EXAM 3 - Session 23: Gene Therapy Flashcards

1
Q

Define gene therapy.

A

The replacement of a person’s faulty genetic material with normal genetic material to treat or cure a disease or abnormal medical condition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Describe the goal of gene editing.

A

Fix the mutation in the gene using CRISPR base editing (substitute error gene with correct gene)
or
Insert a full copy of the gene into liver cells so the body can permanently produce the enzyme.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe the goal of gene therapy.

A

Deliver a full copy of the gene to liver cells using adeno-associated viruses, lentiviruses, or lipid nanoparticles, so the body can permanently produce the enzyme.
(use viruses to insert certain properties into the body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two subgroups of gene therapy?

A

Germline and somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain the difference between germline and somatic gene therapy.

A

Germline - transfer of a section of DNA to cells that produce sperm or eggs.
* transfer effects will be passed on to offspring

Somatic - transfer of a section of DNA to any cell that doesn’t produce eggs or sperm.
* gene transfer effects will not be passed on to offspring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

There is a small amount of gene located in the mitochondria. What are the effects if the DNA in the mitochondria is partially modified versus completely modified?

A

Paritally modified –> mild condition
* produce eggs with varying levels of mutation

Fully modified –> severe condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two methods of germline gene transfer?

A

Pronuclear transfer and meiosis 2 spindle transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the two methods of germline gene transfer?

A

Pronuclear transfer and meiosis 2 spindle transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Explain the process of pronuclear transfer (PNT).

A
  • The mothers egg is fertilized with the fathers sperm –> produces zygote
  • Pronuclei is removed from the zygote and inserted into the donor egg (that has been fertilized and lost its own nucleus)
  • The derived zygote from the donor egg is then implanted into the mother’s uterus (result: zygote contains three types of DNA)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Explain the process of meiosis 2/maternal spindle transfer (MST).

A
  • nucleus is removed from the donor egg, leaving the cytoplasm
  • the nucleus from the mothers egg gets inserted into the donor egg
  • the egg is fertilized with the father’s sperm then transfered to the mothers uterus for normal gestation (pregnancy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the two types of somatic gene therapy?

A

Ex vivo and in vivo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe ex vivo somatic gene therapy.

A

Cells from the patient are extracted and then engineered to contain therapeutic gene.
* engineered gene is placed into the host

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe in vivo somatic gene therapy.

A

Therapeutic vectors are injected into the patient.
* targetable - able to deliver DNA into cells that you want to transmit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the goals of somatic gene therapy.

A
  • correct an inherited defect
  • reverse an acquired gene defect
  • program a cell to express new properties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the challenges of somatic gene therapy.

A
  • gene location and function
  • cell targets
  • gene delivery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Explain the required properties of cell targets.

A
  • accessibility of the patient tissue
  • whether cells are actively dividing
  • the ability to manipulate the cells or tissues in vitro/in vivo
  • their amenability to gene transfer techniques
  • inherent lifespan of the cells
17
Q

Describe the required properties of optimal gene delivery vectors.

A
  • high penetration into cell
  • high level of acceptance of various genes
  • long term retention of the gene in the cell
  • consistent activation of the foreign gene
  • productive gene expression
  • lack of gene alteration or mutation
  • low cytotoxic inflammatory response
  • low carcinogenic risk
18
Q

What are the 4 different viral methods of gene delivery?

A
  • retroviruses
  • adenoviruses
  • adeno-associated viruses
  • herpes simplex viruses
19
Q

What are the non-viral methods of gene delivery?

A
  • chemical uptake with calcium phosphate
  • physical electroporation
  • injection of “naked” plasmid DNA
  • membrane fusion with liposomes
  • poly-k PEG DNA nanoparticles
  • receptor-mediated uptake
20
Q

Are viral or non viral gene therapy methods safer? Which is more efficient?

A

Non-viral –> safer but less efficient
viral –> more efficient but less safe

21
Q

Describe retroviruses for gene therapy.

A
  • single-stranded RNA
  • enveloped
  • ~10Kb –> carry capacity of ~7.5Kb
  • high oncogenic capability
  • lentiviruses (subclass) can infect proliferating and non-proliferating cells
22
Q

Describe adenoviruses for gene therapy.

A
  • double-stranded DNA
  • nonenveloped
  • ~35Kb –> ~30Kb can be replaced with rDNA
  • very efficient in transducing target cells in vitro/vivo
  • high cytotoxic inflammatory response
23
Q

Describe adeno-associated viruses for gene therapy.

A
  • most often used
  • single-stranded
  • nonenveloped
  • ~5Kb –> carry capacity of ~4.7Kb
  • depends on helper virus to proliferate
  • infects dividing and nondividing cells
  • in the absence of a helper, virus integrates into a specific point of the host genome at a higher frequency
  • safer bc we can control where it integrates
24
Q

Describe herpes simplex viruses for gene therapy.

A
  • double stranded
  • enveloped
  • ~150Kb
  • after infecting neurons, they can (1) proceed into a lytic life cycle or (2) persist as an intranuclear episome in a latent state
25
Q

Describe PEGylated poly-L-lysine nanoparticles for non-viral gene therapy.

A
  • ~50-150 nm diameter
  • multiple copies of DNA.
  • unstable in physiologic solutions and serum
  • can’t transfect non-dividing cells
26
Q

Explain the improvements of Copernicus formulation of PEGylated poly-l-lysine nanoparticles.

A
  • 20 nm diameter (compact –> can go through cell membrane)
  • unimolecular DNA (w/o free DNA or poly-lysine)
  • stable in physiologic solutions and serum
  • soluble to >7 mg/ml
  • transfect non-dividing cells
27
Q

Non-viral gene delivery can be used to treat what disease?

A

Cystic fibrosis

28
Q

Explain why ADA deficiency was selected for the first appriced human gene trial.

A
  • cause by a single gene defect –> increases likelihood the gene therapy will succeed
  • gene is regulated in an “always on” fashion
  • amount of ADA doesnt need to be precisely regulated
29
Q

What was the first FDA approved human gene therapy in the US? Explain how it works.

A

Kymriah - treats children with a form of acute lymphoblastic leukemia
* Uses chimeric antigen receptor T-cell (CAR-T) therapy - unique and personalized to individual patients
* extracts a patient’s immune cells –> modifies them to recognize and destroy cancerous cells
* re-inserts cancer killing cells back into the patient

30
Q

What are the 5 FDA approved gene therapy products?

A
  • YESCARTA - immunotherapy with retrovirus modified T cells expressing CD19 antibody (CART)
  • KYMRIAH - immunotherapy with lentivirus modified T cells expressing CD19 antibody (CART)
  • IMLYGIC - oncolytic viral therapy, an attenuated herpes simplex virus (HSV-1) expressing granulocyte macrophage colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)
  • LUCTURNA - inherited disease treatment, AAV2 vector containing human PRE65 cDNA
  • ZOLGENSMA - inherited disease treatment for pediatric patients, AAV-based vector