:✔Following the roof level size-up, the OV repositioned the Ladder Bucket to the fire floor for ventilation.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – BROWNSTONES
D IS CORRECT 2.8#1
A – The primary means for the first arriving tower ladder is via the TL Bucket.
B – The LCC remains at the pedestal for overall control.
C – Following the roof level size-up, the OV positions the bucket to the fire floor for Ventilation.
At a cellar fire in an attached private dwelling the main entrance door is generally the quickest access to the cellar. When using the main entrance for a cellar fire, which ladder company tactic below is incorrect?
A: The ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a hoseline advances via a secondary entrance.
B: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.
C: If the first hoseline does not advance down the cellar stairs, the first arriving ladder company inside team will assume responsibility for primary search and examination of the first floor and floors above.
D: An indication of an open interior cellar door is the thermal imaging camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling when entering the first floor via the entrance door.
At a cellar fire in an attached private dwelling the main entrance door is generally the quickest access to the cellar. When using the main entrance for a cellar fire, which ladder company tactic below is incorrect?
A:✔The ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a hoseline advances via a secondary entrance.
B: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.
C: If the first hoseline does not advance down the cellar stairs, the first arriving ladder company inside team will assume responsibility for primary search and examination of the first floor and floors above.
D: An indication of an open interior cellar door is the thermal imaging camera showing heat waves emanating across the first floor ceiling when entering the first floor via the entrance door.
Explanation:
A. The ladder company shall maintain door control of the main entrance door until a hoseline advances via THE MAIN ENTRANCE.
Private Dwellings Ch 4: 10.4.1, 10.4.2
A hot button issue that members are experiencing lately is the cleaning of bunker gear. This is known as advanced cleaning and is mandatory for all members. In preparation of this cleaning all of the following are correct except which choice?
A: Boots shall be removed from bunker pants. Boots will not be laundered
B: If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear must be brought back to his/her assigned unit for advanced cleaning
C: Members shall ensure that suspenders and hoods are included as part of the items sent for advanced cleaning
D: Pants shall be folded and placed inside the bunker coat, the clasps of the coat shall be fastened and the sleeves tied across the front of the coat. (Do not use cord or rope–tie the sleeves to one another)
A hot button issue that members are experiencing lately is the cleaning of bunker gear. This is known as advanced cleaning and is mandatory for all members. In preparation of this cleaning all of the following are correct except which choice?
A: Boots shall be removed from bunker pants. Boots will not be laundered
B:✔If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear must be brought back to his/her assigned unit for advanced cleaning
C: Members shall ensure that suspenders and hoods are included as part of the items sent for advanced cleaning
D: Pants shall be folded and placed inside the bunker coat, the clasps of the coat shall be fastened and the sleeves tied across the front of the coat. (Do not use cord or rope–tie the sleeves to one another)
Explanation:
Gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which the member is detailed. The name of the member shall be added to that units cleaning roster
AUC 310 add 2 sec 3.2 and 4
All officers should be familiar with EFAS. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: EFAS will pick up all HT transmissions within range even if a company is not assigned to the incident. The units will show up in the “Roll Call” screen on the lower half as “Unassigned Units.”
B: If a member transmits a MAYDAY message on their HT, and does not activate their Emergency Alert Button, the member monitoring EFAS shall highlight that member by utilizing the MDT touch screen and manually assign them a MAYDAY.
C: During a roll call using EFAS, when the remote microphone is keyed three times, the member’s riding position will change from red to yellow.
D: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1, though it has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor one channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use.
All officers should be familiar with EFAS. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: EFAS will pick up all HT transmissions within range even if a company is not assigned to the incident. The units will show up in the “Roll Call” screen on the lower half as “Unassigned Units.”
B: If a member transmits a MAYDAY message on their HT, and does not activate their Emergency Alert Button, the member monitoring EFAS shall highlight that member by utilizing the MDT touch screen and manually assign them a MAYDAY.
C:✔During a roll call using EFAS, when the remote microphone is keyed three times, the member’s riding position will change from red to yellow.
D: EFAS defaults to Tactical Channel 1, though it has the capability of monitoring any of the 16 Channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels. However, it can only monitor one channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use.
Explanation:
C. YELLOW to GREEN.
B Note: Once a MAYDAY is assigned, a hard copy will print showing the members company, position and time the MAYDAY was assigned.
Comm 9 Add 3 5.2, 6.1, 7.1.6, 8.1,
EEO situations often come down to mediation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the mediation process?
A: The complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.
B: The EEO officer or designee shall attempt to mediate the dispute with the parties and reach an informal resolution within 90 working days of receipt of the request for mediation.
C: Mediation efforts to resolve the complaint shall not exceed 45 working days unless the time period is extended by the complainant and respondent.
D: The Chief of Department will make the final decision regarding the complaint.
