Exam 24 Flashcards
The intent of the “Abandoned Infant Protection Act” is to provide a parent who has no other alternative with a safe place to abandon his/her infant. The incorrect procedure for the FDNY in regards to the Abandoned Infant Protection Act can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY has volunteered the use of firehouses, EMS stations, and FDNY EMSC ambulances as safe havens for parents who wish to abandon their infants consistent with the provisions of the Abandoned Infant Protection Act
B: Under this law, a mother or father of an infant could avoid prosecution if they deliver the infant, not abused and not more than 5 days old; therefore a member receiving an infant must determine if the infant is less than 5 days old and not abused before assuming custody
C: Upon receiving custody of an abandoned infant, the officer on duty shall contact the FDNY dispatcher and request to be placed OOS (10-99) until an ambulance has assumed custody of the infant
D: Company Officers when made aware of a unit’s possession of an abandoned infant shall take a journal entry and complete and forward an Unusual Occurrence Report
The intent of the “Abandoned Infant Protection Act” is to provide a parent who has no other alternative with a safe place to abandon his/her infant. The incorrect procedure for the FDNY in regards to the Abandoned Infant Protection Act can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY has volunteered the use of firehouses, EMS stations, and FDNY EMSC ambulances as safe havens for parents who wish to abandon their infants consistent with the provisions of the Abandoned Infant Protection Act
B:✔Under this law, a mother or father of an infant could avoid prosecution if they deliver the infant, not abused and not more than 5 days old; therefore a member receiving an infant must determine if the infant is less than 5 days old and not abused before assuming custody
C: Upon receiving custody of an abandoned infant, the officer on duty shall contact the FDNY dispatcher and request to be placed OOS (10-99) until an ambulance has assumed custody of the infant
D: Company Officers when made aware of a unit’s possession of an abandoned infant shall take a journal entry and complete and forward an Unusual Occurrence Report
Explanation: AUC 306 add 2 A- sec 1.2 B- Members are not expected or required to determine if the infant is less than 5 days old or has been abused before assuming custody. Our sole purpose is to provide a safe haven for an endangered infant....sec 1.2.1 C- 2.1.1.note D- sec 2.7
Proper line placement at rowframes is critical to preventing the rapid extension of fire to exposures. When operating at a fire in a vacant building in a row of occupied rowframes which line placement below is correct?
A: The first hoseline must be stretched to the most severe exposure.
B: If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline must be stretched to the opposite exposure.
C: The third hoseline must be stretched to the fire building.
D: The fourth hoseline must be stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.
Proper line placement at rowframes is critical to preventing the rapid extension of fire to exposures. When operating at a fire in a vacant building in a row of occupied rowframes which line placement below is correct?
A:✔The first hoseline must be stretched to the most severe exposure.
B: If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second hoseline must be stretched to the opposite exposure.
C: The third hoseline must be stretched to the fire building.
D: The fourth hoseline must be stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.
Explanation:
B. If not needed to back up the first hoseline, the second line shall be stretched TO THE FIRE BUILDING OR THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE.
C. The third hoseline is stretched TO THE FIRE BUILDING OR THE OPPOSITE EXPOSURE, DEPENDING ON WHERE THE SECOND HOSELINE WAS STRETCHED.
D. The fourth hoseline is stretched AS ORDERED BY THE IC.
Rowframes 6.7 A
An explosion causes the collapse of a 4 story Brownstone building. Units arrive to find debris in the street, no visible fire and obvious damage to exposure buildings on both sides. Which Engine company operated CORRECTLY following the transmission of the 1060?
A: The first arriving engine company took the first open hydrant across the street from the collapsed building outside of the collapse zone.
B: The second engine arrived and assisted the first stretching a 1¾” line to the front of the collapsed building.
C: The third engine arrived and stretched a 3½” line into the tower ladder positioned in front of the collapse building.
D: The 4th arriving engine assisted in the removal of a lightly buried victim and performed CFR.
An explosion causes the collapse of a 4 story Brownstone building. Units arrive to find debris in the street, no visible fire and obvious damage to exposure buildings on both sides. Which Engine company operated CORRECTLY following the transmission of the 1060?