EEO situations often come down to mediation. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the mediation process?
A:✔The complainant or respondent may file a written request for mediation.
B: The EEO officer or designee shall attempt to mediate the dispute with the parties and reach an informal resolution within 90 working days of receipt of the request for mediation.
C: Mediation efforts to resolve the complaint shall not exceed 45 working days unless the time period is extended by the complainant and respondent.
D: The Chief of Department will make the final decision regarding the complaint.
Explanation:
PA/ID 1/77 – EEO COMPLAINT PROCESS
A IS CORRECT – 11.1
B – Within 45 days 11.2
C – Unless the time period is extended by the EEO Officer. 11.3
D – The Fire Commissioner will make the final decision. 12.3
Units are responding to a reported suspended scaffold emergency in Manhattan. The officer of the first due ladder company has the following thoughts while responding. Which one is incorrect?
A: In all instances, units should cordon off the are below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic.
B: If possible, members should enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area.
C: The anchor points of the scaffolding are usually located on the roof, and they must be evaluated by first arriving units as soon as possible.
D: Upon inspection, if the tie backs and hooks are damaged, members shall secure them with the lifesaving rope.
Units are responding to a reported suspended scaffold emergency in Manhattan. The officer of the first due ladder company has the following thoughts while responding. Which one is incorrect?
A: In all instances, units should cordon off the are below the scaffold to vehicular and pedestrian traffic.
B: If possible, members should enter the building from an entrance out of the danger area.
C: The anchor points of the scaffolding are usually located on the roof, and they must be evaluated by first arriving units as soon as possible.
D:✔Upon inspection, if the tie backs and hooks are damaged, members shall secure them with the lifesaving rope.
Explanation:
D. Upon inspection, if the tie backs and hooks are damaged, members shall secure them with UTILITY ROPE.
Suspended Scaffold Emergencies 3.1, 3.2
Your unit has just finished operating at a multiple vehicle accident where several members have been contaminated with blood. The decon procedure for blood and other potentially infectious material has changed within the past year. From the following choices listed below, choose the incorrect decon procedure for PPE and equipment.
A: Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes
B: If both bunker pants and PSS have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items
C: Company officer shall complete and forward an Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) to the Decon Support Unit. All members with the same contaminate shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants
D: Under no circumstances shall red or black bags be used to send in contaminated gear
Your unit has just finished operating at a multiple vehicle accident where several members have been contaminated with blood. The decon procedure for blood and other potentially infectious material has changed within the past year. From the following choices listed below, choose the incorrect decon procedure for PPE and equipment.
A:✔Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed. An Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes
B: If both bunker pants and PSS have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items
C: Company officer shall complete and forward an Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) to the Decon Support Unit. All members with the same contaminate shall be listed on a single form. Separate forms are required for different contaminants
D: Under no circumstances shall red or black bags be used to send in contaminated gear
Explanation:
AUC 310 add 5
A- Radio, tools, and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution…sec 2.2
B- sec 2.5
C- sec 3.3
D- sec 2.4.note
** THE PSS SYSTEM SHALL NOT BE BAGGED WITH BUNKER COAT AND PANTS (bag separately)
For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decon in quarters using a sponge and water
Remember, there is a difference between blood and other potentially infectious material and FIREGROUND contamination….This is a must read
On a Haz-Mat Technician Unit, the Officer, Entry and Backup positions shall be filled by FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technicians. The Decon position shall also be filled by an FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technician, but in the event a Haz-Mat Technician is not available, who can staff this position?
A: A senior firefighter from an Engine.
B: A Decon-trained firefighter from SOC.
C: A member of a CPC Ladder.
D: A member with at least 5 years in rank from any unit.
On a Haz-Mat Technician Unit, the Officer, Entry and Backup positions shall be filled by FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technicians. The Decon position shall also be filled by an FDNY qualified Haz-Mat Technician, but in the event a Haz-Mat Technician is not available, who can staff this position?
A: A senior firefighter from an Engine.
B:✔A Decon-trained firefighter from SOC.
C: A member of a CPC Ladder.
D: A member with at least 5 years in rank from any unit.
Explanation:
Note: Although CPC members are trained in Decon, section 6.2 specifically states a Decon-trained firefighter from “SOC.”
HM 8 6.2
Alternate strategies are now applied at HRFPMD fires to decrease the likelihood of members suffering serious injuries during wind impacted events where the apartment door is left open. Which of the following is the CORRECT use of an alternate strategy?
A: Only the IC can approve of members entering the public hallway.
B: Only the Ladder Company Officer and inside team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.
C: The Engine Officer will remain on the hallway side of the stairwell door for control and coordination
D: Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.
Alternate strategies are now applied at HRFPMD fires to decrease the likelihood of members suffering serious injuries during wind impacted events where the apartment door is left open. Which of the following is the CORRECT use of an alternate strategy?