A: The first arriving engine company took the first open hydrant across the street from the collapsed building outside of the collapse zone.
B: The second engine arrived and assisted the first stretching a 1¾” line to the front of the collapsed building.
C: The third engine arrived and stretched a 3½” line into the tower ladder positioned in front of the collapse building.
D:✔The 4th arriving engine assisted in the removal of a lightly buried victim and performed CFR.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – COLLAPSE
D IS CORRECT – 7.4
A – If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. 5.3 – Note: At times it may be necessary for the first arriving Engine to take a position within the block for use of the apparatus master stream for fire control or exposure protection. The Officer must ensure a continuous source of water supply for such purposes. 7.2
B – First line stretched should be 2½ - 7.1
C – 2nd Engine should ensure 3½ supply line is stretched to the first tower ladder. 7.3
At collapse operations it is critical for first responding units to address street management and fire control. Apparatus shall be parked in such a manner that special equipment, ambulances, etc., can make their way to and from the scene when ordered by the IC. Which apparatus positioning below is incorrect for collapse operations?
A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream.
B: Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.
C: Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapsed building, unless there is specific need for additional units.
D: Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.
At collapse operations it is critical for first responding units to address street management and fire control. Apparatus shall be parked in such a manner that special equipment, ambulances, etc., can make their way to and from the scene when ordered by the IC. Which apparatus positioning below is incorrect for collapse operations?
A: If possible, both the first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream.
B:✔Two of the second alarm ladder companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.
C: Initially, the first arriving tower ladder should be the only unit in front of the collapsed building, unless there is specific need for additional units.
D: Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.
Explanation:
B. Two of the second alarm ENGINE COMPANIES should be used to seal off the ends of the street.
Collapse 5.3, 5.4
As the first arriving Engine on scene at an IED incident, post-detonation, you would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A: If first unit on scene, confirm the location of the POI using plain language on the department radio. Notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred, so that all incoming units may alter response routes when necessary.
B: Consider staging in a protected area, being mindful of distance and/or shielding. Consider transmitting a 10-60 with the appropriate code.
C: If there is no threat of fire, use skeds to remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point. If there are no EMS units at the Triage Transfer Point, then proceed with triage of critical victims.
D: Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims. If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
As the first arriving Engine on scene at an IED incident, post-detonation, you would be correct to take all of the following actions except?
A: If first unit on scene, confirm the location of the POI using plain language on the department radio. Notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred, so that all incoming units may alter response routes when necessary.
B: Consider staging in a protected area, being mindful of distance and/or shielding. Consider transmitting a 10-60 with the appropriate code.
C: If there is no threat of fire, use skeds to remove critical victims from the POI to the Triage Transfer Point. If there are no EMS units at the Triage Transfer Point, then proceed with triage of critical victims.
D:✔Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 1 3/4” hoseline and, when necessary, knock down fires threatening victims. If there is no threat of fire, remove skeds and CFR equipment for use in the POI.
Explanation:
Properly position the apparatus, establish water supply, stretch a precautionary 2½” hoseline…..
ERP Add 3 5.3.1
The terminology associated with Class 2 buildings can have a great impact on fire operations. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding an Open Fire Stair?
A: If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in different wings, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
B: If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in the same wing, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
C: If the doors in the stairs open into a vestibule or hallway which leads to apartment doors, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
D: If the stairs typically contain a standpipe riser, then it is an Open Stair.
The terminology associated with Class 2 buildings can have a great impact on fire operations. Which choice below is CORRECT regarding an Open Fire Stair?
A: If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in different wings, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
B:✔If the doors in the stairs lead to apartments in the same wing, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
C: If the doors in the stairs open into a vestibule or hallway which leads to apartment doors, then it is an Open Fire Stair.
D: If the stairs typically contain a standpipe riser, then it is an Open Stair.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 BUILDINGS
B IS CORRECT – PHOTO 7A PG 112
A – Shared Fire Stairs – 8.5.3C4
C – Enclosed Fire Stairs – Photo 7A pg 112
D – Open Stairs do not typically contain a standpipe PG95 8.5.3C3
The incorrect procedure, when a member is transporting his/her Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags
B: When transporting firefighting PPE in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed in the gear bag prior to being placed in the passenger compartment or the trunk of the vehicle. Prior to placement into the gear bag, the firefighting protective ensemble shall be placed into a plastic bag supplied by the Department
C: Members are responsible to use the gear bag with a plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting equipment
D: Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen shall be decon in quarters by members following the guidelines outlined in the CFR-D manual
The incorrect procedure, when a member is transporting his/her Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), can be found in which choice?
A: The FDNY strictly prohibits members from transporting firefighter PPE without the use of provided gear bags
B: When transporting firefighting PPE in a private vehicle, such items shall be placed in the gear bag prior to being placed in the passenger compartment or the trunk of the vehicle. Prior to placement into the gear bag, the firefighting protective ensemble shall be placed into a plastic bag supplied by the Department
C: Members are responsible to use the gear bag with a plastic liner anytime they transport firefighting equipment
D:✔Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen shall be decon in quarters by members following the guidelines outlined in the CFR-D manual
Explanation: AUC 310 add 4 A- sec 1.3 B- sec 1.4 C- sec 3.1 D- Grossly contaminated gear bags caused by a bloodborne pathogen exposure shall not be cleaned by members. The gear bag should be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped closed. An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for ID purposes. Bagged items shall be left, if possible, in a light traffic area adjacent to HW for pickup by the DSU......sec 2
The Transit Authority refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Which description of these tubes below is correct?
A: Tube walls are between 2 and 2 ½ feet thick; the tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide.
B: Most tubes have access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.
C: Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels, usually large enough for only 2 tracks.
D: The tunnel-to-tube transition are is where the round underground tunnel sections connects to the square under river tube.
The Transit Authority refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Which description of these tubes below is correct?
A:✔Tube walls are between 2 and 2 ½ feet thick; the tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide.
B: Most tubes have access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.
C: Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels, usually large enough for only 2 tracks.
D: The tunnel-to-tube transition are is where the round underground tunnel sections connects to the square under river tube.
Explanation:
B. Most tubes HAVE NO ACCESS to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas.
EXCEPTIONS: 63RD STREET TUNNEL, 161ST STREET TUNNEL, LEXINGTON AVE TUNNEL (ALL OF WHICH HAVE OPENING THROUGHOUT THE UNDER-RIVER AREA)
C. Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels, usually large enough FOR ONLY 1 TRACK.
D. The tunnel-to-tube transition are is where the SQUARE underground tunnel sections connects to the ROUND under river tube.
Under River Rail 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 2.3, Figure 3A &3B
Prefixes of units on a response ticket help to identify what resources are responding to a particular incident. Which prefix is correct?
A: RR - Rapid Response
B: RC - Recuperation and Care Unit
C: F - Foam Tender
D: HU - High Rise Unit
Prefixes of units on a response ticket help to identify what resources are responding to a particular incident. Which prefix is correct?
A:✔RR - Rapid Response
B: RC - Recuperation and Care Unit
C: F - Foam Tender
D: HU - High Rise Unit
Explanation: RR - Rapid Response RA - Recuperation and Care Unit FT - Foam Tender HR - High Rise Unit Comm 2 p36
The members of Battalion 99 are operating at an incident in the Subway and the repeater channel needs to be activated. Which choice is CORRECT regarding use of the Repeater?
A: The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always on.
B: Once activated, all members operating are to switch to and communicate on the repeater channel.
C: Experience has shown that the post radio is proven to be reliable means of communicating to below grade locations.
D: A Handie Talkie relay is not needed in stations with repeater communications.
The members of Battalion 99 are operating at an incident in the Subway and the repeater channel needs to be activated. Which choice is CORRECT regarding use of the Repeater?
A:✔The NYC Transit duplex repeater system is always on.
B: Once activated, all members operating are to switch to and communicate on the repeater channel.