A: Only the IC can approve of members entering the public hallway.
B: Only the Ladder Company Officer and inside team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.
C: The Engine Officer will remain on the hallway side of the stairwell door for control and coordination
D:✔Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, have the Engine Company advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – ADDENDUM 3 – WIND IMPACTED FIRES
D IS CORRECT – 5.1E 4TH Bullet
A – IC, Operations Section Chief, Fire Sector Supervisor – 5.1E 1st Bullet
B – Only the Ladder Company Officer and ONE MEMBER OF THE INSIDE TEAM shall enter the public hall to locate the fire apartment door. The other member will remain at the attack stair door on the hallway side to ensure the hallway door remains closed. 5.1E 2nd Bullet. The entire inside team does not enter to locate the and gain control of the fire apartment door
C – The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the stairwell side of the door. 5.1E 3rd Bullet
The full capacity of the tower ladder will be realized when there are many persons to be removed, and/or victims are unconscious, incapacitated or obese. Rescue via the bucket may be achieved in several ways. Which of the following ways is incorrect?
A: The preferred position for unconscious, incapacitated, or obese victims is to position the top bucket rail level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape.
B: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus parallel to the objective while lining the bucket up with the window.
C: When preparing to move a properly positioned bucket from a window, the first joystick movement should generally be opposite its preceding movement (e.g. after extending the boom to reach a window, the subsequent move should generally be to RAISE.)
D: When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupants, removal directly to street level may not be necessary or practical.
The full capacity of the tower ladder will be realized when there are many persons to be removed, and/or victims are unconscious, incapacitated or obese. Rescue via the bucket may be achieved in several ways. Which of the following ways is incorrect?
A: The preferred position for unconscious, incapacitated, or obese victims is to position the top bucket rail level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape.
B: To expedite placing the bucket to a window, position the apparatus parallel to the objective while lining the bucket up with the window.
C:✔When preparing to move a properly positioned bucket from a window, the first joystick movement should generally be opposite its preceding movement (e.g. after extending the boom to reach a window, the subsequent move should generally be to RAISE.)
D: When multiple trips of the bucket are required to remove a large number of occupants, removal directly to street level may not be necessary or practical.
Explanation:
C. When preparing to move a properly positioned bucket from a window, the first joystick movement should generally be opposite its preceding movement (e.g. after extending the boom to reach a window, the subsequent move should generally be to RETRACT.)
Tower Ladder 3.5
In 2015, FDNY vehicles have been issued a Vehicle Recovery Strap for vehicles that are stuck in deep snow. Choose the incorrect procedure for its use.
A: The vehicle recovery strap shall not be used for towing or lifting.
B: The maximum weight of the stuck vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 20,000 lbs.
C: If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use
D: The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the rear of the vehicle
In 2015, FDNY vehicles have been issued a Vehicle Recovery Strap for vehicles that are stuck in deep snow. Choose the incorrect procedure for its use.
A: The vehicle recovery strap shall not be used for towing or lifting.
B: The maximum weight of the stuck vehicle to be recovered shall not exceed 20,000 lbs.
C: If the stuck vehicle is an ambulance with a patient, the patient shall be offloaded to a secondary ambulance prior to vehicle recovery strap use
D:✔The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the rear of the vehicle
Explanation: Training Bulletins Apparatus C-2 add 3 A- sec 2.4 B- sec 2.2 C- sec 5.5.note D- The preferred method for vehicle recovery is from the FRONT of the vehicle (to the frame mounted eye hook.....NEVER attach to the front or rear bumper)....sec 3.1 and 3.2
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding fire pumps found in high rise office buildings?
A: The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 300 high. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 250 feet high.
B: It always has been the responsibility of building engineers to start the building fire pump; however, some engineers have been assigned to other duties when a fire starts. There is also the possibility that the building engineer might not be on duty at the time of the fire.
C: The control cabinet for a 750 gallon fire pump will be in the shape of a large cube. It varies from 6’ x 6’ x 6’ to as large as 8’ x 8’ x 8’ in the older models.
D: When the pumps are started, check the pressure gauge on the discharge side of the fire pump located near the riser. This will ensure that the pressures called for are being maintained.
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding fire pumps found in high rise office buildings?
A:✔The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 300 high. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 250 feet high.
B: It always has been the responsibility of building engineers to start the building fire pump; however, some engineers have been assigned to other duties when a fire starts. There is also the possibility that the building engineer might not be on duty at the time of the fire.
C: The control cabinet for a 750 gallon fire pump will be in the shape of a large cube. It varies from 6’ x 6’ x 6’ to as large as 8’ x 8’ x 8’ in the older models.
D: When the pumps are started, check the pressure gauge on the discharge side of the fire pump located near the riser. This will ensure that the pressures called for are being maintained.