C: Experience has shown that the post radio is proven to be reliable means of communicating to below grade locations.
D: A Handie Talkie relay is not needed in stations with repeater communications.
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 16 – REPEATER SYSTEM
A IS CORRECT 4.3
B – All FD members other than those designated to switch to the repeater channel will remain on HT Channel 1. 4.3
C – Experience has proven that the post radio may prove unreliable when communicating below grade. 4.3
D – An effective HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not. 4.3
The only correct procedure you followed when operating at a suspected crime scene can be found in which choice?
A: Covered a corpse in all situations
B: You gave a brief statement to the press involving the incident
C: Notified NYPD since one of your members found a large amounts of currency
D: Did not let members wash hands in sink or use toilet facilities. Did not adjust radio or television, or use telephone in crime scene area
The only correct procedure you followed when operating at a suspected crime scene can be found in which choice?
A: Covered a corpse in all situations
B: You gave a brief statement to the press involving the incident
C: Notified NYPD since one of your members found a large amounts of currency
D:✔Did not let members wash hands in sink or use toilet facilities. Did not adjust radio or television, or use telephone in crime scene area
Explanation:
AUC 317
A- Refrain from covering any corpse except in public view….5.12
B- Restrict comments or opinions to authorized persons. No statements should be given to the press, civilians, or other agencies….5.13
C- Notified Fire Marshal to respond to voucher currency at any operation where large amounts of currency are discovered….sec 5.14
D- 5.9 and 5.10
One of the duties of an engine company officer is to ensure the required number of CFR trained members are working on any given tour. Which guideline stated below is correct?
A: Companies officers must ensure 2 CFR members (firefighters or company officer) are working each tour.
B: In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of two trained members (firefighters only) with current CFR-D certification.
C: During the tour if staffing is reduced to only 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall be unavailable for CFR-D responses.
D: Without two CFR-D certified members, the company may still be dispatched to calls received directly from the public to assist civilians.
One of the duties of an engine company officer is to ensure the required number of CFR trained members are working on any given tour. Which guideline stated below is correct?
A: Companies officers must ensure 2 CFR members (firefighters or company officer) are working each tour.
B: In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of two trained members (firefighters only) with current CFR-D certification.
C: During the tour if staffing is reduced to only 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall be unavailable for CFR-D responses.
D:✔Without two CFR-D certified members, the company may still be dispatched to calls received directly from the public to assist civilians.
Explanation:
A. Companies officers must ensure 2 CFR FIREFIGHTERS are working each tour.
B. In order to be in service as a CFR-D unit, there shall be a minimum of two trained members (FIREFIGHTERS OR COMPANY OFFICER) with current CFR-D certification.
C. During the tour if staffing is reduced to only 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company SHALL REMAIN AVAILABLE for CFR-D responses.
NOTE D: WITHOUT TWO CFR-D CERTIFIED MEMBERS, THE COMPANY SHALL NOT RESPOND TO ANY CFR CALLS. THE COMPANY MAY STILL BE DISPATCHED TO CALLS RECEIVED DIRECTLY FROM THE PUBLIC TO ASSIST CIVILIANS.
BE CAREFUL WITH THE WORDING IN THIS SECTION
CFR Ch 2 1.7, 1.8, 1.8.1
In which type of high rise office building are exterior windows usually not openable?
A: All High-Rise Class “E” office buildings.
B: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built before 1945.
C: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built between 1945 and 1968.
D: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built after 1968.
In which type of high rise office building are exterior windows usually not openable?
A: All High-Rise Class “E” office buildings.
B: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built before 1945.
C: High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built between 1945 and 1968.
D:✔High-Rise Class “E” office buildings built after 1968.
Explanation:
HROB 2.4.9
Roof access for fires in Class 2 buildings with open stairs is a constant consideration especially during fires on lower floors. Which of the following is NOT listed as a consideration in determining whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted?
A: Number of floors between the fire floor and the roof
B: Knowledge of occupants in halls and stairs above the fire.
C: Reports of occupants trapped in the fire apartment necessitating immediate entry for search.
D: Weather conditions indicating increased stack effect.
Roof access for fires in Class 2 buildings with open stairs is a constant consideration especially during fires on lower floors. Which of the following is NOT listed as a consideration in determining whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted?
A: Number of floors between the fire floor and the roof
B: Knowledge of occupants in halls and stairs above the fire.
C: Reports of occupants trapped in the fire apartment necessitating immediate entry for search.
D:✔Weather conditions indicating increased stack effect.
Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – CLASS 2 MD’S
D IS NOT CORRECT – Weather conditions not listed.
A,B,C, 8.8.2
Choose the incorrect action taken when operating at an accident on a highway.
A: Apparatus should be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety (between the fire or emergency and the oncoming traffic)
B: When placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces
C: Where the fire or emergency occurs near a curve, or beyond a hill, the second apparatus shall be located where it will be visible to oncoming traffic and furnish a warning to such traffic in sufficient time to avoid a secondary collision
D: Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 25 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area
Choose the incorrect action taken when operating at an accident on a highway.
A: Apparatus should be placed at an angle to the incident when feasible to maximize safety (between the fire or emergency and the oncoming traffic)
B: When placement of apparatus will expose it to the possibility of fire extension, pumper may be placed beyond the fire vehicle, but second apparatus, and third if necessary, shall always be placed between oncoming traffic and the operating forces
C: Where the fire or emergency occurs near a curve, or beyond a hill, the second apparatus shall be located where it will be visible to oncoming traffic and furnish a warning to such traffic in sufficient time to avoid a secondary collision
D:✔Blocking apparatus shall be placed at least 25 feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area
Explanation:
At least 50 feet
Training Bulletins Fires 8 sec 6
Portable ladders may be used for venting with a member on the ladder or without a member on the ladder. Which venting procedure described below is incorrect?
A: When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool to ventilate the window (a halligan is preferable), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward to strike the glass.
B: When venting from a ladder, the member should place the tip of the ladder, if possible, level with or higher than the top of the window.
C: When using a portable ladder to vent without a member on the ladder when the ladder strikes the glass there should be no contact between the member and the ladder.
D: The member using a portable ladder to ventilate a window must have his/her eye shields in the down position.
Portable ladders may be used for venting with a member on the ladder or without a member on the ladder. Which venting procedure described below is incorrect?
A:✔When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool to ventilate the window (a halligan is preferable), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward to strike the glass.
B: When venting from a ladder, the member should place the tip of the ladder, if possible, level with or higher than the top of the window.
C: When using a portable ladder to vent without a member on the ladder when the ladder strikes the glass there should be no contact between the member and the ladder.
D: The member using a portable ladder to ventilate a window must have his/her eye shields in the down position.
Explanation:
A. When the member is positioned on the ladder and prepares to use a tool ventilate the window (A 6 FOOT HOOK IS PREFERABLE), he/she should extend their arms upward and slant the tool downward to strike the glass.
Portable Ladders 10.3.2
Which feature of the newly issued Motorola APX8000XE radios is incorrect?
A: Pressing and holding the “Home” button for 1 second returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.
B: A short (momentary) press of the side button with one square Illuminates both the main and top displays for 20 seconds.
C: A long press (2 seconds) of the side button with one square reverses the orientation of the top display.
D: A feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is especially useful to correct the “stuck-button” problem. At the remote speaker mic, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds.
Which feature of the newly issued Motorola APX8000XE radios is incorrect?
A:✔Pressing and holding the “Home” button for 1 second returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.
B: A short (momentary) press of the side button with one square Illuminates both the main and top displays for 20 seconds.
C: A long press (2 seconds) of the side button with one square reverses the orientation of the top display.
D: A feature cuts off the transmitter after 30 seconds of continuous transmission and is especially useful to correct the “stuck-button” problem. At the remote speaker mic, the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds.
Explanation:
Pressing and holding the “Home” button for a LONG PRESS (2 SECONDS) returns the radio to the Tactical Zone A, HT channel 1.