Explanation:
The 1938 Building Code required a manual fire pump in buildings over 250 FEET HIGH. The 1968 Building Code required a manual fire pump to supplement the standpipe system in buildings over 300 FEET HIGH.
HROB 4.1.1, 4.1.3, 4.1.6 B
Following a smoky train fire in a subway tunnel, the members of Ladder 199 were discussing the Subway ventilation fans and their operation. Which statement made by the members was CORRECT?
A: Subway ventilation fans are affected by power removal.
B: Power Removal to Subway ventilation fans is accomplished by a power removal switch at the unit.
C: Most fans are operated in the exhaust mode. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode.
D: Each fan plant has a 4-digit identification code. Company officers are required to create CIDS Cards including the location and ID number of each fan in their district.
Following a smoky train fire in a subway tunnel, the members of Ladder 199 were discussing the Subway ventilation fans and their operation. Which statement made by the members was CORRECT?
A: Subway ventilation fans are affected by power removal.
B: Power Removal to Subway ventilation fans is accomplished by a power removal switch at the unit.
C:✔Most fans are operated in the exhaust mode. The evacuation of passengers from under-river tubes should take place away from any fan operated in the exhaust mode.
D: Each fan plant has a 4-digit identification code. Company officers are required to create CIDS Cards including the location and ID number of each fan in their district.
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 8 – VENTILATION FANS
C IS CORRECT – 5.4
A – Fans will not be affected when power removal is ordered by the FDNY 2.7
B – Power Removal to the Fans is accomplished through the dispatcher to the TA. 4.3
D – ID numbers and locations for the fan plants have been entered into the CIDS system and may appear as additional information on the dispatch ticket. 2.5
At private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials, when fire condition are so severe that any additional roof ventilation would necessitate the roof to be cut, the IC should consider an exterior attack. Which additional point below is incorrect regarding roof operations at these buildings?
A: Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction.
B: For any fire on the top floor the IC shall be immediately notified and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.
C: Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.
D: Members should use caution when placing aerial ladder, tower ladder, or portable ladder to a flat roof with a decorative parapet constructed of lightweight materials.
At private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials, when fire condition are so severe that any additional roof ventilation would necessitate the roof to be cut, the IC should consider an exterior attack. Which additional point below is incorrect regarding roof operations at these buildings?
A: Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction.
B:✔For any fire on the top floor the IC shall be immediately notified and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.
C: Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.
D: Members should use caution when placing aerial ladder, tower ladder, or portable ladder to a flat roof with a decorative parapet constructed of lightweight materials.
Explanation:
B. For A fire on the top floor THAT HAS EXTENDED TO THE ATTIC/COCKLOFT, the IC shall be immediately notified and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.
IF FIRE HAS NOT EXTENDED TO THE ATTIC/COCKLOFT ROOF OPERATIONS SHALL BE LIMITED TO:
- CHECKING TE REAR AND SIDES OF THE BUILDING
- VENTING THE TOP FLOOR WINDOWS, AND SKYLIGHTS IF PRESENT
- INSPECTING HVAC DUCT VENTS FR UNUSUAL HEAT
ALL MEMBERS SHALL BE REMOVED FROM THE ROOF UPON COMPLETION OF THESE DUTIES.
Private Dwellings Ch 6: 4.3.8, 4.3.10, 4.3.11, 4.3.12
For a fire that originated in a taxpayer, how would you define the taxpayer occupancy that is three occupancies to the right of the main fire occupancy?
A: O2C
B: O4C
C: O2B
D: O4B
For a fire that originated in a taxpayer, how would you define the taxpayer occupancy that is three occupancies to the right of the main fire occupancy?
A: O2C
B: O4C
C: O2B
D:✔O4B
Explanation:
Comm 10 Add 2 Ills 2
The notifications are different for the occasion where a member is bitten by a dog vs when a company’s dog bites a civilian. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these situations?
A: In all cases, NYPD shall be notified.
B: In all cases, the medical officer shall be notified.
C: In all cases, the Animal Care Center shall be notified.
D: In all cases, the Board of Health / NYC Health Department shall be notified.
The notifications are different for the occasion where a member is bitten by a dog vs when a company’s dog bites a civilian. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding these situations?
A: In all cases, NYPD shall be notified.
B: In all cases, the medical officer shall be notified.
C: In all cases, the Animal Care Center shall be notified.
D:✔In all cases, the Board of Health / NYC Health Department shall be notified.
Explanation:
REGS CHAPTER 19 / TRAINING BULLETINS FIRES 2 – PROTECTION AGAINST DOGS
. D IS CORRECT – FIRES 3 4.13 – REGS 19.3.3
A – NYPD is not notified when a company’s dog bites a civilian 19.3.3
B – The medical officer is notified is a member is bitten by a don 4.13.5 Fires 2.
C – Animal Care is notified if a dog is a stray 4.13.4 Fires 2