D Note: The continuous tone indicates that the transmitter has been shut off. The operator can re-key the PTT again if a longer transmission is required. This resets the Time-Out-Timer.
Comm 11 2.2.3 D, 2.3 C, 3.3
You are the officer on duty in Ladder 199 when a firefighter calls and advises you that he lost his ID while at a club the night before. Which choice below contains INCORRECT information regarding the loss of a badge or ID?
A: The officer receiving notification must record relevant facts in the office record journal.
B: The member must report the loss to the police department, Transit Authority etc. make a diligent search and immediately advise of its recovery or, after seven days, the failure of a search to produce the item.
C: The officer shall forward a report forthwith to Personnel containing the member’s information, date & time of loss, date & time reported, to whom reported, and circumstances relating to the loss.
D: If the badge or ID is not recovered in seven days, an additional report shall be forwarded with recommendations, if any, for disciplinary action as per PA/ID 3/75 (Command Discipline).
You are the officer on duty in Ladder 199 when a firefighter calls and advises you that he lost his ID while at a club the night before. Which choice below contains INCORRECT information regarding the loss of a badge or ID?
A:✔The officer receiving notification must record relevant facts in the office record journal.
B: The member must report the loss to the police department, Transit Authority etc. make a diligent search and immediately advise of its recovery or, after seven days, the failure of a search to produce the item.
C: The officer shall forward a report forthwith to Personnel containing the member’s information, date & time of loss, date & time reported, to whom reported, and circumstances relating to the loss.
D: If the badge or ID is not recovered in seven days, an additional report shall be forwarded with recommendations, if any, for disciplinary action as per PA/ID 3/75 (Command Discipline).
Explanation:
REGULATIONS CHAPTER 16 – UNIT PERSONNEL PROCEDURE
A IS INCORRECT – Relevant facts are recorded in the company journal. 16.2.6A
B – 16.2.6B
C – 16.2.6C
D – 16.2.6
Currently, there are three types of Anti-Chaffing devices that may be encountered in the field. All devices serve the same function and will afford protection when used with the LSR. The description of the Anti-Chaffing device is incorrectly stated in which choice?
A: After the LSR has been packed in the carrying case, remove 3 feet of rope and pass the rope through the canvas sleeve from either end of the device
B: After the rope has been passed through the canvas sleeve, grasp the hook of the LSR and pull 1 1/2 arms length of rope through the anti-chafing device. Tie a bowline on a bight on this section of the rope, and place the rope and anti-chafing device in the carrying case
C: When used in a lowering or single slide operation, the anti-chafing device is placed so that the flexible end overlaps the roof or the parapet wall toward the street
D: Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced
Currently, there are three types of Anti-Chaffing devices that may be encountered in the field. All devices serve the same function and will afford protection when used with the LSR. The description of the Anti-Chaffing device is incorrectly stated in which choice?
A: After the LSR has been packed in the carrying case, remove 3 feet of rope and pass the rope through the canvas sleeve from either end of the device
B: After the rope has been passed through the canvas sleeve, grasp the hook of the LSR and pull 1 1/2 arms length of rope through the anti-chafing device. Tie a bowline on a bight on this section of the rope, and place the rope and anti-chafing device in the carrying case
C: When used in a lowering or single slide operation, the anti-chafing device is placed so that the flexible end overlaps the roof or the parapet wall toward the street
D:✔Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify Tech Services by telephone and have it immediately replaced
Explanation: Training Bulletins Rope 1 Data sheet 2 A- 2.1 B- 2.2 C- 3.1 D- Whenever the anti-chafing device is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall notify the administrative division by telephone and fax. Have it immediately replaced 4.4
When operating at private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials the age of the building as well as any signs of recent renovations should be included as part of the initial size-up. Which additional statement below regarding operations at these buildings is incorrect?
A: Once lightweight construction is discovered at an operation, this information shall be transmitted by the IC to the dispatcher so it can be relayed to responding units via the dispatcher.
B: The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of the building may be an indication of fire in a trussloft.
C: The primary emphasis for any fire, even a minor fire, in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.
D: Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the hose stream.
When operating at private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials the age of the building as well as any signs of recent renovations should be included as part of the initial size-up. Which additional statement below regarding operations at these buildings is incorrect?
A: Once lightweight construction is discovered at an operation, this information shall be transmitted by the IC to the dispatcher so it can be relayed to responding units via the dispatcher.
B: The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of the building may be an indication of fire in a trussloft.
C:✔The primary emphasis for any fire, even a minor fire, in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.
D: Any floor or roof support system that has been heavily damaged due to fire should be hydraulically overhauled from a safe area using the reach of the hose stream.
Explanation:
C. UNLESS THE FIRE IS MINOR OR CONFINED TO A SMALL AREA, the primary emphasis for A fire in a lightweight building under construction is that of an exterior attack.
Private Dwellings Ch 6 4.1.3, 4.1.7, 4.1.12, 4.1.13
Company officers should be aware that, at the scene of a detonated IED?
A: Only deceased victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).
B: Only critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Red-tag).
C: Both deceased and critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag and Red-tag).
D: No victims should be tagged in the POI.
Company officers should be aware that, at the scene of a detonated IED?
A:✔Only deceased victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag).
B: Only critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Red-tag).
C: Both deceased and critical victims should be tagged in the POI (Black-tag and Red-tag).
D: No victims should be tagged in the POI.
Explanation:
ERP Add 3 5.3.1
In preparation for Brush Fire Season, Battalion 99 met with the company officers in the battalion to discuss unit operations at a fire on hillside. Which action taken during the operation was the only one that was CORRECT?
A: Engine 1 was positioned at the top of the hill to cut off rapid fire extension and provide an attack on the fire.
B: Engine 4 used a Large caliber stream to break up heat waves and provide a water curtain to protect exposures.
C: Engines 2 & 3 were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved into the interior burning areas.
D: Engine 5 & 6’s handlines were directed at the flames above the brush to provide penetration and cover a greater area.
In preparation for Brush Fire Season, Battalion 99 met with the company officers in the battalion to discuss unit operations at a fire on hillside. Which action taken during the operation was the only one that was CORRECT?
A: Engine 1 was positioned at the top of the hill to cut off rapid fire extension and provide an attack on the fire.
B: Engine 4 used a Large caliber stream to break up heat waves and provide a water curtain to protect exposures.
C:✔Engines 2 & 3 were positioned to attack the fire from the left and right flanks and then moved into the interior burning areas.
D: Engine 5 & 6’s handlines were directed at the flames above the brush to provide penetration and cover a greater area.
Explanation:
AUC 151 – BRUSH FIRE OPERATIONS
C IS CORRECT - 5.4.10
A – Position units on top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom and work up. 5.4.16.
B – Attempting to break up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective. Instead, utilize streams to apply water directly to exposures. 5.4.17.
D – Streams should be directed at the burning brush, not at the flames burning above the brush. 5.4.13.
The acronym LCES is often used at Collapse Operations. It describes additional safety procedures required at collapse incidents. LCES stands for?
A: Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, Safe Havens
B: Logistics, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens
C: Lookouts, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens
D: Logistics, Conditions, Escape Routes, Safe Havens
The acronym LCES is often used at Collapse Operations. It describes additional safety procedures required at collapse incidents. LCES stands for?
A:✔Lookouts, Communications, Escape Routes, Safe Havens
B: Logistics, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens
C: Lookouts, Communications, Exposures, Safe Havens
D: Logistics, Conditions, Escape Routes, Safe Havens
Explanation:
Collapse Operations sec 9.2
At a confined space operation, the Tower Ladder as a high point anchor is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least ___ lbs.
A: 250
B: 750
C: 800
D: 1000
At a confined space operation, the Tower Ladder as a high point anchor is preferred due to its greater weight-supporting capacity, at least ___ lbs.
A: 250
B: 750
C: 800
D:✔1000
Explanation:
THIS NUMBER WAS UPDATED IN THE NEW CONFINED SPACE DOCUMENT RELEASED 12/2019
Confined Space 4.3
